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SURG 2 > 2018 + 2017 QUIZ > Flashcards

2018 + 2017 QUIZ Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Fatigue fractures often occur in the following sites
    a. lower ulna
    b. Second and third metatarsal
    c. superior patella
    d. First phalangeal
    e. Olecranon
A

a. lower ulna
b. Second and third metatarsal
c. superior patella
d. First phalangeal
e. Olecranon

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2
Q

In emergency treatment of fractures, the incorrect treatment is ( ).
a. prompt transhipment after proper fixation
b. use what was then considered the cleanest cloth to wrap the wound
c. each exposed fracture should be restored immediately.
d. proper external fixation is important
e. first save lives

A

a. prompt transhipment after proper fixation
b. use what was then considered the cleanest cloth to wrap the wound
c. each exposed fracture should be restored immediately.
d. proper external fixation is important
e. first save lives

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3
Q
  1. Among the criteria for clinical healing of fractures, which of the following is incorrect:
    a. no abnormal local activity
    b. X-ray shows fracture line fuzzy
    c. no longitudinal percussion pain
    d. no local malformation
    e. no local pressure pain
A

a. no abnormal local activity
b. X-ray shows fracture line fuzzy
c. no longitudinal percussion pain
d. no local malformation
e. no local pressure pain

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4
Q
  1. After the fracture of the upper fibula, the failure of eversion and dorsiflexion of feet suggested that
    a. sciatic nerve injury
    b. obturator nerve injury
    c. femoral nerve injury
    d. injury of the common peroneal nerve
    e. tibial nerve injury
A

a. sciatic nerve injury
b. obturator nerve injury
c. femoral nerve injury
d. injury of the common peroneal nerve
e. tibial nerve injury

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5
Q
  1. The Pauwels Angle ( ) is defined as an abductor fracture of the femur neck. a. less than 30 °
    b. less than 15 °
    c. less than 10 °
    d. less than 25 °
    e. less than 20 °
A

a. less than 30 °
b. less than 15 °
c. less than 10 °
d. less than 25 °
e. less than 20 °

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6
Q
  1. In the following knee diseases and related examinations, the wrong was

a. patella friction test (+), chondromalacia patellae
b. floating patella test (+), knee joint effusion
c. anterior drawer test (+), posterior cruciate ligament rupture
d. posterior drawer test (+), posterior cruciate ligament rupture
e. McMurray test (+), meniscus injury

A

a. patella friction test (+), chondromalacia patellae
b. floating patella test (+), knee joint effusion
c. anterior drawer test (+), posterior cruciate ligament rupture
d. posterior drawer test (+), posterior cruciate ligament rupture
e. McMurray test (+), meniscus injury

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7
Q
  1. The main clinical significance of X-ray examination in fracture treatment is ( ).
    a. understanding the bone density
    b. predicting fracture prognosis
    c. understanding the state of an injury d. definite diagnosis
    e. understanding the injury mechanism
A

a. understanding the bone density
b. predicting fracture prognosis
c. understanding the state of an injury
d. definite diagnosis
e. understanding the injury mechanism

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8
Q
  1. What is the most likely features of renal tuberculosis?
    a. Frequency, urgency, pain
    b. Malaise, weight loss
    c. Renal pain or renal colic
    d. Hematuria, pyuria
    e. Renal mass
A

a. Frequency, urgency, pain
b. Malaise, weight loss
c. Renal pain or renal colic
d. Hematuria, pyuria
e. Renal mass

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9
Q
  1. For open fractures, it is generally believed that the majority of debridement within a few hours after injury can get primary healing
    a. 24 hours
    b. 10-12 hours
    c. 6-8 hours
    d. 3-4 hours
    e. 8-10 hours
A

a. 24 hours
b. 10-12 hours
c. 6-8 hours
d. 3-4 hours
e. 8-10 hours

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10
Q
  1. Male, 30-year-old. Accidentally fell from the second floor, immediately appeared chest tightness, shortness of breath. He went to the hospital right away and was found having difficulty breathing, irritability, and purpura. Physical examination: blood pressure 75/52mmHg, subcutaneous emphysema in the chest and neck, fullness on the left chest with percussion of drum sound. The initial treatment should be: ( )
    a. Application of sedative drugs
    b. Thoracentesis
    c. IV fluid perfusion, blood transfusion therapy
    d. Emergency thoracotomy
A

a. Application of sedative drugs
b. Thoracentesis
c. IV fluid perfusion, blood transfusion therapy
d. Emergency thoracotomy

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11
Q
  1. What is not a common cause of bronchiectasis?

a. Overlooked foreign body inhalation
b. Childhood infection (whooping cough, measles).
c. Trauma
d. Tuberculosis
e. Cystic fibrosis

A

a. Overlooked foreign body inhalation
b. Childhood infection (whooping cough, measles).
c. Trauma
d. Tuberculosis
e. Cystic fibrosis

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is the specific sign of fracture?
    a. Fever
    b. Disturbance of consciousness
    c. Bone friction feeling
    d. Swelling
    e. Pain
A

a. Fever
b. Disturbance of consciousness
c. Bone friction feeling
d. Swelling
e. Pain

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13
Q
  1. Followings are those may be confused with renal calculus on a plain abdominal radiograph EXCEPT:
    a. Gallstones
    b. Calcified mesenteric lymph node
    c. Tablets in the alimentary canal
    d. Renal tumors
    e. Ossified tip of the 12th rib
A

a. Gallstones
b. Calcified mesenteric lymph node
c. Tablets in the alimentary canal
d. Renal tumors
e. Ossified tip of the 12th rib

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14
Q
  1. Which may usually cause bilateral hydronephrosis?
    a. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
    b. Ureterocele
    c. Idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis
    d. Inflammatory stricture of ureter
    e. Ureteropelvic Junction Obstruction
A

a. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
b. Ureterocele
c. Idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis
d. Inflammatory stricture of ureter
e. Ureteropelvic Junction Obstruction

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15
Q
  1. Which is the most likely histologic types of renal cell carcinoma?
    a. Granular RCC
    b. Clear cell RCC
    c. Papillary RCC
    d. Chromophobe RCC
    e. Collecting duct cancer
A

a. Granular RCC
b. Clear cell RCC
c. Papillary RCC
d. Chromophobe RCC
e. Collecting duct cancer

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16
Q
  1. An 82-year-old man is referred to the office by his cardiologist for aortic valve replacement. The patient has had increasing dyspnea on exertion for the past two

months, and during this time, he had one episode of substernal chest pain while walking. Based on the results of multiple diagnostic tests, the patient’s cardiologist diagnosed aortic stenosis. Which of the following values is most important in determining whether aortic valve replacement is needed in this patient?
a. Valve area
b. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
c. Mean gradient
d. Ejection fraction
e. Pulmonary artery pressures

A

a. Valve area
b. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
c. Mean gradient
d. Ejection fraction
e. Pulmonary artery pressures

17
Q
  1. Heller myotomy and Dor fundoplication in the treatment of achalasia is ( ).
    a. Reparative
    b. Palliative
    c. Indicated to prevent cancer
    d. Curative
    e. Definitive
A

a. Reparative
b. Palliative
c. Indicated to prevent cancer
d. Curative
e. Definitive

18
Q
  1. Initial therapy for metastatic prostate cancer is ?
    a. Total prostatectomy(sphincter-preserving)
    b. Bilateral orchiectomy
    c. Chemotherapy
    d. Radical prostatectomy
    e. Radiotherapy
A

a. Total prostatectomy(sphincter-preserving)
b. Bilateral orchiectomy
c. Chemotherapy
d. Radical prostatectomy
e. Radiotherapy

19
Q
  1. Which of the following kidney infection is surgical emergency?
    a. Acute pyelonephritis
    b. Chronic pyelonephritis
    c. Perinepheric abscess
    d. Pyonephrosis
    e. Acute perinephritis
A

a. Acute pyelonephritis
b. Chronic pyelonephritis
c. Perinepheric abscess
d. Pyonephrosis
e. Acute perinephritis

20
Q
  1. Which of the following can occur as a paraneoplastic manifestation of renal cell carcinoma?
    a. Thrombocytopenia
    b. Hepatic dysfunction
    c. Hypoglycemia
    d. Pulmonary edema
    e. Hypocalcemia
A

a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Hepatic dysfunction
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Pulmonary edema
e. Hypocalcemia

21
Q
  1. What are the common chief complaints of new patients
    a. Pain, disability, deformity, lump
    b. Pain, disability, swelling, lump
    c. Pain, disability, deformity, fever
    d. Pain, disability, ulcer, lump
A

a. Pain, disability, deformity, lump
b. Pain, disability, swelling, lump
c. Pain, disability, deformity, fever
d. Pain, disability, ulcer, lump

22
Q
  1. Landmarks of orthopaedic in the 19th century
    a. The high-powered microscope, the x-ray tube, anesthesia, the anti-septic surgical technique
    b. The high-powered microscope, the x-ray tube, traction frame, the anti-septic surgical technique
    c. The high-powered drills, the x-ray tube, anesthesia, the anti-septic surgical technique
    d. The high-powered microscope, the x-ray tube, anesthesia, internal fixation
A

a. The high-powered microscope, the x-ray tube, anesthesia, the anti-septic surgical technique
b. The high-powered microscope, the x-ray tube, traction frame, the anti-septic surgical technique
c. The high-powered drills, the x-ray tube, anesthesia, the anti-septic surgical technique
d. The high-powered microscope, the x-ray tube, anesthesia, internal fixation

23
Q
  1. The power of a musclewhich has moderate power, sufficient to move the joint against gravity is recorded according to the Medical Research Council grading system is
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
    e. 5
A

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

24
Q
  1. Orthopedic examination including
    a. Inspections, palpation, move, measure
    b. Inspections, palpation, percussion, measure
    c. Inspections, palpation, percussion, auscultation
    d. Inspections, palpation, auscultation, measure
A

a. Inspections, palpation, move, measure
b. Inspections, palpation, percussion, measure
c. Inspections, palpation, percussion, auscultation
d. Inspections, palpation, auscultation, measure

25
Q
  1. The male patient, 30 years old, was injured in a car accident. A large amount of blood was found bleeding from the left lower limb near the groin. After immediate hemostasis measures were taken, the first thing that should be examined was
    a. Palpation of the dorsalis pedis artery
    b. Examination of limb sensation
    c. Examination of knee reflex or achilles tendon reflex
    d. Whether there is any missing of active movement of the foot
    e. X-ray examination should be done immediately
A

a. Palpation of the dorsalis pedis artery
b. Examination of limb sensation
c. Examination of knee reflex or achilles tendon reflex
d. Whether there is any missing of active movement of the foot
e. X-ray examination should be done immediately

26
Q
  1. What may appear after radial nerve injury
    a. Vertical wrist deformity
    b. Claw-hand deformity
    c. Ape-like hand malformation
    d. Goose neck deformity
    e. None of the above
A

a. Vertical wrist deformity
b. Claw-hand deformity
c. Ape-like hand malformation
d. Goose neck deformity
e. None of the above

27
Q
  1. Humeral shaft fractures can be combined with
    a. Ulnar nerve injury
    b. Median nerve injury
    c. Radial nerve injury
    d. Mycocutaneous nerve injury
    e. Axillary nerve injury
A

a. Ulnar nerve injury
b. Median nerve injury
c. Radial nerve injury
d. Mycocutaneous nerve injury
e. Axillary nerve injury

28
Q
  1. After the fracture of the upper fibula, the failure of eversion and dorsiflexion of feet suggested that
    a. Obturator nerve injury
    b. Sciatic nerve injury
    c. Femoral nerve injury
    d. Tibial nerve injury
    e. Injury of the common peroneal nerve
A

a. Obturator nerve injury
b. Sciatic nerve injury
c. Femoral nerve injury
d. Tibial nerve injury
e. Injury of the common peroneal nerve

29
Q
  1. The deformity of the hand after median nerve injury is often referred to as
    a. Claw-shaped hands
    b. Ape-shaped hands
    c. Mirrored hands
    d. Swearing hands
    e. None of the above
A

a. Claw-shaped hands
b. Ape-shaped hands
c. Mirrored hands
d. Swearing hands
e. None of the above

30
Q
  1. The sequence of the physics check of the sports systems is
    a. Touching, observation, measurement, special tests
    b. Moving, measurement, touching, observation, special tests
    c. Observation, touching, moving, measurement, special tests
    d. Measurement, moving, observation, touching, special tests
    e. Special tests, observation, touching, moving, measurement
A

a. Touching, observation, measurement, special tests
b. Moving, measurement, touching, observation, special tests
c. Observation, touching, moving, measurement, special tests
d. Measurement, moving, observation, touching, special tests
e. Special tests, observation, touching, moving, measurement

SURG 2 (6 decks)

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