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SURG 2 > 2015 EXAM > Flashcards

2015 EXAM Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Of the following options, which does not belong to fracture complications?
    A. Joint stiffness
    B. Pressure sore
    C. Ankylosis of joint
    D. Ischemic muscle contracture
    E. Ischemic bone necrosis
A

A. Joint stiffness
B. Pressure sore
C. Ankylosis of joint
D. Ischemic muscle contracture
E. Ischemic bone necrosis

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2
Q
  1. Of the following fractures, the most unstable type is …..
    A. Fissured fracture
    B. Greenstick fracture
    C. Oblique fracture
    D. Transverse fracture
    E. Insert fracture
A

A. Fissured fracture
B. Greenstick fracture
C. Oblique fracture
D. Transverse fracture
E. Insert fracture

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3
Q
  1. In acute renal failure, which answer is life threatening and should be corrected at an early stage?
    A. Hyperphosphatemia
    B. hyperkalemia
    C. Infection
    D. Metabolic acidosis
    E. Fever
A

A. Hyperphosphatemia
B. hyperkalemia
C. Infection
D. Metabolic acidosis
E. Fever

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4
Q
  1. 27-year old female presents with typical ureteric colic pain. Which of the following examination should be conducted first in this patient?
    A. CT
    B. KUB
    C. MRI
    D. IVU
    E. ULTRASOUND
A

A. CT
B. KUB
C. MRI
D. IVU
E. ULTRASOUND

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5
Q
  1. A woman complained of frequent micturition, urgent micturition, micturition ache, the symptom of acute urinary tract infection, to draw up preliminary treatment plan, which of the following examination is most appropriate.
    A. Urine routine
    B. Cystoscopy
    C. Urine smear staining examination
    D. Urine cytology
    E. Urine culture
A

A. Urine routine
B. Cystoscopy
C. Urine smear staining examination
D. Urine cytology
E. Urine culture

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6
Q
  1. The Pauwel’s angle ( ) is defined as an abductor fracture of the femur neck
    a. Less than 10˚
    b. Less than 15˚
    c. Less than 25˚
    d. Less than 30˚
    e. Less than 20˚
A

a. Less than 10˚
b. Less than 15˚
c. Less than 25˚
d. Less than 30˚
e. Less than 20˚

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7
Q
  1. The following that do not contribute to displacement of fracture segment is ()
    a. None of the above
    b. Improper handling and treatment
    c. Magnitude and direction of violence
    d. Age of the injured
    e. Muscular tension
A

a. None of the above
b. Improper handling and treatment
c. Magnitude and direction of violence
d. Age of the injured
e. Muscular tension

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8
Q
  1. When severe popliteal soft tissue injury is accompanied by popliteal artery rupture, the simplest and most direct detection method is?
    a. Examination of sensation and movement of the lower leg and foot
    b. XRAY
    c. Ultrasonography
    d. Palpation of the dorsalis pedis artery
    e. Observation of swelling of the lower leg and foot
A

a. Examination of sensation and movement of the lower leg and foot
b. XRAY
c. Ultrasonography
d. Palpation of the dorsalis pedis artery
e. Observation of swelling of the lower leg and foot

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9
Q
  1. A 60-year old man seeks medical attention because of increasing difficulty in urination (decreased flow, straining, hesitancy). A prostate biopsy proves benign. Which of the following statements regarding Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is true?
    a. Low bladder pressures and low flow rates are suggestive of outflow obstruction (maybe)
    b. All patients with BPH should be treated to prevent renal failure due to outflow obstruction
    c. Initial management of BPH is transurethral resection of prostate
    d. Hypernatremia is a complication of the transurethral resection of prostate for BPH
    e. Indicators for surgery include urinary retention refractory to medical therapy and recurrent urinary tract infections
A

a. Low bladder pressures and low flow rates are suggestive of outflow obstruction (maybe)
b. All patients with BPH should be treated to prevent renal failure due to outflow obstruction
c. Initial management of BPH is transurethral resection of prostate
d. Hypernatremia is a complication of the transurethral resection of prostate for BPH
e. Indicators for surgery include urinary retention refractory to medical therapy and recurrent urinary tract infections

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10
Q
  1. Thoracic spinal cord injury, complete paralysis of both lower limbs, the muscle strength at this time is
    a. Level 4
    b. Level 1
    c. Level 5
    d. Level 2
    e. Level 0
A

a. Level 4
b. Level 1
c. Level 5
d. Level 2
e. Level 0

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11
Q
  1. A man, 45 year old, was found a thin, smooth, sharp walled, water density lesions on CT scan. The lesion is about 3cm in diameter with no enhancement. What do you suggest this man to do next?
    a. Follow up once a year
    b. Partial nephrectomy
    c. Radical nephrectomy
    d. Renal cyst decortication
    e. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy
A

a. Follow up once a year
b. Partial nephrectomy
c. Radical nephrectomy
d. Renal cyst decortication
e. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy

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12
Q
  1. The only characteristic of a fracture is ( )
    a. Swelling
    b. Pain
    c. Dysfunction
    d. Stasis
    e. Abnormal activity
A

a. Swelling
b. Pain
c. Dysfunction
d. Stasis
e. Abnormal activity

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13
Q
  1. A healthy patient is noted to have a split second heart sound that does not vary with respiration ( )
    a. Atrial septal defect
    b. Ventricular septal defect
    c. Patent ductus arteriosus
    d. Mitral valve prolapses
    e. Bicuspid aortic valve
A

a. Atrial septal defect
b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Patent ductus arteriosus
d. Mitral valve prolapses
e. Bicuspid aortic valve

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14
Q
  1. The male patient, 30 years old, was injured in a car accident. A large amount of blood was found bleeding from the left lower limb near the groin. After immediate hemostasis measures were taken, the first thing that should be examined was?
    a. X ray must be done immediately
    b. Whether there is any missing of active movement on the foot
    c. Examination of knee reflex or Achilles tendon reflex
    d. Palpation of the dorsalis pedis artery
    e. Examination of limb sensation
A

a. X ray must be done immediately
b. Whether there is any missing of active movement on the foot
c. Examination of knee reflex or Achilles tendon reflex
d. Palpation of the dorsalis pedis artery
e. Examination of limb sensation

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15
Q
  1. following are those which may be confused with renal calculus on a plain abdominal radiograph, except?
    a. Tablets in the alimentary canal
    b. Ossified tip of the 12th rib
    c. Renal tumors
    d. Calcified mesenteric lymph node
    e. Gallstones
A

a. Tablets in the alimentary canal
b. Ossified tip of the 12th rib
c. Renal tumors
d. Calcified mesenteric lymph node
e. Gallstones

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16
Q
  1. Urinary continence in women is maintained by
    a. Lower bladder pressure
    b. Detrusor muscle
    c. Internal sphincter
    d. Middle circular layer of the bladder neck
    e. External sphincter
A

a. Lower bladder pressure
b. Detrusor muscle
c. Internal sphincter
d. Middle circular layer of the bladder neck
e. External sphincter

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17
Q
  1. Of the following factors, the one that has the greatest impact on fracture healing is ( ) a. Blood supply at the fracture site
    b. Age
    c. Fracture displacement
    d. Nutritional status
    e. Type of fracture
A

a. Blood supply at the fracture site
b. Age
c. Fracture displacement
d. Nutritional status
e. Type of fracture

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18
Q
  1. The main clinical significance of Xray examination in fracture treatment is
    a. Understanding the bone density
    b. Definite diagnosis
    c. Predicting fracture prognosis
    d. Understanding the state of an injury
    e. Understanding the injury mechanism
A

a. Understanding the bone density
b. Definite diagnosis
c. Predicting fracture prognosis
d. Understanding the state of an injury
e. Understanding the injury mechanism

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19
Q
  1. In the following indications for open reduction and internal fixation of fractures, the wrong is ( )
    a. Conservative treatment of fractures does not meet the criteria for functional reduction (maybe)
    b. Manual reduction do not meet the criteria for anatomical reduction
    c. There is a muscle and other soft tissue embedded between the fracture ends, and the manual reduction fails
    d. Patients with intra-articular fracture who are not well positioned after manual reduction
    e. Multiple fractures or major vascular injuries
A

a. Conservative treatment of fractures does not meet the criteria for functional reduction (maybe)
b. Manual reduction do not meet the criteria for anatomical reduction
c. There is a muscle and other soft tissue embedded between the fracture ends, and the manual reduction fails
d. Patients with intra-articular fracture who are not well positioned after manual reduction
e. Multiple fractures or major vascular injuries

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20
Q
  1. the sequence of the physics check of the sports system is?
    a. Observation, touching, moving, measurement, special tests
    b. Touching, observation, measurement, special tests
    c. Measurement, moving, observation, touching, special tests
    d. Moving, measurement, touching, observation, special tests
    e. Special tests, observation, touching, moving, measurement
A

a. Observation, touching, moving, measurement, special tests
b. Touching, observation, measurement, special tests
c. Measurement, moving, observation, touching, special tests
d. Moving, measurement, touching, observation, special tests
e. Special tests, observation, touching, moving, measurement

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21
Q
  1. The most common site of bone ischemic necrosis after fracture is
    a. Humerus head
    b. Distal clavicle
    c. Internal tibia condyle
    d. Distal radius
    e. Femoral head
A

a. Humerus head
b. Distal clavicle
c. Internal tibia condyle
d. Distal radius
e. Femoral head

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common cause of obstructive acute renal failure a. Calculi (Kidney Stones)
    b. Bilharzia
    c. Surgery
    d. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
    e. Pelvic malignancy
A

a. Calculi (Kidney Stones)
b. Bilharzia
c. Surgery
d. Retroperitoneal fibrosis
e. Pelvic malignancy

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23
Q
  1. in the following knee diseases and related examinations, the wrong was? a. Anterior drawer test (+), posterior cruciate ligament rupture
    b. Floating patella test (+), knee joint effusion
    c. Posterior drawer test (+), posterior cruciate ligament rupture
    d. Mc Murray Test (+), meniscus injury
    e. Patella friction test (+). chondromalacia patellae
A

a. Anterior drawer test (+), posterior cruciate ligament rupture
b. Floating patella test (+), knee joint effusion
c. Posterior drawer test (+), posterior cruciate ligament rupture
d. Mc Murray Test (+), meniscus injury
e. Patella friction test (+). chondromalacia patellae

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following intervertebral disc herniation can attenuate or eliminate Achilles tendon reflex
    a. L4-L5
    b. L2-L3
    c. S1-S2
    d. L5-S1
    e. L3-L4
A

a. L4-L5
b. L2-L3
c. S1-S2
d. L5-S1
e. L3-L4

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25
Q
  1. The deformity of the hand after median nerve injury is often referred to as
    a. Mirrored hands
    b. Ape-shaped hands
    c. None of the above
    d. Claw shaped hands
    e. Swearing hands
A

a. Mirrored hands
b. Ape-shaped hands
c. None of the above
d. Claw shaped hands
e. Swearing hands

26
Q
  1. Positive floating patellae sign, indicating knee joint
    a. Joint effusion
    b. Patella fracture
    c. Intra-articular adhesion
    d. Patellar tendon injury
    e. Synovial hyperplasia
A

a. Joint effusion
b. Patella fracture
c. Intra-articular adhesion
d. Patellar tendon injury
e. Synovial hyperplasia

27
Q
  1. How many centimeters is the beginning of esophagus from the incisors? a. 12cm
    b. 15cm
    c. 10cm
    d. 8cm
    e. 20cm
A

a. 12cm
b. 15cm
c. 10cm
d. 8cm
e. 20cm

28
Q
  1. What is not a common cause of bronchiectasis?
    a. Tuberculosis
    b. Trauma
    c. Overlooked foreign body inhalation
    d. Childhood infection (whooping cough, measles)
    e. Cystic fibrosis
A

a. Tuberculosis
b. Trauma
c. Overlooked foreign body inhalation
d. Childhood infection (whooping cough, measles)
e. Cystic fibrosis

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE about the concept of open chest trauma?
    a. Parietal pleural injury, the pleural cavity communicates with the outside through the chest wall
    b. The chest wall has an open wound which reaches the deep muscle layer
    c. Visceral pleural injury, the pleural cavity communicated with the outside through the visceral pleura
    d. There is a crack in the lungs
    e. The parietal pleura has a wound and the skin is intact
A

a. Parietal pleural injury, the pleural cavity communicates with the outside through the chest wall
b. The chest wall has an open wound which reaches the deep muscle layer
c. Visceral pleural injury, the pleural cavity communicated with the outside through the visceral pleura*
d. There is a crack in the lungs
e. The parietal pleura has a wound and the skin is intact

30
Q
  1. For open fractures, it is generally believed that the majority of debridement within a few hours after injury can get primary healing
    a. 6-8 h
    b. 24 h
    c. 3-4 h
    d. 8-10 h
    e. 10-12 h
A

**a. 6-8 h **
b. 24 h
c. 3-4 h
d. 8-10 h
e. 10-12 h

31
Q
  1. Which of the following is the specific sign of fracture?
    a. Fever
    b. Swelling
    c. Disturbance of consciousness
    d. Bone Friction Feeling
    e. Pain
A

a. Fever
b. Swelling
c. Disturbance of consciousness
**d. Bone Friction Feeling **
e. Pain

32
Q
  1. Al healthy appearing, 8-year-old boy is evaluated for a mass felt by his mother during a bath. What is the most likely diagnosis?
    a. Neuroblastoma
    b. Lymphoma
    c. Wilms’ tumor
    d. Rhabdomyosarcoma
    e. Renal Cell Carcinoma
A

a. Neuroblastoma
b. Lymphoma
c. Wilms’ tumor
d. Rhabdomyosarcoma
e. Renal Cell Carcinoma

33
Q
  1. Initial Therapy for metastatic prostate cancer is ?
    a. Total Prostatectomy (Sphincter preserving)
    b. Radical Prostatectomy
    c. Bilateral Orchiectomy
    d. Radiotherapy
    e. Chemotherapy
A

a. Total Prostatectomy (Sphincter preserving)
b. Radical Prostatectomy
c. Bilateral Orchiectomy
d. Radiotherapy
e. Chemotherapy

34
Q
  1. Which answer is not the renal causes of acute renal failure?
    a. Drugs
    b. Disseminated intravascular transfusion
    c. Incompatible blood transfusion (maybe)
    d. Blood loss
    e. Hemoglobin
A

a. Drugs
b. Disseminated intravascular transfusion
c. Incompatible blood transfusion (maybe)
d. Blood loss
e. Hemoglobin

35
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is not correct about rib fractures?
    a. Most like occurs in long and fixed 4-7 ribs
    b. Single rib fracture generally needs to the completely reset and corrected
    c. Chest x-ray can confirm the diagnosis and is the most reliable evidence
    d. Abnormal respiratory movement is the key for diagnosing flail chest
    e. The most common chest injury
A

a. Most like occurs in long and fixed 4-7 ribs
b. Single rib fracture generally needs to the completely reset and corrected
c. Chest x-ray can confirm the diagnosis and is the most reliable evidence
d. Abnormal respiratory movement is the key for diagnosing flail chest
e. The most common chest injury

36
Q
  1. Which one is an early complication of fracture?
    a. Fat embolism syndrome
    b. Nerve injury
    c. Osteofascial compartment syndrome
    d. Shock
    e. Traumatic ossification
A

a. Fat embolism syndrome
b. Nerve injury
c. Osteofascial compartment syndrome
d. Shock
e. Traumatic ossification

37
Q
  1. The common treatment for clavicular fracture is?
    a. Manual reduction, plaster external fixation
    b. Manual reduction, splint fixation
    c. Open reduction, internal fixation
    d. Traction treatment
    e. Manual reduction, horizontal “8” bandage fixation
A

a. Manual reduction, plaster external fixation
b. Manual reduction, splint fixation
c. Open reduction, internal fixation
d. Traction treatment
e. Manual reduction, horizontal “8” bandage fixation

38
Q
  1. Humeral shaft fractures can be combined with? a. Radial nerve injury
    b. Myocutaneous nerve injury
    c. Ulnar nerve injury
    d. Median nerve injury
    e. Axillary nerve injury
A

a. Radial nerve injury
b. Myocutaneous nerve injury
c. Ulnar nerve injury
d. Median nerve injury
e. Axillary nerve injury

39
Q
  1. Which of the following kidney infection is surgical emergency? a. Pyonephrosis
    b. Acute perinephritis
    c. Perinephric abscess
    d. Acute pyelonephritis
    e. Chronic pyelonephritis
A

a. Pyonephrosis
b. Acute perinephritis
c. Perinephric abscess
d. Acute pyelonephritis
e. Chronic pyelonephritis

40
Q
  1. Which is the nosy likely histologic types of renal cell Carcinoma?
    a. Collecting duct cancer
    b. Chromophobe RCC
    c. Papillary RCC
    d. Clear cell RCC
    e. Granular RCC
A

a. Collecting duct cancer
b. Chromophobe RCC
c. Papillary RCC
d. Clear cell RCC
e. Granular RCC

41
Q
  1. Which if the following is not a common place for impaction of a urinary stone?
    a. Vesicourethral junction
    b. Ureteral vesical junction
    c. Ureteral pelvic junction d. Crossing the iliac vessels
    e. Pelvic brim
A

a. Vesicourethral junction*
b. Ureteral vesical junction
c. Ureteral pelvic junction d. Crossing the iliac vessels
e. Pelvic brim

42
Q
  1. Aamir, 30 year old, accidentally fell from the second floor. Immediately afterwards he appeared to have chest tightness and shortness of breath. He went to the hospital right away and was found having difficulty breathing irritability and purpura. Physical examination: blood pressure 75/52mmHg, subcutaneous emphysema in the chest and neck comma fullness on the left chest with percussion of drum sound. The treatment should be?
    a. Application of sedative drugs
    b. Thoracentesis
    c. Intubation, ventilator assisted breathing
    d. IV fluid perfusion, blood transfusion therapy e. Emergency thoracotomy (maybe)
A

a. Application of sedative drugs
b. Thoracentesis
c. Intubation, ventilator assisted breathing
d. IV fluid perfusion, blood transfusion therapy
e. Emergency thoracotomy (maybe)

43
Q
  1. Common causes of osteofascial compartment syndrome, not including:
    a. Severe local compression of limb
    b. Small splint wrapping too tight in limb fractures
    c. Massive bleeding from open fractures
    d. Vigorous exercise the lower leg
    e. Severe soft tissue injury
A

a. Severe local compression of limb
b. Small splint wrapping too tight in limb fractures
c. Massive bleeding from open fractures
d. Vigorous exercise the lower leg
e. Severe soft tissue injury

44
Q
  1. An 82 year old man is referred to the office buy his cardiologist for aortic valve
    replacement. The patient has had increasing dyspnea on exertion for the past two months and during this time he had one episode of substernal chest pain while walking. Based on the results of multiple Diagnostic tests the patient’s cardiologist diagnosed aortic stenosis.
    Which of the following values is most important in determining whether or check valve replacement is needed in this patient?
    a. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
    b. Valve area
    c. Ejection fraction
    d. Pulmonary artery pressures
    e. Mean gradient
A

a. Left ventricular end-diastolic pressure
b. Valve area
c. Ejection fraction
d. Pulmonary artery pressures
e. Mean gradient

45
Q
  1. Common symptoms of aortic regurgitation may include all of the following except: a. Ataxia
    b. Dyspnea
    c. Orthopnea
    d. Palpitation
    e. Fatigue
A

a. Ataxia
b. Dyspnea
c. Orthopnea
d. Palpitation
e. Fatigue

46
Q
  1. We could judge the muscle vitality in an open injury by:
    a. Contractility
    b. All above
    c. Tenacity
    d. Circular situation
    e. Color
A

a. Contractility
b. All above
c. Tenacity
d. Circular situation
e. Color

47
Q
  1. Fatigue fractures often occur in the following sites:
    a. Lower ulna
    b. First phalangeal
    c. Superior patella
    d. Olecranon
    e. Second and third metatarsal
A

a. Lower ulna
b. First phalangeal
c. Superior patella
d. Olecranon
e. Second and third metatarsal

48
Q
  1. In emergency treatment of fractures, the incorrect treatment is:
    a. Each exposed fracture should he restored immediately
    b. Use what was then considered the cleanest cloth to wrap the wound
    c. First save lives
    d. Prompt transshipment after proper fixation
    e. Proper external fixation is important
A

a. Each exposed fracture should he restored immediately
b. Use what was then considered the cleanest cloth to wrap the wound
c. First save lives
d. Prompt transshipment after proper fixation
e. Proper external fixation is important

49
Q
  1. The typical distal displacement of a Colles fracture is:
    a. Proximal end to radial and dorsal displacement
    b. Distal end to ulnar and dorsal displacement
    c. Proximal end to radial side shift
    d. Distal end to radial and dorsal displacement
    e. Distal end to radial and Palmar side shift
A

a. Proximal end to radial and dorsal displacement
b. Distal end to ulnar and dorsal displacement
c. Proximal end to radial side shift
d. Distal end to radial and dorsal displacement
e. Distal end to radial and Palmar side shift

50
Q
  1. The common complication of extension type supracondylar fracture of humerus is:
    a. Rupture of biceps brachii
    b. Vascular and nerve injury
    c. Ischemic necrosis of lower humerus
    d. Local infection of fracture
    e. Fat embolism
A

a. Rupture of biceps brachii
b. Vascular and nerve injury
c. Ischemic necrosis of lower humerus
d. Local infection of fracture
e. Fat embolism

51
Q
  1. After injury, the lower extremity is in short contraction, abduction and extreme external rotation, most likely:
    a. None of the above
    b. Intertrochanteric fracture of the femur
    c. Supracondylar fracture of femur
    d. Middle femur fracture
    e. Femoral neck fracture
A

a. None of the above
b. Intertrochanteric fracture of the femur
c. Supracondylar fracture of femur
d. Middle femur fracture
e. Femoral neck fracture

52
Q
  1. Lateral stress test is mainly used for examination of
    a. Patellar ligament damage
    b. Collateral ligament damage
    c. Meniscus injury
    d. Anterior cruciate ligament damage
    e. Posterior cruciate ligament damage
A

a. Patellar ligament damage
b. Collateral ligament damage
c. Meniscus injury
d. Anterior cruciate ligament damage
e. Posterior cruciate ligament damage

53
Q
  1. Which of the following can occur as a paraneoplastic manifestation of renal cell carcinoma?
    a. Hypocalcemia
    b. Hypoglycemia
    c. Pulmonary edema
    d. Gels tic dysfunction— Hepatic dysfunction
    e. Thrombocytopenia
A

a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Pulmonary edema
d. Gels tic dysfunction— Hepatic dysfunction
e. Thrombocytopenia

54
Q
  1. The special test for knee ligament damage is:
    a. Lachman test
    b. Bryant triangle
    c. Finkelstein test
    d. McMurray test
    e. Duga’s test
A

a. Lachman test
b. Bryant triangle
c. Finkelstein test
d. McMurray test
e. Duga’s test

55
Q
  1. Of the following conditions, which is not considered a urological emergency?
    a. Paraphimosis
    b. Testicular torsion
    c. Priapism
    d. Orchitis
    e. Shattered Kidney
A

a. Paraphimosis
b. Testicular torsion
c. Priapism
d. Orchitis
e. Shattered Kidney

56
Q
  1. The injury causing square shoulder deformity is:
    a. Shoulder joint dislocation
    b. Clavicular fracture
    c. Fracture of surgical neck of humerus
    d. Periarthritis of shoulder
    e. Rotator cuff tear
A

a. Shoulder joint dislocation
b. Clavicular fracture
c. Fracture of surgical neck of humerus
d. Periarthritis of shoulder
e. Rotator cuff tear

57
Q
  1. Among the criteria for clinical healing of fractures, which is incorrect? a. X-ray shows fracture line fuzzy
    b. No longitudinal percussion pain
    c. No abnormal local activity
    d. No local pressure pain
    e. No local malformation
A

a. X-ray shows fracture line fuzzy
b. No longitudinal percussion pain
c. No abnormal local activity
d. No local pressure pain
e. No local malformation

58
Q
  1. A 42-year-old woman involved in a traffic accident presents to the Emergency Room complaining of flank pain and gross hematuria. She is hemodynamically stable, the next step in management is:
    a. Computed axial tomography scan with the use of intravenous contrast
    b. Open lavage end, if positive, immediate laparotomy
    c. immobilization of the pelvis
    d. Exploratory laparotomy
    e. Skeletal Traction
A

a. Computed axial tomography scan with the use of intravenous contrast
b. Open lavage end, if positive, immediate laparotomy
c. immobilization of the pelvis
d. Exploratory laparotomy
e. Skeletal Traction

59
Q
  1. External humeral epicondylitis is also called:
    a. Tennis elbow
    b. Non-functional elbow
    c. Golf elbow
    d. Miner’s elbow
    e. Student elbow
A

**a. Tennis elbow
b. Non-functional elbow
c. Golf elbow
d. Miner’s elbow
e. Student elbow

60
Q
  1. Heller myotomy and Dor fundoplication in the teamed enemy of achalasia is:
    a. Definitive
    b. Curative
    c. Reparative
    d. Indicated to prevent cancer
    e. Palliative
A

a. Definitive
b. Curative
c. Reparative
d. Indicated to prevent cancer
e. Palliative

SURG 2 (6 decks)

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