2018

Question 1

What type of inflammation often resulted in 18F-FDG uptake in a group of dogs with FUO?

Answer 1

pyogranulomatous

(pyogranulomatous retroperitoneal panniculitis, pyogranulomatous inflammation at site of prevous splenectomy, pyogranulomatous hepatitis

Question 2

What is a cause of tubular, soft-tissue opaque structure within the left abdomen on radiographs, often affecting spayed female cats?

What should it be differentiated from?

Where were shunts seen to enter systemic circulation when CT performed?

Answer 2

“spaghetti sign” - splenosystemic collateral circulation

one cat showed evidence of portal hypertension

should differentiate from focal loss of detail or a space occupying lesion

Left renal vein through left gonadal vein

Question 3

Is 3T MRI more specific for diagnosing partial or complete cranial cruciate ligament tears?

Answer 3

partial

Compared to arthroscopy, for complete cranial cruciate ligament rupture, sensitivity, specificity, and accuracy of MRI detection of fiber loss were 0.78, 0.50–0.60, and 0.68–0.71, respectively, and, for partial tears, specificity was 1.00

few false positives for diagnosing partial tears

high number of false positives for diagnosing complete rupture

Question 4

In regards to pulmonary trunk to aorta ratio on CT….

what was the correlation between tricuspid regurg and CT pulmonary trunk to aorta ratio?

The pulmonary trunk to aorta ratio was significantly higher in which groups compared to normal dogs? Which group was not significantly different?

What ratio was recommended as a cutoff between normal and moderate to severe PHT?

Was the PT to Ao ratio reproducible?

Answer 4

moderate positive correlation between tricupsid regurg gradient and CT PT:Ao ratio

Mean CT PT:Ao ratio was significantly higher in dogs with moderate to severe pulmonary hypertension compared to normal dogs. There was no significant difference in PT:Ao ratio between normal dogs and dogs with PHT

PT:Ao ratio threshold of 1.4 may be useful to ID cases more likely to have moderate or severe PHT

There was good reproducibility of the ratio

Question 5

How do the sensitivities and specificities of CT, 10view rads, and 2view rads compare for evaluation of canine tarsal fractures?

What were the most commonly induced fractures in this study?

Answer 5

talus and calcaneus most common

CT had greatest sensitivity overall but similar specificity to 10view rads

10 view rads were only minimally more sensitive than 2 view rads and both had the same specificity

Question 6

In regards to elastography of benign and malignant lymph nodes, what are the relative stiffness of the two groups?

Answer 6

benign lymph nodes were softer

malignant lymph nodes were harder

there was some overlap, so limited clinical significance

Question 7

What are the most common types of canine tonsillar neoplasia?

Answer 7

SCC #1, followed by melanoma and lymphoma

Question 8

Were there any features of the tonsil that differentiated between neoplastic and non-neoplastic disease?

Answer 8

No

Question 9

What are common and unique findings related to regional lymphadenopathy in canine tonsillar neoplasia?

Answer 9

marked enlargement, heterogeneity, and loss of hypo hilus of the MRLN were common findings in tonsillar neoplasia

MRLN and MLN lymphadenomegaly was often ipsilateral but could be contralateral

5 dogs demonstrated little or no enlargement of the tonsil despite associated metastatic lymphadenomegaly

thus should consider tonsillar neoplasia as a ddx if MRLymphadenopathy regardless of normal sized tonsils OR of any enlarged tonsil with no associated lymphadenomegaly

Question 10

What are typical CT findings for dogs with crenosoma vulpis infection?

Answer 10

predominantly broncho-entric changes!

• diffuse bronchial wall thickening
• multifocal peribronchial ground glass attenuation
• consolidation
• cylindrical bronchiectasis
• sometimes irregular/nodular bronchial wall thickening (also seen on tracheoscopy)
• pulmonary parenchymal bands

Question 11

What is a differential for an osteolytic lesion in the forelimb (radius/ulna) of a small breed dog with a history of minor trauma?

What is a potential cause?

Answer 11

RUIN (radioulnar ischemic necrosis)
fungal osteomyelitis
neoplasia

tearing of the interosseous ligament and ischemia

Question 12

What is a gastrointestinal finding sometimes seen in dogs with leptospirosis?

Answer 12

intussusception

Question 13

What should be considered as a differential for pulmonary nodules in a cat?

Answer 13

“tree in bud” pattern

Question 14

What is the most common location and distribution of the feline tree in bud pattern?

How did radiographs compare to CT for detection?

Answer 14

right cranial and caudal lung lobes

peripheral

radiographs often underestimated affected pulmonary segments compared to CT

Question 15

In regards to CT angiography of the normal feline pancreas…

what is the attenuation of the pancreas in comparison to the liver and spleen?

Which lobe has a greater mean height, length, and width?

Answer 15

Hypoattenuating to both the liver and spleen in the majority of cats with a homogeneous enhancement pattern noted in all 15

left lobe

Question 16

Were esophageal abnormalities seen in a group of dogs with paraesophageal empyema?

What was found in surgery in 2 of the dogs?

Answer 16

nope

plant material

Question 17

subcutaneous malignant neoplasia was more likely to be ____ on elastography compared to lipomatous subcutaneous lesions

Answer 17

harder

A hardness cutoff of 50.25% was identified between lesions, with malignant neoplasms having higher percentages. A 100% specificity and 89% sensitivity for correctly detecting the nature of the lesion on elastosonography was established. Qualitative assessment of the Tsukuba elasticity score established 1.5 as the cutoff between elastograms of lipomatous and malignant lesions, with 100% sensitivity and 61% specificity in differentiating them.

Question 18

in a study of 555 dogs with thoracolumbar myelopathy…

What percentage of dogs needed additional imaging after CT?

What were the characteristics about the dogs which were less likely to need additional imaging?

What was correlated with an increased risk of needing additional imaging?

Dogs that did not need additional imaging were much more likely to ____?

Answer 18

7.6%

dachshunds and dogs scanned during normal business hours were less likely to need additional imaging

increased age increased the likelihood of needing an additional imaging modality

dogs that did not need additional imaging much more likely to need surgery (about 20x more likely)

Question 19

What draining lymph nodes should be considered when there is malignant disease in the popliteal lymph node

Answer 19

medial iliac, internal iliac, and sacral

Question 20

What modality has the best sensitivity for induced equine cartilage lesions?

Answer 20

CT arthrography shows the best sensitivity (69.9%),

followed by MRA (53.5%), MRI (33.3%), and CT (18.1%) respectively

The addition of contrast arthrography in both magnetic resonance and CT improved the rate of cartilage lesion detection although no statistical significance was found.

Question 21

What ultrasonographic appearance is suggestive of a duodenal puplication cyst?

Did the case report show evidence of communication between the duodenum and the duplication cyst?

Answer 21

Hyperechoic inner surface, hypoechoic outer surface - “muscular rim sign”

no

Question 22

What is recommended for definitive diagnosis of colonic torsion?

Answer 22

barium enema

Question 23

What were uncommon signs in colonic torsion?

What was the most common sign?

Answer 23

severe abdominal pain, hypovolemic shock

vomiting

Question 24

What increased with endotracheal tube placement in brachycephalic dogs?

What decreased with endotracheal tube placement in brachycephalic dogs?

What changed least with endotracheal tube placement?

Answer 24

Increased –> tracheal dimensions

Decreased –> soft palate CSA

nasopharynx variable – varied with a mean proportional absolute difference of 35%.

Rostral soft palate thickness, tracheal perimeter, and CSA of the rostral nasopharynx were the measurements least affected by the endotracheal tube

Question 25

Are hounsfield units in dogs and cat useful for predicting cytologic type of pleural effusion?

Answer 25

Significant differences existed in Hounsfield units between categories in dogs but not in cats.

Canine chylous effusion (6.1 ± 4.7 HU) and transudate (5.6 ± 2.0) were significantly lower than exudate (20.3 ± 9.5) and hemorrhage (21.4 ± 9.2). No significant differences were found between modified transudate (13.6 ± 10.3) and other categories

HU of dependent effusion was not significantly higher than the nondependent effusion, except for canine chylous effusion

Question 26

In dogs, what HU was associated with chylous effusion or transudate?

What HU was associated with exudate, modified transudate, or hemorrhage?

Answer 26

<14 HU identified transudate or chylous effusion with a sensitivity of 100% and a specificity of 69%

> 14 HU had a specificity of 100% and a sensitivity of 69% for identifying exudate, modified transudate, or hemorrhage.

Question 27

In CT angiography of cats with heart disease, what was the most common location of intracardiac thrombi?

Answer 27

left auricle

only 1 was in the right ventricle

Question 28

What tumor other than choroid plexus carcinoma should be considered if there is an intraventricular mass with drop metastases?

Answer 28

oligodendroglioma

Question 29

Do suspensory branches that appear normal on B-mode ultrasound exhibit power Doppler signal?

Answer 29

no

power Doppler signal was detected in suspensory ligament branches that were abnormal in B mode, both in lame and sound limbs.

Power Doppler scores were subjectively higher in suspensory ligament branches of lame limbs and in branches with more severe B-mode changes.

Question 30

Why is skeletal scintigraphy not a good screening tool in cases of foot lameness?

Answer 30

Had high specificity but variable sensitivity

best agreements for phalanx, ungual cartilages, and chondral ligaments

A positive scintigraphic result is a good predictor of lesions causing pain or poor performance in the foot, however, this does not preclude the presence of additional lesions contributing to lameness, and a negative result does not preclude injury.

in conclusion, skeletal scintigraphy does not meet the minimum reliability level for a diagnostic test, but is reliable for identification of osseous trauma to the distal phalanx and ungular cartilages.

Question 31

did three view abdominal radiographs yield statistically significant increased accuracy as compared to two view in dogs with signs of acute abdomen?

Answer 31

no

Question 32

What radiographic projection improves accuracy of detection and characterization of navicular flexor cortical lysis?

Answer 32

palmaroproximal-palmarodistal oblique obtained at a flatter angle (about 35 degrees)

(traditional angle is about 55 degrees)

Question 33

what utility is 18F FDG pet for staging mast cell tumors?

Answer 33

Findings indicated that there was a correlation between grade of mast cell tumors and SUVmax as determined by F18 FDG PET-CT

Question 34

apparent contrast enhancement on post contrast T2 FLAIR often reflects what?

Answer 34

Apparent contrast enhancement on postcontrast-T2 FLAIR images often reflects leakage of gadolinium across normal or pathology specific barriers into fluid-filled structures, and hyperintensity may therefore represent normal fluid structures as well as pathological tissues.

Question 35

Phantom imaging demonstrated increased sensitivity of ____ sequences to low concentrations of gadolinium compared to T1 weighted sequences.

Answer 35

FLAIR

Question 36

A majority of hyperintensities on postcontrast-T2 FLAIR images that were not present on precontrast FLAIR images were also present on ____ and were consistent with normal or pathological fluid filled structures.

Answer 36

precontrast T2 weighted images,

Question 37

what was the most common site of caudal articular process aplasia in pugs which was almost completely spared in french an english bulldogs?

Answer 37

T10-T13

Question 38

Caudal articular process dysplasia is most common in what breed and also very common in what other breeds?

Answer 38

pugs - 97% in one study

fbs (70%), engbul (84%)

Question 39

pugs showed a higher prevalence of what in regard to caudal articular process dysplasia?

Answer 39

Compared to French and English bulldogs, Pugs showed a significantly higher prevalence of

• caudal articular process aplasia
• higher number of affected vertebrae per dog
• demonstrated a generalized and bilateral spatial pattern more frequently.

Question 40

in lame and poorly performing sport horses, what was the sensitivity and specificity of IRU on scintigraphy for identification of final diagnosis?

Should scintigraphy be used as a screening tool?

Answer 40

The sensitivity of increased radiopharmaceutical uptake for identification of final diagnosis was low (43.8%) and specificity was high (94.0%).

Scintigraphic examination is unlikely to lead to a full and correct diagnosis of the cause(s) of lameness or poor performance in sports horses when used as an isolated or indiscriminate screening tool.

Question 41

CT arthrography of the canine shoulder was better for the assessment of what structures in comparison to survey CT?

CT arthrography was of limited use for assessing what structures?

Answer 41

biceps tendon, biceps tendon sheath, humeral head cartilage

medial and lateral glenohumeral ligaments and the subscapularis tendon

Question 42

What can be used as an internal control for dogs when performing MRI spectroscopy?

Answer 42

the contralateral side

Question 43

Do single and multi-voxel MR spectroscopy techniques yield different metabolite ratios?

Answer 43

no, not when regions of interest were similar in size and shape

Question 44

What were the most affected purebred dogs in a study about medial coronoid disease in large breed dogs?

Answer 44

goldens and labs

Question 45

What were common findings in dogs with confirmed medial coronoid process disease?

Answer 45

• short and deformed medial coronoid process
• medial coronoid process osteophytosis
• sub-trochlear-ulnar sclerosis
• peri-articular osteophytosis in 51.4%

Question 46

What are the most common site of mineralization in equine tendons/ligaments

Answer 46

DDFT - usually hindlimb and proximal within the DFTS

Suspensory Branches - usually forelimb, usually near insertion

Question 47

Is tendon/ligament mineralization seen on ultrasound always associated with lameness in horses?

Answer 47

nope

Question 48

bronchial collapsibility is signficantly greater during what phase of respiration?

Answer 48

forced expiration

Question 49

Do the presence of size of mediastinal mass differ between myeloid and lymphoid neoplasms?

Answer 49

nope

Question 50

Pharyngeal collapse is more common in what type of dog during videofluoroscopy?

Answer 50

Results demonstrate that pharyngeal collapse was significantly more common in brachycephalic dogs (58/82; 72%) than in non-brachycephalic dogs with (7/25; 28%) and without (2/30; 7%) airway collapse.

Question 51

When did pulmonary changes (consolidation, interstitial patterns) resolve after BAL on radiographs and CT?

Answer 51

2h after BAL for rads

24 hours for CT

Question 52

What was the most common finding in horses undergoing a distal tarsus/proximal metatarsus MRI?

What percentage of horses had suspensory ligament desmopathy?

What MRI finding correlated with grade of lameness?

T/F Overall, the grade of lameness has good correlation with the severity of lesions seen on MRI

Answer 52

OA of the DIT and TMT

53%

bone marrow lesions of the 3rd tarsal bone

F - grade of lameness had poor correlation to severity of lesions on MRI

Question 53

What is the best CT protocol for vascular enhancement/conspicuity when compromising between low and high number of detector rows?

What the best if you were just evaluating 64 row multi-detectors?

Answer 53

Findings supported the fixed-injection duration protocol as the best compromise between an ideal portal vascular enhancement and an easily reproducible protocol on scanners with low and high number of detector rows.

test bolus was the best for 64 row multidetector

Also, the quality of ARTERIAL studied performed on 64 row multidetector scanners was improved compared to 4-16 row multidetector scanners (no difference for portal phase)

Question 54

what are the main disadvantages of a test-bolus CT protocol?

Answer 54

• increased dose of contrast required

- operator dependency

Question 55

What are the advantages and disadvantages of ultrasound vs. palpation for identifying intervertebral disc spaces?

Answer 55

U/S takes longer but is more accurate than palpation (97% vs. 76.7%)

Question 56

What C1-C2 measurement is sensitive and specific for a diagnosis of atlantoaxial instability on radiographs?

Answer 56

less than or equal to +1.55mm

Question 57

are parathyroid glands consistently seen on ultrasound in cats?

Answer 57

nope

parathyroid glands were frequently not ultrasonographically observed or were not distinguishable from thyroid tissue

this problem was worse in older cats because of the prevalence of nodular thyroid lesions, which primarily included foci of adenomatous hyperplasia

Question 58

non-articular osseous cyst-like lesions in which carpal bone may be incidental findings on MRI in dogs?

Answer 58

intermedioradial carpal bone

Question 59

What are the parameters for diagnosing cervical stenotic myelopathy at C7-T1 in horses?

Answer 59

reduction of the dorsal myelographic column by 60% or of the total dural diameter by 30% would avoid high numbers of false positives at this site

Question 60

What is the most common location of DDFT injury in horses with solar penetrating injuries?

Horses with solar foot penetration, deep digital flexor tendon injury, and absence of concurrent synovial sepsis have generally what kind of outcome?

Answer 60

between the distal border of the distal sesamoid and the facies flexoria of the distal phalanx

positive

Question 61

What is the most common type of arterioportal malformation in one study?

Answer 61

left-divisional (specifically left medial)