2017 exam Flashcards

1
Q

Most likely to be affected if pituitary adenoma grows superiorly

A. Cavernous sinus

B. Sphenoidal air sinus

C. Abducens nerve

D. Occuomotor nerve

E. Opthalamic nerve

F. Maxillary nerve

G. Optic chiasm

H. Internal carotid artery

A

G. Optic chiasm

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2
Q

Most likely to cause exophthalmos if pituitary adenoma grows laterally A. Cavernous sinus B. Sphenoidal air sinus C. Abducens nerve D. Occuomotor nerve E. Opthalamic nerve F. Maxillary nerve G. Optic chiasm H. Internal carotid artery

A

A. Cavernous sinus

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3
Q

Present in the pars intermedia A. Melanocyte stimulating hormone B. Follicle stimulating hormone C. Lutenizing hormone D. Adrenocorticotropic releasing hormone E. Growth hormone F. Thyroid stimulating hormone G. Prolactin H. Vasopressin

A

A. Melanocyte stimulating hormone

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4
Q

If the pituitary stalk is damaged, its secretion is increased A. Melanocyte stimulating hormone B. Follicle stimulating hormone C. Lutenizing hormone D. Adrenocorticotropic releasing hormone E. Growth hormone F. Thyroid stimulating hormone G. Prolactin H. Vasopressin

A

G. Prolactin

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5
Q

Attack directed against alpha enolase as autoantigen A. Sheehan syndrome B. Autoimmune lymphocytic hypophysitis C. Subacute thyroiditis D. Grave’s disease E. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis F. Systemic lupus erthymatosus G. Ankylosing spondylitis

A

B. Autoimmune lymphocytic hypophysitis

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6
Q

Organ-specific autoimmune disease A. Sheehan syndrome B. Autoimmune lymphocytic hypophysitis C. Subacute thyroiditis D. Grave’s disease E. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis F. Systemic lupus erthymatosus G. Ankylosing spondylitis

A

E. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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7
Q

Stored as a nona-peptide in the posterior pituitary A. Serotonin B. Histamine C. Norepipneprhine D. Oxytocin E. Growth hormone F. Gonadotropin releasing hormone G. Dopamine

A

D. Oxytocin

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8
Q

Derived from histidine A. Serotonin B. Histamine C. Norepipneprhine D. Oxytocin E. Growth hormone F. Gonadotropin releasing hormone G. Dopamine

A

B. Histamine

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9
Q

Used to diagnose primary adrenocortical insufficiency A. Cosyntropin B. Ganirelix C. Leuprolide D. Menotropin E. Cabergoline F. Desmopressin G. Tolvaptan

A

A. Cosyntropin

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10
Q

May be used to treat endometriosis A. Cosyntropin B. Ganirelix C. Leuprolide D. Menotropin E. Cabergoline F. Desmopressin G. Tolvaptan

A

C. Leuprolide

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11
Q

Increases water channel expression on renal collecting duct A. Cosyntropin B. Ganirelix C. Leuprolide D. Menotropin E. Cabergoline F. Desmopressin G. Tolvaptan

A

F. Desmopressin

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12
Q

Acts as direct antagonist to GnRH A. Cosyntropin B. Ganirelix C. Leuprolide D. Menotropin E. Cabergoline F. Desmopressin G. Tolvaptan

A

B. Ganirelix

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13
Q

Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, characterized by muscle weakness, weight loss, and postural hypotension. A. High intact PTH B. Low intact PTH C. Low renin D. High renin E. Low ACTH F. High cortisol G. High aldosterone

A

D. High renin

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14
Q

45-year-old woman with celiac disease spontaneously developed a fragility fracture. Her lab tests revealed low calcium and high alkaline phosphatase. A. High intact PTH B. Low intact PTH C. Low renin D. High renin E. Low ACTH F. High cortisol G. High aldosterone

A

B. Low intact PTH

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15
Q

Patient presents with hypertension, palpitations, sweating, and headaches A. ACTH stimulation test B. Glucose suppression test C. Aldosterone suppression test D. Dexamethasone suppression test E. Urinary metanephrines F. Water deprivation test G. Metyrapone stimulation test (Ask

A

E. Urinary metanephrines

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16
Q

Pituitary adenoma with chromophobes was positive for ACTH upon immunohistochemistry A. ACTH stimulation test B. Glucose suppression test C. Aldosterone suppression test D. Dexamethasone suppression test E. Urinary metanephrines F. Water deprivation test G. Metyrapone stimulation test

A

D. Dexamethasone suppression test

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17
Q

Patient with high growth hormone levels A. ACTH stimulation test B. Glucose suppression test C. Aldosterone suppression test D. Dexamethasone suppression test E. Urinary metanephrines F. Water deprivation test G. Metyrapone stimulation test

A

B. Glucose suppression test

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18
Q

Posterolateral aspect of right suprarenal gland A. Upper pole of kidney B. Stomach C. Pancreas D. Liver E. Internal jugular vein F. 2nd part of duodenum G. Diaphragm

A

G. Diaphragm

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19
Q

Superior and anterior aspect of left suprarenal gland A. Upper pole of kidney B. Stomach C. Pancreas D. Liver E. Internal jugular vein F. 2nd part of duodenum G. Diaphragm

A

B. Stomach

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20
Q

Has to be lifted in order to reach the right suprarenal gland A. Upper pole of kidney B. Stomach C. Pancreas D. Liver E. Internal jugular vein F. 2nd part of duodenum G. Diaphragm

A

D. Liver

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21
Q

Enzyme deficiency leads to low tetrahydrocortisol glucuronide A. 17 α hydroxylase B. 13 β hydroxylase C. 11 β hydroxylase D. 18 β hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase E. 5 α reductase F. Aromatase

A

C. 11 β hydroxylase

22
Q

Enzyme deficiency leads to high 17-oxosteroid A. 17 α hydroxylase B. 13 β hydroxylase C. 11 β hydroxylase D. 18 β hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase E. 5 α reductase F. Aromatase

A

C. 11 β hydroxylase

23
Q

Cushing’s Disease A B C D E

A

E

24
Q

Cushing’s Disease

A

D

25
Q

Addison’s Disease A B C D E

A

A

26
Q

Secondary adrenocortical insufficiency A B C D E

A

C

27
Q

Cretinism

A. Glycoprotein stored in the colloid of thyroid follicles

B. Autoimmune destruction of thyroid follicular cells

C. Low thyroxine levels in newborns

D. Low thyroxine levels in newborns due to low iodine intake during pregnancy

E. Thyroxine deficiency in adults

F. Most active form of thyroid hormones

G. Pituitary hormone stimulating the thyroid gland

A

D. Low thyroxine levels in newborns due to low iodine intake during pregnancy

28
Q

Myxoedma

A. Glycoprotein stored in the colloid of thyroid follicles

B. Autoimmune destruction of thyroid follicular cells

C. Low thyroxine levels in newborns

D. Low thyroxine levels in newborns due to low iodine intake during pregnancy

E. Thyroxine deficiency in adults

F. Most active form of thyroid hormones

G. Pituitary hormone stimulating the thyroid gland

A

E. Thyroxine deficiency in adults

29
Q

Thyroglobulin

A. Glycoprotein stored in the colloid of thyroid follicles

B. Autoimmune destruction of thyroid follicular cells

C. Low thyroxine levels in newborns

D. Low thyroxine levels in newborns due to low iodine intake during pregnancy

E. Thyroxine deficiency in adults

F. Most active form of thyroid hormones

G. Pituitary hormone stimulating the thyroid gland

A

A. Glycoprotein stored in the colloid of thyroid follicles

30
Q

Hashitmoto’s thyroidits

A. Glycoprotein stored in the colloid of thyroid follicles

B. Autoimmune destruction of thyroid follicular cells

C. Low thyroxine levels in newborns

D. Low thyroxine levels in newborns due to low iodine intake during pregnancy

E. Thyroxine deficiency in adults

F. Most active form of thyroid hormones

G. Pituitary hormone stimulating the thyroid gland

A

B. Autoimmune destruction of thyroid follicular cells

31
Q

Activates tetra-iodothyronine

A. Deiodinases

B. Thyroperoxidase

C. NADPH dual oxidase

D. Tyrosine hydroxylase

E. Monoamine oxidase

F. Na+/K+ ATPase

A

A. Deiodinases

32
Q

Produces co-factor for thyroperoxidase A. Deiodinases B. Thyroperoxidase C. NADPH dual oxidase D. Tyrosine hydroxylase E. Monoamine oxidase F. Na+/K+ ATPase

A

C. NADPH dual oxidase

33
Q

Grave’s Disease

A

D

34
Q

Iodine deficiency hypothyroidism

A

A

35
Q

Secondary Hypothyroidism

A

B

36
Q

Used in controlling cardiac symptoms of hyperthyroidism A. Radioactive iodine B. Propranolol C. Propylthiouracil D. Levothyroxine E. Liotrix F. Iodide salt

A

B. Propranolol

37
Q

Can inhibit conversion of T4 to T3 A. Radioactive iodine B. Propranolol C. Propylthiouracil D. Levothyroxine E. Liotrix F. Iodide salt

A

C. Propylthiouracil

38
Q

Patient with previous upper respiratory tract infection presented with fever and tenderness in the neck. Upon thyroid scan, there was decreased uptake. A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis B. Grave’s disease C. Nontoxic diffuse goiter D. Subacute thyroiditis E. Papillary thyroid carcinoma F. Medullary thyroid carcinoma

A

D. Subacute thyroiditis

39
Q

Lab findings showed nuclear grooves and intranuclear cytoplasmic inclusions A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis B. Grave’s disease C. Nontoxic diffuse goiter D. Subacute thyroiditis E. Papillary thyroid carcinoma F. Medullary thyroid carcinoma

A

E. Papillary thyroid carcinoma

40
Q

Patient presents with low calcium levels, high intact PTH, and normal alkaline phosphatase A. Osteoporosis B. Osteomalacia C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Renal osteodystrophy E. Osteitis fibrosa cystica F. Paget’s disease G. Primary parathyroidism

A

D. Renal osteodystrophy

41
Q

Characterized by mosaic bone pattern, bone pain, normal intact PTH, normal calcium levels, and high serum alkaline phosphatase A. Osteoporosis B. Osteomalacia C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Renal osteodystrophy E. Osteitis fibrosa cystica F. Paget’s disease G. Primary parathyroidism

A

F. Paget’s disease

42
Q

Extrudes calcium from the cytoplasm and increases intracellular stores A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Plasma membrane calcium pump C. Endoplasmic reticulum calcium pump D. Na+/Ca2+ exchanger

A

C. Endoplasmic reticulum calcium pump

43
Q

Important calcium transporter for bone formation with low affinity and high capacity A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Plasma membrane calcium pump C. Endoplasmic reticulum calcium pump D. Na+/Ca2+ exchanger

A

D. Na+/Ca2+ exchanger

44
Q

An estrogen receptor modulator that increases bone density and can be used to treat osteoporosis A. Alendronate B. Estrogen C. Raloxifene D. Calcitonin E. Calcitriol F. Sevelamer G. Etidronate H. Zoledronic acid

A

C. Raloxifene

45
Q

Used in treatment of osteoporosis and associated with tachyphylaxis A. Alendronate B. Estrogen C. Raloxifene D. Calcitonin E. Calcitriol F. Sevelamer G. Etidronate H. Zoledronic acid

A

D. Calcitonin

46
Q

Produced by adipose tissue A. Agouti-related protein B. Cortisol C. Leptin D. Glucagon like peptide E. Glucagon F. Amylase G. Growth hormone

A

C. Leptin

47
Q

Given to a patient to increase blood glucose levels A. Agouti-related protein B. Cortisol C. Leptin D. Glucagon like peptide E. Glucagon F. Amylase G. Growth hormone

A

E. Glucagon

48
Q

Stimulates flaring of POMC A. Agouti-related protein B. Cortisol C. Leptin D. Glucagon like peptide E. Glucagon F. Amylase G. Growth hormone

A

D. Glucagon like peptide

49
Q

Damages pancreatic β cells through free oxygen radicals and nitric oxide radicals A. Activated macrophages B. Pro-inflammatory cytokines C. Autoantibody to glutaminc acid decarboxylase D. Autoantibody to islet antigen 2 E. Anti-inflammatory cytokines

A

A. Activated macrophages

50
Q

Responsible for cytotoxicity of pancreatic β cells A. Activated macrophages B. Pro-inflammatory cytokines C. Autoantibody to glutaminc acid decarboxylase D. Autoantibody to islet antigen 2 E. Anti-inflammatory cytokines

A

B. Pro-inflammatory cytokines

51
Q

Has same amino acid sequence has growth hormone A. Somatotropin B. Somatotrem C. Mecasermine D. Hexarelin E. Cabergoline F. Octreotide G. Pegvisomant

A

A. Somatotropin

52
Q

Used in treatment of a 12-year-old child with growth retardation and growth hormone receptor defect A. Somatotropin B. Somatotrem C. Mecasermine D. Hexarelin E. Cabergoline F. Octreotide G. Pegvisomant

A

C. Mecasermine