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Endocrine Exams > 2013 exam > Flashcards

2013 exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which gene expression is regulated by DHEA?

a. Phosphodiesterase
b. Adenylate cyclase
c. PMNT
d. 11 beta HSD-I
e. 3 beta HSD

A

d. 11 beta HSD-I

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2
Q

What characterizes steroid hormones?

a. Water soluble
b. Made up from cholesterol
c. Has 3 amino acids in the structure

A

b. Made up from cholesterol

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3
Q

Graph about the insulin release after IV glucose injection and after intake of glucose in diet- What does this graph indicate?

a. Intestinal factors play a role in the release of insulin
b. When glucose is given IV the pancreatic b cells response is exaggerated
c. Ingesting food releases insulin from the gastrointestinal tract

A

a. Intestinal factors play a role in the release of insulin

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4
Q

Which of the following releases growth hormone?

a. Somatotropes
b. Lactotropes
c. Chromophobes
d. Basophils

A

a. Somatotropes

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5
Q

What plays a role in the remove of waste products and supply of nutrients by connecting the central canal to osteocytes in the bone?

a. Lamella
b. Haversian canal
c. Canaliculi
d. Osteoblasts

A

c. Canaliculi

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6
Q

Which type of cells undergo differentiation in the thymus?

a. Basophils
b. Monocytes
c. Neutrophils
d. Lymphocytes

A

d. Lymphocytes

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7
Q

A 32 year old man presented with blurred vision, headaches, and impotence. Upon an X-Ray a suprasellar calcification was seen. What other histological features do you expect?

a. Layers of cuboidal and columnar cells
b. Lymphocytic infiltration with eosinophilic cytoplasm
c. Squamous cells surrounded by a layer of cuboidal cells
d. Benign adenoma that is well encapsulated

A

c. Squamous cells surrounded by a layer of cuboidal cells

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8
Q

What stimulates the release of both glucagon & insulin?

a. Carbohydrates
b. Fatty acids
c. Amino Acids
d. Ketones

A

c. Amino Acids

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9
Q

What can help in the treatment for growth retardation in patients with Laron dwarfism?

a. Sermorelin
b. Mecasermin
c. Hexarelin
d. Somatropin

A

b. Mecasermin

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10
Q

A 45 year old man with acromegaly underwent surgery to remove a large pituitary tumour. Because surgical treatment is partially effective, he was advised to take a course of drugs that competitively block GH receptor. Which of the following drug did he most likely use?

a. Octreotide
b. Cosyntropin
c. Bromocriptine
d. Pevisomant

A

d. Pevisomant

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11
Q

Which oral drug can be used to treat excessive water retention in an elderly patient by blocking v2 directly?

a. Democycline
b. Tolvaptan
c. Lithium
d. Convaptan
e. Desmopressin

A

b. Tolvaptan

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12
Q

(graph showing increase in hormone levels during sleep) Which hormone is in the graph?

a. Cortisol
b. Growth Hormone
c. LH men
d. Prolactin

A

b. Growth Hormone

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13
Q

Which malignant tumor is 20 times more seen with Klinefelter’s syndrome than in normal males?

a. Small cell lung carcinoma
b. Medullary carcinoma
c. Breast Cancer
d. Malignant Melanoma
e. Colorectal cancer

A

c. Breast Cancer

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14
Q

Lady visited clinic and Dr. found out she has her peak in estrogen level. What will happen after 3 days?

a. Menses
b. Corpus leutem will degenerate
c. Ovulation

A

c. Ovulation

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15
Q

Low bone mass density in distal forearm and hypercalcemia is associated with what?

a. Hypoparathyrodism
b. Hyperthyroidism
c. Primary hyperparathyroidism
d. Osteomalacia
e. Rickets

A

c. Primary hyperparathyroidism

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16
Q

Why are the glycolytic intermediates better glycating agents than glucose?

a. They are activated by phosphorylation
b. They are unable to hide their reactive groups by cyclization
c. They have an intrinsic NADH
d. They easily cross membranes
e. They are produced in higher concentrations than glucose

A

b. They are unable to hide their reactive groups by cyclization

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17
Q

Which hormone plays an important role in adrenarche?

a. Testosterone
b. Estradiol
c. Progesterone
d. AD
e. DHEA

A

e. DHEA

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18
Q

A nurse treated for breast cancer for a year developed resistance against tamoxifel, which drug should she take to overcome this problem?

a. Raloxifene
b. Letrozole
c. Oral contraceptives
d. Estrogen
e. Clomiphene

A

b. Letrozole

(Raloxifene= Antagonistic activity in the endometrium
& breast. Doesn’t have estrogen stimulation on
breast and uterus)

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19
Q

A patient comes to your clinic with palpation, anxiety, hypertension, headache, and sweating. He seemed agitated and confused. What would you like to rule out before proceeding with him?

a. Myocardial infarction
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Nephropathy
d. Disturbed Acid Base balance

A

b. Pheochromocytoma

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20
Q

A rheumatoid arthritis patient has been taking prednisolone for years. What is the most important long term side effect of glucocorticoids on such patients?

a. Hyperglycemia because they decrease insulin
b. Increased thrombocytes circulating in the blood
c. Decreased glycogen stores in the liver
d. Increase collagen synthesis to build bone

A

b. Increased thrombocytes circulating in the blood

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21
Q

A 17 years old female with short stature and primary amenorrhea. Which is most likely?

a. 46 XX DSD
b. 46 XY DSD
c. Klinfelter’s syndrome
d. Turner syndrome

A

d. Turner syndrome

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22
Q

What substance will be accumulated in steroidogenic tissues in (congenital adrenal hyperplasia)?

a. Cortisol
b. ACTH receptor
c. Deoxycortisone (DOC)
d. DHEA
e. Cholesterol Ester

A

e. Cholesterol Ester

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23
Q

Which of the following types of obesity is strongly related to cardiovascular problems?

a. Apple type
b. Pear type
c. Female type
d. Male type
e. Subcutaneous

A

a. Apple type

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24
Q

Two studies were done to look for an association between obesity & asthma in children. If the OR was similar in both why is the CI wider & the p value larger in the second study

a. Bigger systemic error in study 2
b. Smaller sample size in study 2
c. Study 2 probably had more older people
d. Measurement were not standardized

A

b. Smaller sample size in study 2

The q had a table that showed CI & p value of both studies

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25
Q

Which of the following indicates depletion of energy in body cells?

a. AMP
b. ATP
c. Phosphates
d. Lactate

A

a. AMP

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26
Q

A 47 year old male with a family history of diabetes, he was concerned to be having diabetes so he did a fasting glucose test and the result was =6.3. What’s the interpretation or the next step?

a. he has type 1 diabetes
b. he has type 2 diabetes
c. he should do an OGTT
d. he should measure his insulin

A

c. he should do an OGTT

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27
Q

A young girl with severe diabetic ketoacidosis presented to the emergency department. As required in the management of her condition, she was rehydrated with 500 ml of saline over 2 hours. What is the most feared complication of rapid rehydration in a young patient like this one?

a. Hypokalemia
b. Hyponatremia
c. Congestive Heart Failure
d. Cerebral Edema

A

d. Cerebral Edema

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28
Q

Treating High LDL in diabetes decreases complications of?

a. Microvascular complications
b. Resistance to treatment
c. Myocardial Infarction

A

c. Myocardial Infarction

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29
Q

Why does a pregnant woman with Type-1-diabetes needs an increased insulin dose?

a. Because the fetus requires the higher insulin taken
b. Because of the high activity of her CYP enzyme family in the liver
c. Because of increased estrogen in pregnancy
d. Because of decreased subcutaneous insulin absorption from the injection site

A

c. Because of increased estrogen in pregnancy

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30
Q

What is the pharmacological basis for the adjunct of atenolol along with the treatment of hyperthyroidism, especially before surgery?

a. Inhibits the intake of iodide into the thyroid gland
b. Lowers the circulating concentration of thyroid hormones
c. Protects the heart from the sensitizing effects of thyroid hormone
d. Is selectively concentrated in the thyroid
e. Decreases gland vascularity

A

c. Protects the heart from the sensitizing effects of thyroid hormone

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31
Q

What is the underlying immunologic mechanism of autoimmune oophoritis?

a. Inducers of suppressive T cells
b. Cytotoxic cell mediated
c. NK cell
d. Antibody-complement

A

b. Cytotoxic cell mediated

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32
Q

A patient with a normal karyotype [46(XY)] but has a deletion in the SRY gene on the Y chromosome. Which test would you use to rapidly detect the gene?

a. PCR
b. DNA sequencing
c. FISH
d. Combined hybridization

A

a. PCR

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33
Q

A young women has puffy skin, hoarse voice, and cold dry skin. Her plasma thyrotropin concentration is low but increase markedly in response to exogenous thyroid releasing hormone administration. Which of the following is the women suffering from?

a. hyperthyroidism due to a thyroid tumor
b. hyperthyroidism due to an abnormality in the hypothalamus
c. hypothyroidism due to thyroid gland abnormality
d. hypothyroidism due to pituitary gland abnormality
e. hypothyroidism due to hypothalamic abnormality

A

e. hypothyroidism due to hypothalamic abnormality

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34
Q

Which pigment causes the dark spots in the adrenals of Cushing patients?

a. Melanin
b. Lipofuschin
c. Hemosiderin
d. ACTH

A

b. Lipofuschin

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35
Q

How do inflammatory cytokines inhibit growth in the children?

a. Inhibit the absorption of calcium from the intestine
b. Inhibit the release of IGF-1 from the liver
c. Accelerates fusion of the epiphyseal plate

A

b. Inhibit the release of IGF-1 from the liver

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36
Q

What is seen with Diabetes insipidus patients and characterizes their condition?

a. Hypernatermia
b. Polyuria with a highly concentrated urine
c. Hyponatriemia
d. Central DI is caused by a kidney disease

A

a. Hypernatermia

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37
Q

A patient was diagnosed with Cushing’s syndrome and has had a surgical removal of his adrenals. He was then being treated with glucocorticoids. Three months later he presented with nausea and vomiting. As he can recall, one day before, he went on a trip overseas and forgot to take his medication. His hormones plasma count:
NA: normal, Glucose: normal, K: slightly high
What is his current level of CRH, ACTH, and Cortisol on admission?
a. All high
b. All Low
c. Low CRH, Low ACTH, and High Cortisol
d. High CRH, High ACTH, and Low Cortisol

A

b. All Low

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38
Q

What is the course of chronic disease like Type 2 diabetes?

a. It affects middle to late-aged people
b. It doesn’t matter when it starts, it matters when it peaks
c. In utero environment affects chronic diseases in later life
d. Genetics play more role than environmental factors

A

c. In utero environment affects chronic diseases in later life

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39
Q

What is the molecular pathogenesis of hereditary vitamin D resistance rickets?

a. Vitamin D synthase deficiency
b. Defect in the kidney enzyme that makes the active form of the vitamin
c. Vitamin D receptor mutation

A

c. Vitamin D receptor mutation

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40
Q

A 55 year old man with miliary TB has suffered from a severe acute adrenal insufficiency. What is the best rational that should be administered?

a. Cortisol & 9-flurocortisol
b. 9-Flurocortisol & metyrapone
c. Aldosterone & metyrapone

A

a. Cortisol & 9-flurocortisol

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41
Q

Which structure will prevent the enlarged thyroid gland from moving superiorly?

a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Cricothyroid
c. Sternothyroid
d. Pretracheal fascia
e. Sternohyoid

A

a. Sternocleidomastoid

tafreeg says sternothyroid

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42
Q

Scientists wanted to measure the magnitude of association between Age (in years) and Diabetes. How can they measure the association?

a. RR
b. OR
c. Difference in proportions
d. Difference in means
e. Correlation coefficient

A

d. Difference in means

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43
Q

Which breast of the following is a drug that inhibits the steroidogenic pathway and is used to treat cancer?

a. Aminoglutathione
b. Octerotide
c. Metyrapone
d. Syncathen

A

a. Aminoglutathione

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44
Q

A thyroid section from a 45-years old female has shown extensive lymphocytic infiltration, germinal centers, Hurthle cell metaplasia, and follicular cells. What is the underlying condition?

a. Acute thyroiditis
b. Lymphoma
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
d. Grave’s disease
e. Redeye disease

A

c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

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45
Q

Which of the following is correctly matched?

a. XY always develop to normal men
b. XXX show exaggerated female secondary sexual characteristics
c. XO fail to attain puberty
d. XX always develop to normal female

A

c. XO fail to attain puberty

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46
Q

What is an endo-cannabinoid neuromodulator?

a. Arachidonic acid
b. 2-arachidonoglycerol
c. Serotonin

A

b. 2-arachidonoglycerol

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47
Q

A six year old boy unable to thrive with craniotabes, cupped metaphysis, and a widened epiphysis. What is he suffering from?

a. Rickets
b. Osteomalacia
c. Osteoporosis

A

a. Rickets

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48
Q

Which of the following is responsible for the destruction in Diabetes type 1?

a. Cytotoxic t cells + MQ+ T dth
b. Cytotoxic t cells + b lymphocytes +NK
c. NK + T dth+ mq
d. autoimmune b cells + th1

A

a. Cytotoxic t cells + MQ+ T dth

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49
Q

A physician believes that all the events that happened to her were predictable, meaningful, and explicable. What does that mean according to Antonovsky’s Saltugenic model?

a. Coherence
b. Positive Coping
c. Hardiness
d. Learned responsiveness
e. Personal strength

A

a. Coherence

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50
Q

Glyzibride (GM) inhibits mineralocorticoids receptors (MR). If we give GM to a patient for 2 weeks, which of the following will activate his MR?

a. Cortisone
b. Cortisol
c. Aldosterone
d. DOC (Deoxycortisone)
e. GM itself

A

b. Cortisol

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51
Q

What cause a decreased TSH?

a. Infants born without a thyroid gland
b. Iodine deficiency
c. Atrophy of thyroid
d. Partial removal of thyroid
e. Following adenohypophysectomy

A

e. Following adenohypophysectomy

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52
Q

What is an evidence of Addison’s disease?

a. Auto antibody to cortisol and aldosterone
b. Auto antibody to surface receptors of cortisol
c. Auto Antibodies to adrenal cortex cells
d. Inflammatory cytokines found in adrenal cortex

A

c. Auto Antibodies to adrenal cortex cells

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53
Q

Which type of cell growth lacks mitosis?

a. Cellular hyperplasia
b. Auxetic growth
c. Mersimetric growth
d. Interstitial growth

A

b. Auxetic growth

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54
Q

A 27 year old patient presents with a neck mass. On examination you found that it was a solitary firm nodule. After taking a FNA you saw a mixture of plasmacytoid and spindle cells with amyloid that was stained with congo red stain? What is the diagnosis?

a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Chronic thyroiditis
c. Medullary thyroid Carcinoma
d. Follicular Carcinoma
e. Papillary thyroid Carcinoma

A

c. Medullary thyroid Carcinoma

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55
Q

A 25 year old young man diagnosed with T1DM patient wants to tightly control his blood sugar level. What would be the most effective regime?

a. Lente with Regular mix taken in the morning and evening
b. Once daily Ultra Lente with Lisopro before each meal
c. Morning Regular and Lente before each meal
d. Three Regular in the morning and Ultra Lente before bed time
e. One Glargine in morning and three lisporo with every meal

A

b. Once daily Ultra Lente with Lisopro before each meal

56
Q

Which mutation is associated with Polyendocrine Autoimmune Syndrome?

a. C4
b. AIRE
c. Interleukin 4 & 5
d. Fas/Fasl

A

b. AIRE

57
Q

Which structure will be affected by an anteriorly superiorly pituitary adenoma?

a. Optic nerve
b. Oculomotor nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Maxillary Nerve
e. Mandibular Nerve

A

a. Optic nerve

58
Q

What blocks thyroid hormone organification directly?

a. Iodine
b. Propiothiuracil
c. Thyroperoxidase

A

b. Propiothiuracil

59
Q

What would be blocked by a tumor in the Right suprarenal gland?

a. Abdominal Aorta
b. Superior Renal Artery
c. Inferior Vena Cava
d. Sympathetic Chain

A

c. Inferior Vena Cava

60
Q

Which term is used to describe two parts of the body growing at different rates?

a. Isometric
b. Allometric
c. Auxetic
d. Mersimetric

A

b. Allometric

61
Q

Which hormone triggers ovulation?

a. LH
b. FSH
c. Progesterone
d. Estrogen

A

a. LH

62
Q

A patient has a pituitary adenoma, hiursitism, and high ACTH?

a. Cushing syndrome
b. Diabetes Insipidus
c. Diabetes Mellitus
d. Cushing’s disease

A

d. Cushing’s disease

63
Q

Which cells receive a sympathetic stimulation?

a. Alpha-cells
b. Beta-cells
c. Delta-cells
d. Epsilon

A

a. Alpha-cells

64
Q

In short fasting state, which action is rapid and short?

a. Lipolysis
b. Proteolysis
c. Liver Glycogen degradation

A

c. Liver Glycogen degradation

65
Q

A patient with amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and infertility was prescribed Cabergoline, which of the following mechanism related is responsible for relieving her symptoms?

a. It increases the release of TSH
b. It block the inhibition of GnRH
c. It decreases release of TSH

A

b. It block the inhibition of GnRH

66
Q

What is the mechanism of destructing the thyroid gland in Grave’s disease?

a. CD8 cells
b. CD4 cells
c. Antibodies against TSH
d. B cells

A

c. Antibodies against TSH

67
Q

A Lady was treated with a drug to resume her menstruation. She was originally complaining of amenorrhea, headaches, and galactorrhea. What was she on, and what is its mode of action?

a. Octreotide to block GH receptor
b. Bromocriptine blocks d2 receptos
c. Pergolide binds d2 receptors

A

c. Pergolide binds d2 receptors

68
Q

A child was suspected to have growth failure due to a Growth Hormone deficiency. What is used to to test for that?

a. Compare growth charts with that of the normal kids
b. Give glucose
c. Give insulin

A

c. Give insulin

69
Q

In which Tanner stage do girls have projection of the areola with the papilla as a single mould?

a. Stage 2
b. Stage 3
c. Stage 4
d. Stage 5

A

b. Stage 3

70
Q

A patient visited your clinic with severe ulcers in the duodenum and jejunum accompanied with diarrhea. What is he most likely suffering from?

a. Insulinoma
b. Glucagonoma
c. Gastrinomas
d. Somatostatinoma

A

b. Glucagonoma

Gastrinomas= peptic ulcers and Duodenum affected more than pancreas

71
Q

What is the percentage of undiagnosed diabetes type2?

a. 25%
b. 35%
c. 10%
d. >40%

A

d. >40%

72
Q

Why is RXR role said to be non-permissive when it hetero-dimerizes with THR?

a. Because it carried the thyroid hormone to the nucleus
b. Because it prevents the degradation of the thyroid hormones
c. Because it needs no ligand
d. Because it originally recruits co-repressors

A

c. Because it needs no ligand

73
Q

Which hormone is aromatized to give the male brain?

a. Estrogen
b. Testosterone
c. AD
d. DHEA

A

b. Testosterone

74
Q

What rescues Deiodinase II during cold?

a. T3
b. Norepinephrine
c. Reverse t3
d. Selenium

A

b. Norepinephrine

75
Q

What is true about peptide hormone precursor

a. It is composed of two domains: a signal peptide and the hormone peptide
b. Can give more than one copy of the same hormone
c. It is cleaved inside the cell to be a mature hormone
d. All hypothalamic-released hormones are in this form

A

b. Can give more than one copy of the same hormone

76
Q

If the anterior pituitary was removed in a surgery, which part will atrophy?

a. ZG
b. ZR
c. ZF
d. Medulla

A

c. ZF

77
Q

Which is one of the criteria for treating DKA?

a. Start with giving Potassium chloride solution
b. Start with insulin injections
c. Start with hydration of 500mL over 2 hours

A

c. Start with hydration of 500mL over 2 hours

78
Q

(picture Q) Which of the following (letters) describe Cushing’s disease?

a. high ACTH, low cortisol
b. high ACTH, high cortisol
c. low ACTH, low cortisol
d. low ACTH, high cortisol

A

b. high ACTH, high cortisol

79
Q

What is used to guide surgeons to find the Parathyroid gland?

a. Superior thyroid artery
b. Middle thyroid artery
c. Inferior thyroid artery
d. Thyrodima artery

A

c. Inferior thyroid artery

80
Q

Defective epigenetic modifications in which gene would lead to obesity?

a. PKC
b. Agouti related protein
c. RAS

A

b. Agouti related protein

81
Q

(table with antibiotic use vs non-antibiotic use in different ages and genders) What is this study trying to compare?

a. Compare antibiotic use among older males to younger males and females who don’t use it
b. Compare antibiotic use to non- antibiotic use among males and females
c. Compare antibiotic use among old males to young females who don’t use
d. Compare antibiotics use among young and old and among males and females

A

d. Compare antibiotics use among young and old and among males and females

82
Q

TNFa increases in Diabetes which leads to:

a. Increased glucose intake by organs
b. Increase gluconeogenesis in liver
c. Decreased fat degradation
d. Increase insulin sensitivity

A

b. Increase gluconeogenesis in liver

83
Q

TNFa effect on muscle:

a. Less GLUT2 expression
b. Increased expression of PPARλ
c. Accumulation of TG in cytoplasm
d. Increased insulin sensitivity

A

c. Accumulation of TG in cytoplasm

84
Q

Which lowers blood calcium level by increasing renal excretion and calcium deposition in bone?

a. PTH
b. Vitamin D
c. Calcitonin
d. Bisphosphate

A

c. Calcitonin

85
Q

Which of the following has bone anabolic effects?

a. Bisphosphates
b. Teriparatide
c. Cortisol
d. Osteoclast

A

b. Teriparatide

86
Q

Its secretion depends on dopamine and TRH

a. Somatotrophs
b. Lactotrophs
c. Corticotrophs
d. Chromophobes
e. Thryroid hormones

A

b. Lactotrophs

87
Q

Which Cells mainly found in Pars tuberalis?

a. Somatotrophs
b. Lactotrophs
c. Corticotrophs
d. Chromophobes
e. Thryroid hormones

A

c. Corticotrophs

Note that pars intermedia has Basophils and Chromophobes but Pars tuberalis has Corticotrophs and gonadotrophs

88
Q

Receives parasympathetic stimulation

a. β cells
b. δ cells
c. α cells
d. D1 cell
e. PP cell
f. E cell
g. EC cell

A

a. β cells
&
c. α cells

89
Q

Releases a hormone also secreted by the hypothalamus

a. β cells
b. δ cells
c. α cells
d. D1 cell
e. PP cell
f. E cell
g. EC cell

A

b. δ cells

90
Q

Which is a prostaglandin analogue that treats erectile dysfunction by increasing cAMP?

a. Papaverine
b. Sildenafil
c. Alprostadil
d. Phentalamine
e. Testosterone
f. Tamusolin
g. Atenolol

A

c. Alprostadil

91
Q

Which leads to erectile dysfunction as a side effect?

a. Papaverine
b. Sildenafil
c. Alprostadil
d. Phentalamine
e. Testosterone
f. Tamusolin
g. Atenolol

A

g. Atenolol

92
Q

What is the consequences of Con’s syndrome?

a. Low ACTH
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. High ACTH
d. Blocked venacava syndrome
e. Metabolic alkalosis
f. Low cortisol

A

e. Metabolic alkalosis

93
Q

What is seen with Cushing’s disease?

a. Low ACTH
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. High ACTH
d. Blocked venacava syndrome
e. Metabolic alkalosis
f. Low cortisol

A

c. High ACTH

94
Q

Patient just had a viral flu presented with a tender neck mass. Whats most likely?

a. Graves disease
b. DeQuverian Syndrome
c. Thyroid cancer
d. Multinodular
e. Autonomous functioning nodule
f. Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma

A

b. DeQuverian Syndrome

95
Q

Patient with a neck mass that stained positive for calcitonin?

a. Graves disease
b. DeQuverian Syndrome
c. Thyroid cancer
d. Multinodular
e. Autonomous functioning nodule
f. Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma

A

f. Medullary Thyroid Carcinoma

96
Q

What is a bisphosphate analogue used to treat osteoporosis?

a. Aldentronate
b. Prednisolone
c. PTH
d. Calcitonin
e. Calcimer

A

a. Aldentronate

97
Q

What leads to osteoporosis by decreasing collagen formation and calcium absorption?

a. Aldentronate
b. Prednisolone
c. PTH
d. Calcitonin
e. Calcimer

A

b. Prednisolone

98
Q

What characterizes Grave’s disease?

a. Short stature
b. Tall stature
c. Suppressed tsh
d. Cold sensitivity
e. Low t4
f. Low oxygen intake
g. Low heart rate

A

c. Suppressed tsh

99
Q

What characterizes Cretinism?

a. Short stature
b. Tall stature
c. Suppressed tsh
d. Cold sensitivity
e. Low t4
f. Low oxygen intake
g. Low heart rate

A

a. Short stature

100
Q

Which disorder of sexual development (DSD) is associated with peripheral lymphedema?

a. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
b. Kleinfilter’s syndrome
c. Complete gonadal dysgenesis
d. 46 XY DSD
e. 45 XO
f. 46 XX DSD

A

e. 45 XO

101
Q

A baby was born with a micro penis and enlarged adrenals

a. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
b. Kleinfilter’s syndrome
c. Complete gonadal dysgenesis
d. 46 XY DSD
e. 45 XO
f. 46 XX DSD

A

f. 46 XX DSD

(46 XY is wrong because males with CYP21 deficiency present with salt wasting symptoms and not genital problems because even if DHEA is high it will not affect their gonads, and if CYP17 is deficient a male will present with female gonads or infantilism of male gonads.)

102
Q

Patient suffering from muscle weakness, low calcium, and high phosphate. Whats most likely?

a. Hyperparathyrodism
b. Osteomalacia
c. Rickets
d. Hypoparathyrodism
e. hyperthyrodism

A

d. Hypoparathyrodism

103
Q

Kid with low calcium levels and weak bones:

a. Hyperparathyrodism
b. Osteomalacia
c. Rickets
d. Hypoparathyrodism
e. hyperthyrodism

A

c. Rickets

104
Q

Patient with type2D uncontrolled T2DM, HTN, high LDL, anemia, and is an ex smoker. Whats most likely?

a. Glomerosclerosis
b. Accumulation of sorbitol
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Increased aldose reductase activity
e. Islet cell antibodies
f. Hyperinsulinemia
g. High activity of aldose reductase
h. Microalbunemia

A

h. Microalbunemia

(The correct answer was H but after complaining that there is no term called ‘Microalbunemia’ and that the word should be ‘Microalbuminuria’ they gave all the students this question’s mark.)

105
Q

Patient with hyperpigementation and is known to have T2DM. Whats most likely?

a. Glomerosclerosis
b. Accumulation of sorbitol
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Increased aldose reductase activity
e. Islet cell antibodies
f. Hyperinsulinemia
g. High activity of aldose reductase
h. Microalbunemia

A

f. Hyperinsulinemia

106
Q

Vitamin needed for collagen synthesis

a. A
b. B6
c. C
d. D
e. K
f. B9

A

c. C

107
Q

Vitamin needed for bone protein syntheses.

a. A
b. B6
c. C
d. D
e. K
f. B9

A

e. K

108
Q

It’s analogue is used to treat diabetes type 2?

a. Cck
b. GLP-1
c. Insulin
d. Glucagon
e. IV Peptidase
f. Proglucagon
g. PYY
h. Gastrin

A

b. GLP-1

109
Q

The inhibitor of which has been used to treat diabetes?

a. Cck
b. GLP-1
c. Insulin
d. Glucagon
e. IV Peptidase
f. Proglucagon
g. PYY
h. Gastrin

A

e. IV Peptidase

(aka Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP4)
we took sitagliptin which inhibits DPP4, that leads to a reduction in GLP-1 degradation and thus higher insulin secretion)

110
Q

Which cell is characterized by dense polyhedral core?

a. A cell
b. B cell
c. EC cell
d. Epsilon cell
e. PP cell
f. δ1 cell

A

b. B cell

111
Q

Which cell releases a hormone having an action similar to glucagon effects and stimulates pancreatic exoocrine secretion?

a. A cell
b. B cell
c. EC cell
d. Epsilon cell
e. PP cell
f. δ1 cell

A

f. δ1 cell

112
Q

Which one stimulates pancreatic exocrine secretion?

a. Glucagon
b. Substance P
c. Glucose
d. Insulin
e. CCK
f. Lipase
g. Proglucagon
h. Ghrelin

A

e. CCK

113
Q

What is the precursor for GLP-1 in the small intestine?

a. Glucagon
b. Substance P
c. Glucose
d. Insulin
e. CCK
f. Lipase
g. Proglucagon
h. Ghrelin

A

g. Proglucagon

114
Q

Which cell secrets progesterone?

a. Spermatocytes
b. Thecal cell
c. Theca interna cell
d. Granulosa cell
e. Sertoli cell
f. Leydig cell

A

b. Thecal cell

115
Q

Which cell is responsible for the secondary sexual characteristics in a male?

a. Spermatocytes
b. Thecal cell
c. Theca interna cell
d. Granulosa cell
e. Sertoli cell
f. Leydig cell

A

f. Leydig cell

116
Q

Most autoimmune diseases are

a. Tolerance
b. Autoimmunity
c. T Cell mediated immunity
d. IgE-mediated
e. Non-Tolerance
f. Antibody Mediated

A

f. Antibody Mediated

117
Q

Inappropriate immune response to a harmless antigen

a. Tolerance
b. Autoimmunity
c. T Cell mediated immunity
d. IgE-mediated
e. Non-Tolerance
f. Antibody Mediated

A

b. Autoimmunity

118
Q

Term for growth of all body organs in the same rate

a. Cellular Hyperplasia
b. Cellular Hypertrophy
c. Accretionary Growth
d. Appositional Growth
e. Interstitial Growth
f. Meristematic Growth
g. Compensatory Growth
h. Isometric Growth

A

h. Isometric Growth

119
Q

Growth type due to increase in inter cellular matrix

a. Cellular Hyperplasia
b. Cellular Hypertrophy
c. Accretionary Growth
d. Appositional Growth
e. Interstitial Growth
f. Meristematic Growth
g. Compensatory Growth
h. Isometric Growth

A

c. Accretionary Growth

120
Q

Patient develops HTN because of a defect in an enzyme that leads to the accumulation of DOC (Deoxycortisone) and not aldosterone.

a. CYP 11B1 deficiency
b. 3HSD deficiency
c. 5 a reductase deficiency
d. CYP21 deficiency
e. CYP 11B2 deficiency
f. CYP 17 deficiency

A

f. CYP 17 deficiency

17α-hydroxylase, 17,20-lyase, or 17,20-desmolase

121
Q

A deficiency in which leads to CAH

a. CYP 11B1 deficiency
b. 3HSD deficiency
c. 5 a reductase deficiency
d. CYP21 deficiency
e. CYP 11B2 deficiency
f. CYP 17 deficiency

A

d. CYP21 deficiency

122
Q

Patient with a pituitary tumor presented with hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis

a. Conn’s disease
b. Hyperparathyrodism
c. Hypoparathyrodism
d. Cushing disease
e. Adrenoma
f. Pheochromocytoma
g. Primary Hypertension

A

d. Cushing disease

123
Q

A patient comes to your clinic complaining of headache, HTN, sweating , palpitation & postural hypotension

a. Conn’s disease
b. Hyperparathyrodism
c. Hypoparathyrodism
d. Cushing disease
e. Adrenoma
f. Pheochromocytoma
g. Primary Hypertension

A

f. Pheochromocytoma

124
Q

What is secreted by sertoli cells during fetal stage?

a. Inhibin
b. FSH
c. MIS
d. LH
e. Estrogen
f. Testosterone
g. AD
h. DHEA
i. Progesterone

A

c. MIS

Müllerian-inhibiting substance (MIS) is secreted from the Sertoli cells

125
Q

Which hormone is responsible for the secretory phase of endometrium?

a. Inhibin
b. FSH
c. MIS
d. LH
e. Estrogen
f. Testosterone
g. AD
h. DHEA
i. Progesterone

A

i. Progesterone

126
Q

What antagonize estrogen in hypothalamus to treat infertility?

a. GNRH
b. Mestronol
c. Clomiphene
d. Nandrolone
e. Raloxifene
f. fluoxymesterone

A

c. Clomiphene

127
Q

What is used to treat breast cancer?

a. GNRH
b. Mestronol
c. Clomiphene
d. Nandrolone
e. Raloxifene
f. fluoxymesterone

A

e. Raloxifene

128
Q

Which of the following has an SH domain in its structure, thus it is activated by IGF-1?

a. PKA
b. Proglucagon
c. PKB
d. RAS
e. Shc
f. PLCλ
g. PKC

A

f. PLCλ

129
Q

PIP3 activates what?

a. PKA
b. Proglucagon
c. PKB
d. RAS
e. Shc
f. PLCλ
g. PKC

A

c. PKB

130
Q

What is the pathgenesis in Hashimoto’s disease?

a. B cell mediated
b. Normal thyroid function test
c. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
d. Hashimoto’s disease
e. Grave’s disease
f. Subclinical hypothyroidism
g. T cell mediated

A

g. T cell mediated

131
Q

Normal girl checking for thyroid hormones: T4 normal & TSH high. What does this indicate?

a. B cell mediated
b. Normal thyroid function test
c. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
d. Hashimoto’s disease
e. Grave’s disease
f. Subclinical hypothyroidism
g. T cell mediated

A

f. Subclinical hypothyroidism

132
Q

Which drug decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis?

a. Exenatide
b. Lisopro
c. Metformin
d. Rosiglitazone
e. Glipizide
f. Acarbose

A

c. Metformin

133
Q

Which drug decreases glucose uptake postprandial?

a. Exenatide
b. Lisopro
c. Metformin
d. Rosiglitazone
e. Glipizide
f. Acarbose

A

f. Acarbose

postprandial =during or relating to the period after dinner or lunch

134
Q

Which oral diabetic drug can be given to diabetic patient with heart disease?

a. Tolbutamide
b. Chloropromide
c. Glyburide
d. Glipizide
e. Glimiperide
f. Repaglinide

A

e. Glimiperide

135
Q

Which oral diabetic drug Has low risk of hypoglycemic episodes?

a. Tolbutamide
b. Chloropromide
c. Glyburide
d. Glipizide
e. Glimiperide
f. Repaglinide

A

f. Repaglinide

glargine also has a low risk of hypoglycemic episodes because it has no peak

136
Q

What is the most abundant protein in bone?

a. Osteocalcin
b. Osteonectin
c. Collagen
d. hydroxyapatite
e. Osteopontin
f. Sialoprotein

A

c. Collagen

137
Q

Which of the following is negatively charged protein regulated by vitamin D

a. Osteocalcin
b. Osteonectin
c. Collagen
d. hydroxyapatite
e. Osteopontin
f. Sialoprotein

A

a. Osteocalcin

Endocrine Exams (7 decks)

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