Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

[OS 215] OB-GYN E1 > 2017 > Flashcards

2017 Flashcards

1
Q

The Global Study of Sexual Attitudes and Behavior found sexual well-being for both males and females correlated positively with:

a. Fertility rates
b. Socioeconomic status
c. General well-being
d. None of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Comparing different countries, the Global Study of Sexual Attitudes and Behavior found that subjective well being tended to be lowest in countries where:

a. Men and women had about equal status
b. Men had higher status than women
c. Women had higher status than me
d. None of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cock or penile rings (example: pilik-mata ng kambing) can cause:

a. Chronic urinary incontinence
b. Gangrene
c. Premature ejaculation
d. Infections in the female reproductive tract

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tantric sex involves:

a. Chanting mantras during sex
b. Dancing during sex
c. Delaying ejaculation
d. None of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

We discussed the importance of body image in our lecture. Two years ago Spanish pediatricians appealed to their government to set a minimum Body Mass Index (BMI) for women fashion models as a way of preventing the following medical problems in young girls:

a. Early menarche
b. Anorexia nervosa
c. Early coital debut
d. None of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Bolitas refers to:

a. An aphrodisiac drink
b. A form of contraception
c. Metal balls inserted under the skin of the penis
d. A sexually transmitted illness

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The following is NOT among the 10 sexual rights named by the World Health Organization:

a. sexuality education
b. pursue a safe, satisfying and pleasurable sex life
c. having many sexual partners as long as precautions against disease are taken
d. choice of partner

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Problems with sexual intercourse (eg pain, lack of pleasure) can be caused by:

a. Negative self body image
b. Uncertainty about one’s sexual orientation
c. Guilt feelings about sex
d. All of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Induced hypoxia is sometimes used:

a. To reduce sexual libido
b. To induce an erection
c. To enhance pleasure during climax
d. None of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Transactional sex refers to:

a. Cellphone sex
b. Exchange of sex for favors or gifts
c. Internet sex
d. None of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sexual and reproductive health entered mainstream discussions on medicine after ICPD 1994. What does ICPD mean?

a. international conference on pediatric development
b. international conference on psychiatric disorders
c. international conference on population and development
d. none of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following would be a violation of the “right to decide whether or not, and when to have a child”:

a. China’s one-child policy
b. Income tax exemptions limited to four children
c. Manila city government forbidding city health agencies from distributing artificial contraceptives
d. All of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which cells cause regression of the Mullerian ducts?

a. Leydig cells
b. Sertoli cells
c. Interstitial cells
d. Genital ridge

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The equivalent of the female labia majora in males is:

a. Scrotal swelling
b. Urethral fold
c. Urethral grove
d. Glans penis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Features of a patient with Mayer-Rokitansky syndrome include:

a. normal vagina
b. normal uterus
c. normal fallopian tubes
d. normal ovaries

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a. The primitive germ cells migrate from the yoke sac
b. The development of seminal vesicles is dependent on Dihydrotestosterone
c. Absence of dihydrotestosterone causes regression of the Wolffian ducts
d. The functioning kidney originates from the mesonephros

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Early castration will result in:

a. Normal prostate formation
b. Presence of fallopian tubes
c. XX gene
d. Formation of ovaries

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A condition that results from complete obliteration of the processus vaginalis testis:

a. Hydrocele of the cord
b. Non-communicating hydrocele
c. Inguini-scrotal hernia
d. Normal anatomy

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A baby was born with ambiguous genitalia. On physical examination, no gonads were palpated but on ultrasound, uterus was noted to be present. The karyotype was XX with 17 OH-progesterone within normal values. The most likely problem is:

a. male pseudohermaphroditism
b. female pseudoehermaprhoditism
c. congenital adrenal hyperplasia
d. true hermaphroditism

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a. the testis will reach the scrotal sac at 9 month age of gestation
b. the gonadal sex is determined at fertilization
c. the patient with true hermaphroditism will have a karyotyping of XO/XY
d. a male pseudo-hermaphrodite will not have Mullerian structures

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 3 year old male consulted because of an empty right scrotal sac. On physical examination, the testis was permanently palpated over the inguinal area. He has:

a. true undescended testis
b. ectopic testis
c. retractile testis
d. dysgenetic testis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

On exploration, a female patient was observed to have a unicornuate uterus. The most logical embryological explanation is:

a. abnormal fusion of mullerian ducts
b. aplasia of one paramesonephric duct
c. failure of fusion of mullerian ducts
d. abnormal ovaries

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A 15 year old female came in for a large midline hypogastric mass and sharp, intermittent abdominal pain. On physical examination a cystic mass was seen at the closed vaginal opening. The most likely problem of the patient is:

a. total vaginal atresia
b. proximal vaginal atresia
c. distal vagina atresia
d. uterine abnormalities

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which structure contains the receptors for the SRY antigens?

a. yolk sac
b. dorsal mesentery
c. genital ridge
d. allantois

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which structure is a remnant of the Wolffian ducts in females?

a. uterus
b. ovary
c. Gartner’s duct
d. upper third vagina

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The gonadal sex is determined by what week of gestation?

a. fertilization
b. 7th
c. 9th
d. 16th

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The mesonephric duct is the:

a. wolffian duct
b. mullerian duct
c. urogenital sinus
d. future ureter

A

A

28
Q

Features of a patient with uterine abnormalities include:

a. symptomatic immediately after birth
b. problematic delivery
c. common anomaly
d. fertile

A

B

29
Q

In an apparent newborn female, this feature will alert a clinician to the possibility of intersexuality:

a. inguinal hernia with incarcerated gonad
b. enlarged breasts
c. normal looking vaginal canal
d. hypospadias

A

A

30
Q

A child with Turner syndrome would have:

a. a karyotype of 47 XXY
b. normal intelligence
c. tall stature
d. normal gonads

A

B

31
Q

A 14-year old female consulted for a hypogastric mass which was noted to be painful for several days in a month. The mass was gradually increasing in size. On physical examination, she was noted to have normal looking labia but a bulging cystic mass was bulging at the vaginal canal. The most likely problem of the child is:

a. hydrocolpos
b. hematometrocolpos
c. patent urachus
d. ovarian tumor

A

B

32
Q

The following are derivatives of the urogenital sinus EXCEPT:

a. vagina
b. greater vestibular glands
c. labia majora
d. hymen

A

C

33
Q

Of all the following congenital defects, which could possibly be overlooked at menarche?

a. imperforate hymen
b. transverse vaginal septum
c. longitudinal vaginal septum
d. complete vaginal atresia

A

C

34
Q

A 16 year old with breasts Tanner Stage III and pubic hair Tanner stage III consulted for absence of menses. There was no palpable uterus on rectal examination. Serum testosterone was normal female levels. What is the diagnosis?

a. Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
b. Congenital absence of the uterus
c. Turner syndrome
d. Klinefelter syndrome

A

B

35
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

a. The start of the development of phenotypic sex is earlier compared to development of gonadal sex.
b. The testes normally reach the scrotal sac by the 8th week age of gestation
c. The presence of urogenital sinus is always abnormal
d. The problem of intersexuality should be suspected in a male with undescended testis

A

D

36
Q

Patients with androgen insensitivity syndrome will have the following features:

a. XX genotype
b. normal female genitals
c. palpable gonads
d. complete male internal organs

A

C

37
Q

Positive correlation is seen between the following and severity of dysmenorrhea EXCEPT:

a. Late menarche
b. Prolonged menses
c. mother with dysmenorrhea
d. profuse menses

A

A

38
Q

Severity of dysmenorrhea is primarily correlated with

a. duration of menstrual flow
b. number of days with premenstrual spotting
c. delayed menarche
d. regularity of menses

A

A

39
Q

Endometriosis

a. presence of endometrial glands and stroma into the myometrium is diagnostic
b. finding is normally anteverted uterus with bladder tenderness
c. hysterectomy is the only available treatment
d. the goals of treatment are pain relief and promotion of fertility

A

D

40
Q

Management of PMS

a. bilateral uterine artery ligation
b. Vitamin E supplementation
c. Liberal fluid intake
d. progesterone

A

D

41
Q

A patient with long periods of anovulation is predisposed to which of the following types of cancer than woman who has regular menstrual cycles

a. cervical
b. endometrial
c. ovarian
d. vaginal

A

B

42
Q

Ovulatory bleeding is:

a. excessive bleeding associated with progesterone withdrawal but with loss of local hemostasis
b. erratic and irregular bleeding in the absence of cyclic production of progesterone
c. bleeding at variable amounts occurring between regular menstrual periods
d. bleeding at variable amounts occurring between irregular frequent intervals

A

A

43
Q

Based on the two-cell, two-gonadotropin theory, LH primarily acts on ___ cells to produce androstenedione

a. granulosa
b. theca
c. arcuate nucleus
d. leydig

A

B

44
Q

Progesterone challenge tests the circulating levels of

a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. LH
d. FSH

A

A

45
Q

Treatment of primary dysmenorrhea includes:

a. anti-depressant
b. steroids
c. prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors
d. appetite supressants

A

C

46
Q

Premenstrual tension

a. excludes physical symptoms of skin disorder
b. includes physical symptoms of crying and thirst
c. occur at the proliferative phase of cycle
d. includes depression, anxiety, and psychosis

A

D

47
Q

A 32/G2P2 consulted for heavy menstrual bleeding and was diagnosed to have endometrial polyp and adenomyosis by ultrasound. The diagnosis by FIGO Classification is:

a. P0A1L0M0 C0O0E1I0N0
b. P0A1L0M0 C0O0E0I0N0
c. P1A1L0M0 C0O0E0I0N0
d. P1A1L0M0 C0O0E1N0

A

C

48
Q

A 46/G0 consulted for heavy menstrual bleeding. She has been having high grade fever 3 days. With lysis of fever, she noted rashes on her arms and gum bleeding. Her platelet count is 60. This is classified as:

a. P0A0L0M0 C0O0E1I0N1
b. P0A0L0M0 C1O0E0I0N0
c. P0A0L0M0 C1O0E0I0N1
d. P0A0L0M0 C0O0E1I0N0

A

B

49
Q

A 28/G2P2 has had spotting in between menses with a 30-32 day interval. This bleeding pattern is called

a. menorrhagia
b. metrorrhagia
c. menometrorrhagia
d. intermenstrual bleeding

A

D

50
Q

The best diagnostic tool to determine tubal patency

a. sonohysterogram
b. transvaginal ultrasound
c. hysteroscopy
d. hysterosalpingogram

A

D

51
Q

The usual first line pharmacologic agent for treatment of oligomenorrhea in infertility:

a. estrogen
b. clomiphene citrate
c. letrozole
d. pioglitazone

A

B

52
Q

In vitro fertilization is associated with an increased chance for

a. multiple gestation
b. fetal malformations
c. pre-eclampsia
d. placenta previa

A

A

53
Q

Part of the work-up of infertile women presenting with oligomenorrhea:

a. estradiol
b. testosterone
c. TSH
d. hysterosalpingogram

A

A

54
Q

Intial infertility work-up includes the following EXCEPT:

a. semen analysis
b. laparoscopy
c. documentation of ovulation
d. evaluation of fallopian tubes

A

B

55
Q

A 28 year old accountant had a 2 year history of infertility. Her menses are regular and her work-ups are normal. Her 30 year old lawyer-husband’s semen analysis is likewise within normal limits. Which of the following would NOT be part of their treatment?

a. laparoscopy
b. observation
c. intrauterine insemination
d. in vitro fertilization

A

A

56
Q

After ovulation, the oocyte remains fertilizable for a maximum of how many hours?

a. 12 hours or less
b. Up to 24 hours
c. More than 48 hours
d. As much as 72 hours

A

B

57
Q

The probability that a single cycle will result in livebirth?

a. Fecundity
b. Fecundability
c. Fertility
d. None of the above

A

A

58
Q

Which of the following should merit earlier fertility evaluation?

a. 35 year old female married for 6 months
b. 40 year old female married for 6 months
c. History of 1 year miscarriage
d. Use of DMPA for 3 years

A

B

59
Q

Adjuncts to ovulation induction in PCOS patients except:

a. Aromatase inhibitors
b. Metformin
c. Human menopausal gonadotropin
d. Cyclic progesterone

A

A

60
Q

The most common cause of infertility in couples:

a. Tubal
b. Male
c. Anovulatory
d. Unexplained

A

C

61
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

a. The primary targets of LH activity are the ovarian granulosa and testicular Leydig cells
b. The primary targets of FSH activity are the ovarian theca and testicular Leydig cells
c. The primary targets of LH activity are the ovarian theca and testicular Sertoli cells
d. The primary targets of FSH activity are the ovarian granulosa and testicular Sertoli cells

A

D

62
Q

This is the most common anti-estrogenic drug used to stimulate ovulation?

a. Mestranol
b. Tamoxifen
c. Clomiphene
d. Tetrozole

A

C

63
Q

When given to a pregnant woman, this drug may cause vaginal carcinoma in the female offspring during puberty:

a. Clomiphene
b. Canazol
c. Ethinyl estradiol
d. Mestranol
e. Diethylstilbestirol

A

E

64
Q

Medroxyprogesterone acetate has all the following actions EXCEPT:

a. Inhibits the replenishment of estrogen receptors in the cell
b. Activates 17-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
c. Increases progesterone receptors
d. Induces sulfotransferase
e. None of the above

A

B

65
Q

What is the main mechanism of COCs?

a. Suppression of ovulation by suppression of the gonadotropin secretion
b. Thickening of the cervical mucus making sperm penetration unlikely
c. Thinning of the endometrium making implantation impossible
d. All of the above

A

A

[OS 215] OB-GYN E1 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions