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[OS 215] OB-GYN E1 > 2015 > Flashcards

2015 Flashcards

1
Q

Based on the class discussion, reproductive health concerns would be included in:

a. Geriatrics
b. Pediatrics
c. Both geriatrics and pediatrics
d. Neither geriatrics nor pediatrics

A

C

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2
Q

The menstrual cycle was “discovered” (or understood) in the:

a. 17th century
b. 18th century
c. 19th century
d. 20th century

A

D

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3
Q

For which of the following diseases do men have lower risk than women?

a. Cardiovascular diseases
b. Accidents
c. Alzheimer’s
d. Lung cancer

A

C

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4
Q

Men are generally at greater risk than women for infectious diseases, EXCEPT:

a. Flu
b. Rabies
c. Malaria
d. NOTA

A

C

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5
Q

Adrenarche, when the adrenal glands begin to produce hormones, begins around the ages:

a. 6-7
b. 8-9
c. 10-11
d. 11-12

A

A

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6
Q

A girl can become pregnant as soon as the following begins:

a. Adrenarche
b. Gonadarche
c. Menarche
d. NOTA

A

C

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT recognized as a reproductive or sexual right?

a. Right to bodily integrity
b. Right to demand sex from one’s spouse
c. Right to sexuality education
d. Right to safe and pleasurable sex

A

B

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8
Q

Ambiguous genitalia can be found in individuals with the following chromosomal conditions:

a. XXX
b. XY
c. XX
d. AOTA

A

D

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9
Q

Which of the following could produce hyper-virilization of both males and females?

a. Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)
b. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)
c. Kallman’s syndrome
d. AOTA

A

B

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10
Q

Which of the following would be appropriate for sexuality education with a child aged 7 or 8?

a. Family planning
b. Awareness of one’s body
c. Prevention of sexually-transmitted infections
d. AOTA

A

B

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11
Q

Common causes of anovulation are the following, EXCEPT:

a. Ovarian tumor
b. Adrenal hyperplasia
c. Uterine myoma
d. Prolactinemia

A

B

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12
Q

In 45X Turner syndrome with amenorrhea, there is:

a. Absent breast development, absent uterus
b. Breast development, uterus present
c. Breast development, uterus absent
d. Absent breast development, uterus present

A

D

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13
Q

A hypothalamic cause of secondary amenorrhea

a. Sheehan syndrome
b. Asherman syndrome
c. Simmourad syndrome
d. Polycystic ovarian syndrome

A

D

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14
Q

Treatment of primary dysmenorrhea includes

a. Anti-depressant
b. Steroids
c. Prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors
d. Appetite suppressants

A

C

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15
Q

Premenstrual tension

a. Excludes physical symptoms of skin disorder
b. Includes physical symptoms of crying and thirst
c. Occur at the proliferative phase of cycle
d. Includes depression, anxiety, and psychosis

A

B

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16
Q

Which of the following is a cause of secondary amenorrhea?

a. 45, XO
b. Agonadism
c. Kallman syndrome
d. Asherman syndrome

A

D

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17
Q

Positive correlation is seen between the following and severity of dysmenorrhea EXCEPT:

a. late menarche
b. prolonged menses
c. mother with dysmenorrhea
d. profuse menses

A

A

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18
Q

Severity of dysmenorrhea is primarily correlated with

a. Duration of menstrual flow
b. Number of days with premenstrual spotting
c. Delayed menarche
d. Regularity of menses

A

A

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19
Q

Endometriosis

a. Presence of endometrial glands and stroma in the myometrium is diagnostic
b. Finding is normally anteverted uterus with bladder tenderness
c. Hysterectomy is the only available treatment
d. The goals of treatment are pain relief and promotion of fertility

A

D

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20
Q

Management of PMS

a. Bilateral uterine artery ligation
b. Vitamin E supplementation
c. Liberal fluid intake
d. Progesterone

A

D

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21
Q

Menometrorrhagia is best defined as

a. Bleeding at irregular frequent intervals, amount variable
b. Prolonged (>7 days) or excessive (>80 mL) bleeding occurring at regular intervals
c. Bleeding at variable amounts occurring between regular menstrual periods
d. Prolonged uterine bleeding occurring at irregular intervals

A

D

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22
Q

Ovulatory bleeding is:

a. Excessive bleeding associated with progesterone withdrawal but with loss of local hemostasis
b. Excess and irregular bleeding in the absence of cyclic production of progesterone
c. Bleeding at variable amounts occurring between regular menstrual periods
d. Bleeding at variable amounts occurring between irregular frequent intervals

A

A

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23
Q

Based on the two cell, two gonadotropin theory, LH primarily acts on the ____ cells to produce androstenediones

a. Granulosa
b. Theca
c. Sertoli
d. Leydig

A

B

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24
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. The primary targets of FSH activity are the ovarian granulosa and testicular Sertoli cells.
b. The primary targets of LH activity are the ovarian granulosa and testicular Leydig cells.
c. The primary targets of FSH activity are the ovarian theca and testicular Leydig cells.
d. The primary targets of LH activity are the ovarian theca and testicular Sertoli cells

A

A

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25
Q

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) has all of the following actions EXCEPT

a. Inhibits the replenishment of progesterone receptors in the cell
b. Activates 17 hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
c. Induces sulfatransferase
d. Stimulates aromatase

A

D

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26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of COCs?

a. The estrogenic agent suppresses LH and the progestational agent suppresses FSH.
b. The estrogenic agent suppresses FSH and the progestational agent suppresses LH.
c. The estrogenic and progestational agents suppress LH.
d. The estrogenic and progestational agent supresses FSH.

A

B

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27
Q

Estrogen used in most combined hormonal contraceptives

a. Clomiphene
b. Ethynyl estradiol
c. Estrone
d. Mestranol
e. Norgestrel

A

B

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28
Q

Thromboembolism has been associated with the use of oral contraceptives that have an excess of

a. Estrogen=
b. Testosterone
c. Progestin
d. Prostaglandins
e. Aldosterone

A

A

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29
Q

Which of the following is NOT an androgen receptor antagonist?

a. Flutamaide
b. Cyproterone acetate
c. Finasteride
d. Spironolactone

A

C

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30
Q

The CORRECT combination of drug and its mechanism of action

a. Flutamide – androgen synthesis inhibitor
b. Clomiphene – estrogen synthesis inhibitor
c. Letrozole – estrogen receptor antagonist
d. Spironolactone – androgen receptor antagonist

A

D

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31
Q

TRUE statement regarding the new synthetic progestins

a. Cause greater breakthrough bleeding
b. Cause an increase in diabetes mellitus
c. Include destogene and desogestrel
d. AOTA

A

C

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32
Q

The two-cell two-gonadotropin theory of the control of steroidogenesis

a. States that the rate of aromatization in the granulosa cell is directly related to the androgen substrates.
b. States that the stimulation of the FSH receptors in the Sertoli cells increases androgen synthesis.
c. States that stimulation of the LH receptors increase the production of the androgen binding proteins.
d. AOTA

A

A

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33
Q

True statement/s concerning COCs.

a. COC use results to an increased incidence of ovarian cancer.
b. COC is absolutely contraindicated in hypertensive patients despite adequate BP control
c. COCs offer protection against PIDs.
d. AOTA

A

C

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34
Q

The rationale for the therapeutic use of conjugated estrogens for immediate treatment of dysfunctional uterine bleeding is based on the fact that ESTROGEN

a. Causes atrophy of the endometrium
b. Leads to decidualization of the endometrium
c. Leads to rapid proliferation of the endometrium
d. AOTA

A

C

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35
Q

When is fertility evaluation of the male partner indicated?

a. If male factor infertility is suspected.
b. At the same time as evaluation of the female partner
c. If tests for the female partner are all normal
d. Only the female partner is evaluated.

A

B

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36
Q

The first line therapeutic option for anovulatory infertility is

a. Letrozole
b. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
c. FSH
d. Clomiphene citrate

A

D

37
Q

A newly married couple is trying to get pregnant. They want to know the most optimal time for them to have intercourse.

a. Within 3 days from the expected time of ovulation
b. One week after there is a 0.5 degree Fahrenheit increase in basal body temperature
c. Three days prior to menses
d. Three days after the last day of menses

A

A

38
Q

Which of the following will merit an early fertility evaluation?

a. Age of more than 35 y/o of male partner
b. Previous history of ovarian cyst removal for pelvic endometriosis
c. History of one first trimester pregnancy loss
d. Prolonged use of oral contraceptive pills

A

B

39
Q

Most common causative organism for tubal factor infertility

a. Neisseria gonorrhoea
b. Group B Streptococcus
c. E. coli
d. Chlamydia trachomatis

A

D

40
Q

A proven cause of uterine factor infertility

a. Endometrial polyps
b. Subserous myoma
c. Uterine septum
d. Bicornuate uterus

A

C

41
Q

A patient being evaluated for primary infertility wants to know which of the following tests will accurately determine if she ovulated or not.

a. Transvaginal UTZ
b. Diagnostic laparoscopy
c. Serum LH level
d. BBT determination

A

A

42
Q

A couple has been trying to get pregnant for 3 years. Evaluation of the male and female partner showed that both of them are normal. What is the next step for them?

a. Advise adoption
b. Waiting is still an option as they will eventually get pregnant
c. Offer controlled ovarian hyperstimulation with intrauterine insemination
d. Further evaluation with diagnostic laparoscopy

A

C

43
Q

A couple wanted to use rhythm method for contraception. The woman’s longest cycle is 33 days while the shortest cycle is 29 days. When are they supposed to abstain from having sexual intercourse?

a. Days 11-22
b. Days 15-18
c. Days 29-33
d. Days 14-21

A

A

44
Q

The most common side effect of progestin-containing contraceptives

a. bloating
b. headache
c. weight gain
d. bleeding

A

D

45
Q

Which of the following patients can use COC pills for contraception?

a. 36 y/o smoker
b. 40 y/o mother of three
c. 28 y/o with 6 months history of heavy menstrual bleeding
d. 22 y/o breastfeeding mother

A

C

46
Q

A 25 y/o victim of sexual assault came to your office consulting for emergency contraception for the attack, which occured 4 days ago. What will you advise her?

a. The allowable period for emergency contraception has already lapsed
b. Offer insertion of an IUD
c. Give her 2 doses of LNG(?) at 0.75 mg, 12 hours apart
d. Start her on a new pack of COC pill

A

A

47
Q

Pregnancy rate after reversal of previous tubal ligation

a. 45-60%
b. 30-50%
c. 50-60%
d. 10-20%

A

C

48
Q

The major mode of female pelvic infection is

a. hematogenous route
b. ascending route
c. Sexually transmitted
d. Iatrogenic

A

B

49
Q

The hallmark of bacterial vaginosis is

a. foul smelling vaginal discharge
b. cuff cellulitis
c. preterm labor
d. pelvic abscess

A

A

50
Q

The cornerstone of treatment of an infected abortion is

a. broad spectrum antibiotics
b. fluids and electrolytes
c. blood transfusion
d. extraction of uterine contents

A

D

51
Q

The recommended antibitoic regimen for extra-amniotic infection depends on

a. Culture results
b. age of gestation
c. mode of delivery
d. duration of ruptured bag of water

A

C

52
Q

PID, if not treated early enough, is often associated with

a. pelvic abscess
b. tubal damage
c. resistant pathogens
d. menstrual disorders

A

B

53
Q

The pathogen in about one third of Filipinos with PID is

a. Chlamydia
b. Gonorrhea
c. E. coli
d. A…???

A

A

54
Q

The most clinically useful laboratory test for a patient with PID is

a. endocervical culture
b. transvaginal UTZ
c. blood C3
d. CBC differentials

A

B

55
Q

Cut-off size in cm of a pelvic abscess when surgery is recommended is

a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9

A

B

56
Q

In puerperal ???, fever which started in about 48 hours after delivery is likely due to

a. Streptococcus
b. Chlamydia
c. Bacteroides
d. E. coli

A

D

57
Q

For a patient with tubo-ovarian abscess, this may NOT be a realistic goal

a. Relief of pain
b. Eradication of bacteria
c. Preserve ovarian function
d. Normal fertility

A

D

58
Q

How many follow-up pelvic UTZs are recommended in a patient with tubo-ovaria abscess

a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1

A

A

59
Q

Which of the ff karyotypes would most likely have short height?

a. XXY
b. XY
c. XYY
d. XO

A

D

60
Q

Which of the following karyotypes would be male phenotypically?

a. XXY
b. XXX
c. XO
d. XXXX

A

A

61
Q

The primitive germ cells originate from

a. amniotic cavity
b. yolk sac
c. hindgut
d. foregut

A

B

62
Q

In DHT-deficient males, which organ is developed?

a. Penis
b. Prostate
c. Scrotum
d. Ejaculatory duct

A

D

63
Q

In a patient with androgen insensitivity syndrome, the following characteristics are present

a. Undeveloped breast
b. Fertile
c. Normal menstrual cycle
d. Female phenotypically

A

D

64
Q

Which statement is TRUE?

a. Sertoli cell development will cause regression of Wolffian duct
b. Interstitial cells will form the Sertoli cell
c. The seminiferous tubule will form the Leydig cell
d. Testosterone will help develop the vas deferens

A

D

65
Q

The distal/lower vagina originates from:

a. mullerian duct
b. urogenital sinus
c. genital ridge
d. genital tubercle

A

B

66
Q

The timing of the development of the organism’s gonadal sex is during:

a. fertilization
b. from childhood
c. from 9th week AOG
d. at birth

A

C

67
Q

Labial synechiae is:

a. acquired
b. congenital
c. difficult to treat
d. unknown etiology

A

A

68
Q

A newborn has ambiguous genitalia. On physical examination, both gonads were palpable. On ultrasound, no uterus was identifies. The 17-hydroxyprogesterone was normal. The karyotype was XY. The initial impression was:

a. male pseudohermaphrotidism
b. female pseudohermaphrotidism
c. true hermaphrotidism
d. dysgenetic male

A

A

69
Q

A newborn was born with ambiguous genitalia. No palpable gonads were appreciated but the ultrasounds revealed the presence of the uterus. the 17-hydroxyprogesterone was normal. The karyotype was XX. The patient has:

a. Male pseudohermaphrotidism
b. Female pseudohermaphrotidism
c. Dysgenetic female
d. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

B

70
Q

A condition that results from complete obliteration of the processus vaginalis testis:

a. Hydrocoele of the cord
b. Non-communicating hydrocoele
c. Inguino-scrotal hernia
d. Normal anatomy

A

D

71
Q

A 25? (15?) y/o individual was brought up as a male. He was noted recently to have ??? in growth with pimples on his face. His gonads were not palpable but with an enlarged phallus. Ultrasound revealed presence of uterus with a karyotype of XX. The most likely problem of the individual is:

a. Male pseudohermaphrotidism
b. Female pseudohermaphrotidism
c. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
d. Testicular dysgenesis

A

B

72
Q

Which of the following will NOT have mullerian structures?

a. Dysgenetic males
b. Pseudohermaphrodite males
c. Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
d. Pseudohermaphrodite females

A

B

73
Q

A 15 y/o female came in for a large midline hypogastric mass and sharp, intermittent abdominal pain. On physical examination, a cystic mass was seen at the closed vaginal opening. The most likely problem of the patient is:

a. Total vaginal atresia
b. Proximal vaginal atresia
c. Distal vaginal atresia
d. Uterine abnormalities

A

C

74
Q

In a patient with aplasia of the scrotal sacs, the abnormality came from:

a. Genital folds
b. Genital tubercle
c. Labioscrotal swellings
d. Urogenital sinus

A

C

75
Q

A newborn was noted to have an imperforate anus. The meconium came out from the vaginal canal. Which structure did not develop?

a. Genital tubercle
b. Genital fold
c. Urogenital sinus
d. Urorectal septum

A

D

76
Q

Which statement is true?

a. The medulla of the adrenal glands is responsible for some sexual differentiation of the individual.
b. The medulla of the testis is well-developed.
c. The cortex of the ovaries is vestigial.
d. The metanephros will form the ejaculatory ducts.

A

B

77
Q

Which statement is true?

a. Correction of inguinal hernia in children is done at one year of age.
b. Correction of undescended testis is done immediately after birth.
c. Proximal obliteration of the processus vaginalis will form inguinal hernias.
d. Distal obliteration of the processus vaginalis will form ingual hernias.

A

D

78
Q

An abnormal opening of the urethra in the dorsal aspect of the penis:

a. chordee
b. hypospadias
c. epispadias
d. urogenital sinus

A

C

79
Q

The testis, on physical examination, was located at the perineal area. The patient has:

a. undescended testis
b. retracted testis
c. ectopic testis
d. normal testis

A

C

80
Q

Carbon dioxide is required for the primary isolation of:

a. Neiserria gonorrhea
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Corynebacterium diptheriae

A

A

81
Q

An appropriate agar for the isolation of gonococci is:

a. BAP
b. tellurite agar
c. chocolate agar
d. sheep blood agar

A

C

82
Q

Gonococci can be isolated from this clinical specimen

a. pharyngeal exudates
b. urethral discharge
c. CSF
d. blood

A

B

83
Q

The gonococci is most commonly found

a. within monocytes
b. polymorphonuclear (PMN) cells
c. neurons
d. uroepithelial cells

A

B

84
Q

In sexually active otherwise healthy females, gonorrhea most often presents as:

a. urethritis
b. PID
c. asymptomatic disease
d. cervicitis

A

C

85
Q

Chlamydia are obligate intracellular parasites because they:

a. lack cell wall
b. live outside host cells
c. have inclusions
d. require energy from host cells

A

D

86
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes L1-L3 is associated with LGV (lymphgranuloma venerum) manifested by:

a. lymphoid swelling
b. infant pneumonia
c. blindness
d. NOTA

A

A

87
Q

A chancre at a site of infection is typical of:

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. NOTA

A

A

88
Q

Gumma in the bones, skin, and CNS is a manifestation of:

a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
d. AOTA

A

C

89
Q

The most distinguishing characteristic of Mycoplasma spp. is:

a. produce spores
b. unique life cycle
c. lack cell wall
d. energy parasites

A

C

[OS 215] OB-GYN E1 (5 decks)

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