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[OS 212] ORL > 2017 > Flashcards

2017 Flashcards

1
Q

Damage to this structure will cause central hearing loss:

A

Outer Hair Cells

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2
Q

A mixed type of hearing loss is often seen in a patient with

A

Chronic ____

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3
Q

Partial or complete ossification of the cochlea is usually seen as a sequelae of

     a. rubella
     b. measles
     c. meningitis
     d. presbycusis
A

C

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4
Q

In patients with chronic otitis media, the following are characteristic of an unsafe or surgical ear except

A

Neonatal ____

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5
Q

The following drugs are usually ototoxic except for

     a) ciprofloxacin
     b) streptomycin
     c) erythromycin
     d) aspirin
A

A

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6
Q

Patient with acute otitis media, exudative stage (meaning there is fluid already behind the ear drum):

A

Type B Tympanogram

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7
Q

A conductive type of hearing loss is usually seen in a patient with a

A

Tympanic Membrane Perforation

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8
Q

Among the organisms listed below, the organism that is least likely the pathogen for chronic suppurative otitis media is

      a. Staphylococcus aureus
      b. Pseudomonas aurginosa
      c. Streptococcus pneumonia
      d. Klebsiella pneumonia
A

C

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9
Q

A patient presents with a unilateral left serous otitis medium, upon Weber’s test, where will the patient lateralize to?
a. lateralization to left ear

      b. lateralization to right ear
      c. no lateralization
      d. lateralization to both ears
A

A

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10
Q

The otologic examination, (picture)

A

The patient has a RIGHT SIDED ANTERIORLY located perforation

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11
Q

When the patient is sitting still with the head facing forward, which of the ff vestibular physiologic functions is at work?
a. Both vestibular system sends no signals to the brain since no angular and linear acceleration
b. both vestibular system sends signals to
brainstem that is equal but opposite.
c. both vestibular system sends signals to
brainstem but at higher rate then when the head is moving
d. both vestibular system sends signals to
brainstem, cyclic and something

A

B

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12
Q

A patient suffering from a peripheral neuropathy with diabetes would most likely have dizziness described as imbalance

    a. near syncope
    b. light headedness
    c. imbalance
A

C

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13
Q

A 64 year old female coming to the clinic for severe twirling of the environment, nausea and feeling of motion. What is the sensation the patient feels?

     a. dizziness
     b. syncope
     c. vertigo
     d. light headedness
A

C

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14
Q

Referring to the same patient, what is the best thing to ask to the patient to differentiate the most common cause of peripheral vertigo?

A

How long is the dizziness

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15
Q

In response to your query the patient said the vertigo spells last for 40 secs. She also volunteered that she has hypertension and diabetes and is taking medications. There was no hearing loss.

What is the diagnosis?
         A.Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
         b.Vestibular neuritis
         c.Meniere's disease
         d.acoustic neuroma
A

A

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16
Q

In response to your query the patient said the vertigo spells last for 40 secs. She also volunteered that she has hypertension and diabetes and is taking medications. There was no hearing loss.

How will you confirm the patient’s diagnosis?

     a. Semont Maneuver
     b. Epleys maneuver
     c. Valsalva maneuver
     d. Dix Hallpike test
A

D

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17
Q

How is BPPV involved in the posterior canal treated?

     a. hydroclorothiazide
     b. valsalva maneuver
     c. epleys maneuver
     d. Betahistine
A

C

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18
Q

35 y/o M admitted at the ER, referred to you for evaluation, cleared by the neuro. He had upper respiratory tract infection 2 weeks ago and had severe episodes of vertigo with spinning sensation, with nausea, vomiting and diaphoresis, no auditory symptoms of hearing loss or fullness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

     a. Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
     b. Vestibular neuritis
     c. Meniere's disease
     d. acoustic neuroma
A

B

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19
Q

Acute vestibular decompensation occurs primarily because of the influence of which structure?

A

Scala ___

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20
Q

Which of the ff is the functional cause of nasal obstruction? (others are structural)

     a. septal deviation
     b. rebound rhinitis
     c. nasal polyps
     d. inverting papilloma
A

B

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21
Q

Distorted sense of smell is called

    a. anosmia
    b. hyposmia
    c. panosmia
    d. phantosmia
A

C

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22
Q

Initial management for moderate to severe allergic rhinitis according to the ARIA guidelines is steroids

     a. antihistamine
     b. steroids
A

B

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23
Q

50 year old male with progressive bilateral nasal obstruction. What imaging study will you do?

     a. Coronal CT
     b. Xray
     c. MRI
A

A

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24
Q

26 y/o female with watery rhinorrhea and
intermittent nasal obstruction, what is the finding in anterior rhinoscopy (so were talking about allergic rhinitis)?
a. Nasal polyps
b. Pale turbinates and clear secretions

A

B

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25
Q

48 yo male with right nasal destruction, scanty foul-smelling serosanguinous rhinorrhea, diplopia and blurring of vision in the right

    a. nasal polyp
    b. nasopharyngeal CA
    c. maxillary sinus SCCA
    d. inverted papiloma
A

C

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26
Q

Patient suffering from anosmia will be able to detect

A

Taste sensation will be percieved as noxious so should be avoided

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27
Q 
Neural innervations of tastebuds in the epiglottis:
CN 10
        a.5
        b.7
        c.9
        d.10
        e.12
A

D

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28
Q

Spicy taste is detected via CN5

     a. 5
     b. 6
     c. 7
     d. 8
A

A

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29
Q

Decreased sense of taste because of rhinitis and nasal congestion is:

A

Hypoalgesia

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30
Q

Sensation detected by the mucous membrane of the nasal and oral cavities modified by pain, touch, temperature is

A

Kinesthesis

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31
Q

Which among the following is the most appropriate test to perform to evaluate retropharyngeal abscess? (CT is the best, but if not in the choices, x-ray)

     a. Plain film X-ray
     b. Functional endoscopic evaluation of swallowing
     c. Modified barium swallow
     d. Panorex view
A

A

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32
Q

The primary consideration in an immunocompetent patient with recurrent ulcerations in the oral cavity is

A

Apthous Ulcers

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33
Q

In a patient who smokes and drinks heavily with non-healing ulcers, the primary consideration is

     a. Oral candidiasis
     b. Aphthous stomatitis
     c. Malignancy
     d. Herpes stomatitis
A

C

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34
Q

CN that is responsible fort aste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is CN7

    a. 5
    b. 6
    c. 7
    d. 8
A

C

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35
Q

CN for sensation in the face?

    a. 5
    b. 6
    c. 7
    d. 8
A

A

36
Q 
Which type of fracture would most likely be
associated with facial nerve paralysis?
        a. frontal bone fracture
        b. parietal bone fracture
        c. maxillary bone fracture
        d.temporal bone fracture
A

D

37
Q

How is a complete paralysis in one side of the face classified in the House Brackmann System? 6

     a. 3
     b. 4
     c. 5
     d. 6
     e. 7
A

D

38
Q

What is a popular classification for clefts?

A

Tessier

39
Q

Anatomic form of a body structure caused by non-disruptive mechanical forces defines the term

    a. Malformation
    b. Disruption
    c. Deformation
    d. Dislocation
A

C

40
Q

The triad of mandibular micro-retrognathia, glossoptosis and a cleft of the secondary palate is found in

    a. Treacher-collins syndrome
    b. Pierre-Robin sequence
    c. Mobius synderom
    d. Kallman syndrome
A

B

41
Q

Which of the ff. steps in wound healing occur last?
a. WBC clean wounds of debris and bacteria
b. Blood vessels constrict to stop bleeding
c. Fibroblasts make collagen to cover the
wound
d. new blood vessels form

A

C

42
Q

With regards to feeding infants with a CLAP, which of the FF is false?

    a. an infant with bilateral CLAP is better breastfed than bottlefed
    b. an upright seated feeding position is better than a supine position
    c. when bottle feeding, a soft nipple is better than a hard nipple.
    d. an infant with an isolated CLAP will probably to not complete
A

A

43
Q

Characteristics of Bell’s palsy except

    a. bilateral involvment
    b. hearing loss
    c. full recovery
A

A

44
Q

The ff. are symptoms of vocal cord paralysis except

    a. hoarseness
    b. odynophagia
    c. aspiration
    d. chronic coughing
A

B

45
Q

Which of the ff structures fxn as articulators in sound production?

    a. tongue
    b. vocal folds
    c. lungs
    d. supraglottic space
A

A

46
Q

Ability to phonate for extended periods without a change in voice quality is

     a. vocal fatigue
     b. dysphonia
     c. hoarseness
     d. breathiness
     e. stridor
A

A

47
Q

Extensive loss of air during vocalization into the incomplete approximation of vocal cords define the term

     a. vocal fatigue
     b. dysphonia
     c. hoarseness
     d. breathiness
     e. stridor
A

B

48
Q

A newborn baby presenting with inspiratory stridor that is worse on the supine position and is relieved when the baby is upright most likely has which condition?

     a. Congenital subglottic stenosis
     b. Congenital vocal fold paralysis
     c. Laryngomalacia
     d. Tracheo-esophageal fistula
A

C

49
Q

The following are characteristic of laryngotracheobronchitis except

     a. The location of airway narrowing is infraglottic
     b. Presents with a thumb sign on lateral radiography of the neck
     c. Viral in etiology
     d. Tends to occur in infants and children under the age of 3
A

B

50
Q

In a patient with vocal fold nodules, the following management strategies are appropriate except

     a. Voice rest
     b. Anti-inflammatory medications
     c. Proper hydration
     d. Whispering when one needs to speak
A

D

51
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

     a. Interarytenoid muscle
     b. Cricothyroid muscle
     c. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
     d. Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle
A

B

52
Q

Retinoblastoma is a popular malignancy in

     a. early childhood
     b. adolescence
     c. adulthood
     d. elderly
A

A

53
Q

On CT Scan, a retinoblastoma has the following classic features:

     a. Calcifications within the globe
     b. Blood within the globe
     c. Irregular borders
     d. Microphthalmia
A

A

54
Q

A cholesteatoma develops due to chronic ear infections. Radiographically, they are seen as:

     a. Irregular area of sclerosed bone
     b. Rounded area of lucency
     c. Pyramidal area of lucency
     d. Ovoid area of sclerosed bone
A

B

55
Q

Which of the following mass lesions is most common in minors?

   a. Nasopharyngeal cancer
   b. Nasal polyp
   c. Juvenile angiofibroma
   d. NOTA
A

C

56
Q

Upon CGT scan, normal nasopharynx looks like

A

2 small hills

57
Q

The most common sinonasal affliction is:

    a. Polyps
    b. Sinusitis
    c. Angiofibroma
    d. Nasal fracture
A

B

58
Q

Most sinonasal polyps arise from the:

     a. Inferior turbinate
     b. Middle meatus
     c. Superior turbinate
     d. Sphenoethmoidal recess
A

B

59
Q

In contrast CT Scan, when compared to normal surroundings, a juvenile angiofibroma would look:

     a. Hyperdense (more white)
     b. Normodense
     c. Hypodense (more black)
     d. None of the above
A

A

60
Q

A 15-year old girl presents with sinusitis. The best radiographic test to use:

     a. Water’s View
     b. Paranasal sinus CT Scan
     c. Paranasal sinus MRI
     d. Not needed
A

B

61
Q

Radiographically, one can diagnose acute sinusitis based on this finding:

     a. Thickened sinus walls
     b. Congested turbinates
     c. Air-fluid level
     d. Multiple grape-like masses
A

C

62
Q

There is said to be a positive correlation between allergic rhinitis and

     a. Facial deformity
     b. Nasal polyposis
     c. Acute sinusitis
     d. Nasal cancer
A

B and C

63
Q

A 2-year old child presented to your clinic with a cystic structure in the posterior midline portion of the tongue. Your working diagnosis is:

     a. Thyroglossal Duct Cyst
     b. Dentigerous Cyst
     c. Branchial Cleft Cyst
     d. Odontogenic Cyst
A

A

64
Q 
A 26-year old female came to your clinic
experiencing jaw pain for the past year. You requested a panoramic x-ray of the mandible and saw what appeared to be a honeycomb in the area that was painful. Your working diagnosis is:
         a. Dentigerous Cyst
         b. Odontogenic Cyst
         c. Ameloblastoma
         d. Osteosarcoma
A

C

65
Q

In imaging studies, a lymph node is considered
enlarged if:
a. It is bigger than all other lymph nodes
b. It is tender to the touch
c. It measures more than 10 mm
d. It is visible to the eye at a distance of 2 feet

A

C

66
Q

In analyzing radiographs first thing to be noticed is

     a. symmetry
     b. densities
     c. color
A

A

67
Q

A unilateral cyst around the tooth and lined by squamous epithelium is best diagnosed as

A

Dentigerous cyst

68
Q

Intranasal masses associated with systemic allergic conditions are most likely:

     a. Schneiderian papillomas
     b. Squamous papillomas
     c. Inflammatory nasal polyps
     d. Tubular adenomatous polyps
     e. None of the above
A

C

69
Q

Most commonly found in adolescent males, surgery for this neoplasm, although benign, is quite formidable, being fraught with risk of hemorrhage. What is this neoplasm?

    a. Hemangiopericytoma
    b. Angiosarcoma
    c. Angiofibroma
    d. Capillary hemangioma
    e. Any of the above
A

C

70
Q

The most common benign tumor of the salivary gland with the propensity to be malignant is:

    a. Lipoma
    b. Schwanoma
    c. Warthin’s tumor
    d. Benign mixed tumor
    e. None of the above
A

C

71
Q

A squamous-epithelium-lined cyst containing
keratinaceous debris and occurring within the middle ear is a:
a. Cholesterol granuloma
b. Cholesterolosis
c. Cholesteatoma
d. Steatocystoma
e. None of the above

A

C

72
Q

A 35 year old male consulted for epistaxis. He also reported unilateral ear discomfort for quite some time now. Physical examination of the head and neck revealed palpable nodularities at the right cervical area. Oral cavity examination showed a bulging fullness of the nasopharyngeal mucosa. Which of the following correctly describes the lesion?

      a. Histopathologic type does not affect response to therapy
      b. Prognosis is uniformly dismal regardless of age upon diagnosis
      c. A significant role for viral oncogenesis is associated with the disease
      d. Chemotherapy currently provides the most optimal therapeutic response
      e. None of the above
A

C

73
Q

A 56 year old female consults for a pre-auricular mass on the right of ten years duration. It had been fairly stable in size for several years but during the last 3 months there was a subjective impression of a sudden increase in size. Physical examination showed a firm mass measuring 9cm in diameter. Give the most likely diagnosis.

      a. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
      b. Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma
      c. Benign mixed tumor
      d. Malignant lymphoma
      e. NOTA.
A

B

74
Q

Acute epiglottitis is most commonly caused by

A

H. influenzae

75
Q

When touched with tongue depressor, which
structure is least likely to cause gagging
a. posterior third of tongue
b. retro molar trigone
c. soft palate
d. posterior pharynx

A

B

76
Q

Least likely cause of dysphagia

     a. caustic ingestion
     b. cerbrovascular stuff
     c. head trauma
     d. sjogren syndrome
A

C

77
Q

The nerve responsible for the taste of anterior 2/3 of the tongue is the

A

Chorda Tympani

78
Q

Which of the following diseases is characterized by a progressive disorder marked by the triad of resting tremor, bradykinesia and rigidity?

     a. Amylotrophic lateral sclerosis
     b. Multiple sclerosis
     c. Parkinson’s disease
     d. Myasthenia gravis
A

C

79
Q 
The ff are structural causes of swallowing
dysfunction except
         a. cleft palate
         b. ameloblastoma
         c. fistula
         d. cerebrovascular accident
A

D

80
Q

Which symptom is LEAST likely to be felt by a patient with a unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury after thyroidectomy?

     a. Hoarseness
     b. Vocal fatigue
     c. Breathiness
     d. Stridor
A

D

81
Q 
Which of the following is least likely to cause
Ortner’s syndrome?
         a. Tricuspid stenosis
         b. Aortic aneurysm
         c. Mitral stenosis
         d. Atrial septal defect
A

A

82
Q

Sialadenitis may be caused by:

     a. Calculi
     b. Bacteria
     c. Both of the above
     d. None of the above
A

C

83
Q

Which can be used as a bone graft when doing mandibular surgery?

     a. Femur
     b. Tibia
     c. Fibula
     d. Tarsal
A

C

84
Q

Chronic otitis media AD (right ear) with some eye problem

A

petrous apicitis

85
Q

Imaging used to check blockage in nasal sinus that is progressive and bilateral

A

CT scan coronal view

[OS 212] ORL (5 decks)

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