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[OS 212] ORL > 2015 > Flashcards

2015 Flashcards

1
Q 
Retinoblastoma is a common malignancy in childhood. Which best describes it?
A. Seen in early school age children
B. Intraocular
C. Congenital disease
D. Autosomal dominant disease
A

B

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2
Q 
On CT Scan, a retinoblastoma has the following classic features:
A. Calcifications within the globe
B. Blood within the globe
C. Irregular borders
D. Microphthalmia
A

A

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3
Q 
A cholesteatoma develops due to chronic ear infections. Radiographically, they are seen as:
A. Irregular area of sclerosed bone
B. Rounded area of lucency
C. Pyramidal area of lucency
D. Ovoid area od sclerosed bone
A

B

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4
Q 
The most common mass lesion in the nasopharynx in minors is:
A. Nasopharyngeal cancer
B. Nasal polyp
C. Juvenile angiofibroma
D. NOTA
A

C

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5
Q 
The most common sinonasal affliction is:
A. Polyps
B. Sinusitis
C. Angiofibroma
D. Nasal fracture
A

B

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6
Q 
Most sinonasal polyps arise from the:
A. Inferior turbinate
B. Middle meatus
C. Superior turbinate
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
A

B

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7
Q 
On contrast CT Scan, when compared to normal surroundings, a juvenile angiofibroma would look:
A. Hyperdense (more white)
B. Normodense
C. Hypodense (more black)
D. None of the above
A

A

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8
Q 
A 15-year old girl presents with sinusitis. The best radiographic test to use:
A. Water’s View
B. Paranasal sinus CT Scan
C. Paranasal sinus MRI
D. Not needed
A

B

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9
Q 
Radiographically, one can diagnose acute sinusitis based on this finding:
A. Thickened sinus walls
B. Congested turbinates
C. Air-fluid level
D. Multiple grape-like masses
A

C

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10
Q 
There is said to be a positive correlation between allergic rhinitis and:
A. Facial deformity
B. Nasal polyposis
C. Acute sinusitis
D. Nasal cancer
A

C

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11
Q 
A 2-year old child presented to your clinic with a cystic structure in the posterior midline portion of the tongue. Your working diagnosis is:
A. Thyroglossal Duct Cyst
B. Dentigerous Cyst
C. Branchial Cleft Cyst
D. Odontogenic Cyst
A

A

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12
Q 
A 26-year old female came to your clinic experiencing jaw pain for the past year. You requested a panoramic x-ray of the mandible and saw what appeared to be a honeycomb in the area that was painful. Your working diagnosis is:
A. Dentigerous Cyst
B. Odontogenic Cyst
C. Ameloblastoma
D. Osteosarcoma
A

C

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13
Q

In imaging studies, a lymph node is considered enlarged if:
A. It is bigger than all other lymph nodes
B. It is tender to the touch
C. It measures more than 10 mm
D. It is visible to the eye at a distance of 2 feet

A

C

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14
Q 
If conditions like melanoma and salivary gland tumors are clinical diagnoses, why request for imaging at all?
A. To satisfy curiosity
B. For completion's sake
C. Due diligence
D. Operability assessment
A

D

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15
Q 
Enlargement of level I lymph nodes means infection of this area:
A. Nasophraynx
B. Tonsils
C. Floor of Mouth
D. Retromolar trigone
A

C

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16
Q 
A cleft lip is an example of:
A. Malformation
B. Disruption
C. Deformation
D. Dislocation
A

A

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17
Q

With regards to feeding infants with a cleft lip and palate, which of the following is false?
A. An infant with bilateral cleft lip and palate is better breastfed than bottlefed
B. An upright or seated feeding position is better than a supine position
C. When bottle-feeding, a soft nipple is better than a hard nipple
D. An infant with an isolated cleft lip will probably have little difficulty feeding

A

A

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18
Q 
Left-sided cleft lip with involvement of nasal vestibule
A. L3AHSHAL
B. LAHSHAL3
C. L3A1HSHAL
D. LAHS3HAL
A

B

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19
Q 
The triad of mandibular micro-retrognathia, glossoptosis and a cleft of the secondary palate is found in
A. Treacher-collins syndrome
b.  Pierre-Robin sequence
c. Mobius syndrome
d. Kallman syndrome
A

B

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20
Q 
In wound healing, the proliferative phase is associated with maximum activity involving
A. Platelets
B. Fibrin
C. Macrophages
D. Fibroblasts
A

D

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21
Q 
A fracture where the bone cracks to more than two pieces
A. Open
B. Comminuted
C. Greenstick
D. Single
A

B

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22
Q

A fastfood delivery driver collided head-on with a jeepney on Taft Avenue. At the emergency room, the first thing that you should attend to is:
A. Ask the patient about the details of the accident
B. Secure the airway
C. Apply pressure bandages on all facial lacerations
D. Insert an intravenous line

A

B

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23
Q 
All of the following is true for Bell’s palsy EXCEPT     	
A. Unilateral paralysis
B. Progression is rapid
C. Recurring
D. Altered taste
A

C

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24
Q 
A patient with Ramsey-Hunt syndrome is affected by which virus?
A.     Herpes simplex virus
B.    Varicella zoster virus
C.     Parvovirus
D.     Adenovirus
A

B

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25
Q 
A patient with Ramsey-Hunt syndrome is affected by which virus?
A.     Herpes simplex virus
B.    Varicella zoster virus
C.     Parvovirus
D.     Adenovirus
A

A

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26
Q

A four-year old girl is brought to you with a history of seeming hearing loss for both ears for three days. She had symptoms of a viral URI one week prior. On otoscopy, you see the findings in the drawing above.
A. Weber lateralizes to the right, Rinne AC>BC right, AC>BC left
B. Weber does not lateralize, Rinne AC>BC right, AC>BC left
C. Weber does not lateralize, Rinne AC

A

C

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27
Q

A four-year old girl is brought to you with a history of seeming hearing loss for both ears for three days. She had symptoms of a viral URI one week prior. On otoscopy, you see the findings in the drawing above.
A. Weber lateralizes to the right, Rinne AC>BC right, AC>BC left
B. Weber does not lateralize, Rinne AC>BC right, AC>BC left
C. Weber does not lateralize, Rinne AC

A

A

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28
Q

A four-year old girl is brought to you with a history of seeming hearing loss for both ears for three days. She had symptoms of a viral URI one week prior. On otoscopy, you see the findings in the drawing above.
A. Weber lateralizes to the right, Rinne AC>BC right, AC>BC left
B. Weber does not lateralize, Rinne AC>BC right, AC>BC left
C. Weber does not lateralize, Rinne AC

A

B

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29
Q

A four-year old girl is brought to you with a history of seeming hearing loss for both ears for three days. She had symptoms of a viral URI one week prior. On otoscopy, you see the findings in the drawing above.
A. Weber lateralizes to the right, Rinne AC>BC right, AC>BC left
B. Weber does not lateralize, Rinne AC>BC right, AC>BC left
C. Weber does not lateralize, Rinne AC

A

D

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30
Q

A four-year old girl is brought to you with a history of seeming hearing loss for both ears for three days. She had symptoms of a viral URI one week prior. On otoscopy, you see the findings in the drawing above.
A. Weber lateralizes to the right, Rinne AC>BC right, AC>BC left
B. Weber does not lateralize, Rinne AC>BC right, AC>BC left
C. Weber does not lateralize, Rinne AC

A

C

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31
Q

The external auditory canal is best described as
A. A tube that is 1/3 cartilaginous and 2/3 bony
B. A tube that is 2/3 cartilaginous and 1/3 bony
C. A tube that is lined by pseudostratified squamous epithelium
D. A tube that is directed posteromedially from the middle ear to the nasopharynx

A

A

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32
Q

The audiometric examination that is based on the presence of sound emitted from the ear that can be picked up by sensitive microphones is

a. Tympanometry
b. Auditory Brainstem Responses
c. Tuning fork testing
d. Otoacoustic emissions

A

D

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33
Q

Which of the following otototoxic medications is most likely to cause an irreversible hearing loss?

a. Aspirin
b. Furosemide
c. Streptomycin
d. Erythromycin

A

C

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34
Q 
Which of the following microorganisms is a common pathogen found in chronic suppurative otitis media?
A. Streptococcus
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Moraxella catarrhalis
A

C

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35
Q

Which of the following findings in a patient with a perforated eardrum connotes a more “dangerous” condition?

a. A central perforation with no discharge
b. A central perforation with foul-smelling discharge
c. An attic perforation with visible cholesteatoma
d. A marginal perforation with no discharge

A

C

36
Q

Which of the following findings in a patient with a perforated eardrum connotes a more “dangerous” condition?

a. A central perforation with no discharge
b. A central perforation with foul-smelling discharge
c. An attic perforation with visible cholesteatoma
d. A marginal perforation with no discharge

A

A

37
Q

A patient with an acute right-sided vestibular loss will have nystagmus described as:
A. Horizontal, fast nystagmus
B. Horizontal, slow nystagmus
C. Horizontal, direction changing
D. Horizontal, slow-phase towards the left

A

B

38
Q

Which of the following leads one to suspect a central lesion when performing the Dix-Hallpike test?
A. absence of nystagmus. presence of subjective vertigo.
B. presence of nystagmus within a few seconds
C. absence of nystagmus when repeated dix-hallpike test
D. presence of vertical-torsional nystagmus

A

A

39
Q

Which of the following points to a central lesion using the Dix-Hallpike test?
A. Nystagmus after 5s
B. Nystagmus disappears after 30s
C. Nystagmus is prolonged even in head hanging position
D. Nystagmus occurs in vertical-torsional direction

A

C

40
Q

Which of the following examinations is the most important test in a patient suspected of having an inner ear injury from a grenade blast?

a. Pure tone audiometry
b. CT scan of the temporal bone
c. Electronystagmography
d. MRI of the internal auditory canal

A

B

41
Q

Acute vestibular compensation occurs primarily because of the influence of which structure?

a. Midbrain
b. Pons
c. Cerebellum
d. Vestibular nerve

A

C

42
Q

Canalolithiasis is the pathological finding in which disease entity?

a. Vestibular neuritis
b. Meniere’s disease
c. Perilymphatic fistula
d. BPPV

A

D

43
Q

Which of the following disease entities presents with vertigo attacks from 30 minutes to 24hours?

a. BPPV
b. Meniere’s disease
c. Viral labyrinthitis
d. Acoustic neuroma

A

B

44
Q 
Which of the folowing  medications is the appropriate treatment for acute spells of vertigo from vestibular neuritis?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Betahistine
C. Diazepam
D. Gentamycin
A

C

45
Q 
Semont Maneuver is the most appropriate therapy for which of the following diseases?
A. Meniere’s disease
B. Viral Neuritis
C. Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo
D. Acoustic Neuroma
A

C

46
Q 
A person with anosmia would still be able to smell
A. Ammonia
B. Coffee
C. Flower
D. Perfume
A

A

47
Q

The medication most likely to relieve nasal congestion in allergic rhinitis is

a. Topical anticholinergic
b. Intranasal corticosteroid
c. Intranasal decongestant
d. Oral decongestant

A

B

48
Q 
Which of the ff symptoms or findings are least likely to be associated with allergic rhinitis?
A.  Pale, edematous turbinates
B.  Crease across lower part of nose
C.  Nasal polyps
D.  Infraorbital venous dilation
A

C

49
Q 
Intranasal Foreign Body should be suspected in:
A. Recurrent history of watery rinorrhea
B. Unilateral epistaxis
C. Unilateral purulent discharge
D. Bilateral purulent discharge
A

C

50
Q

A positive halo sign will most likely be found in a patient with

a. Maxillary sinus carcinoma
b. Intranasal foreign body
c. Frontal sinus fracture
d. Allergic rhinitis

A

C

51
Q

With regards to the arachidonic acid pathway, the mediator which acts on smooth muscles is the

a. Leukotriene
b. Thromboxane
c. Prostacyclin
d. Prostaglandin

A

D

52
Q

NSAIDS will not inhibit the production of

a. LTC4
b. TXA2
c. PGI2
d. PGF2

A

A

53
Q 
Which of the following structures is least likely to be visualized via anterior rhinoscopy?
A. Nasal septum
B. Inferior nasal turbinate
C. Middle nasal turbinate
D. Fossa of Rosenmuller
A

D

54
Q

A neoplastic process should be suspected when the nasal discharge is

a. Mucopurulent
b. Watery
c. Serosanguinous
d. Mucoid

A

C

55
Q

An abnormal glatzel’s mirror test will most likely be found in a patient with

a. Nasal bone fracture
b. Unilateral nasal polyp
c. Allergic rhinitis
d. Nasopharyngeal angiofibroma

A

B

56
Q

Acute epiglottitis is usually caused by

a. Streptococcus pneumonia
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Hemophilus influenzae
d. Influenza virus

A

C

57
Q

Among the structures involved in sound production, the vocal folds acts as

a. A generator
b. A vibrator
c. A resonator
d. An articulator

A

B

58
Q

When touched with a tongue depressor, which structure is LEAST likely to cause gagging?

a. Posterior third of the tongue
b. Retromolar trigone
c. Soft palate
d. Posterior pharynx

A

B

59
Q

Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a cause of dysphagia?

a. Caustic ingestion
b. Cerebrovascular accident
c. Head trauma
d. Sjogren’s syndrome

A

C

60
Q

The most appropriate test to perform to evaluate a retropharyngeal abcess is
A. Plain film X-ray
B. Functional endoscopic evaluation of swallowing
C. Modified barium swallow
D. Panorex view

A

A

61
Q

The primary consideration in an immunocompetent patient with recurrent ulcerations in the oral cavity mucosa is

a. Aphthous ulcers
b. Herpes stomatitis
c. Pemphigus
d. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

A

A

62
Q

The primary consideration in a patient who smokes and drinks heavily with a non-healing ulcer is

a. Oral candidiasis
b. Aphthous stomatitis
c. Malignancy
d. Herpes stomatitis

A

C

63
Q

What is the least indication of tonsillectomy?

a. Apnea
b. Hemorrhagic
c. Malignant
d. Recurrent tonsillitis

A

D

64
Q

A cranial nerve responsible for taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is

a. Cranial nerve 7
b. Cranial nerve 9
c. Cranial nerve 10
d. Cranial nerve 11

A

A

65
Q 
Which of the following diseases is characterized by a progressive disorder marked by the triad of resting tremor, bradykinesia and rigidity?
A.     Amylotrophic lateral sclerosis
B.     Multiple sclerosis
C.     Parkinson’s disease
D.     Myasthenia gravis
A

C

66
Q 
Structural causes of swallowing dysfunction EXCEPT
A. Cleft palate
B. Manidublar ameloblastoma
C. Tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Cerebrovascular accident
A

D

67
Q

The following are symptoms of vocal fold paralysis except

a. Hoarseness
b. Odynophagia
c. Aspiration
d. Chronic coughing

A

B

68
Q

Which of the following structures function as articulators in sound production?

a. Tongue
b. Vocal folds
c. Lungs
d. Supraglottic space

A

A

69
Q

The inability to continue to phonate for extended periods without a change in voice quality defines the term

a. Dysphonia
b. Hoarseness
c. Vocal fatigue
d. Stertor

A

C

70
Q

Excessive loss of air during vocalization due to incomplete approximation of the vocal cords defines the term

a. Hoarseness
b. Breathiness
c. Vocal fatigue
d. Dysphonia

A

D

71
Q

The diagram above represents the view of the larynx on indirect mirror laryngoscopy. The striped structure represents

a. The epiglottis
b. The vocal fold
c. The aryepiglottic fold
d. The false vocal fold

A

B

72
Q

A newborn baby presenting with inspiratory stridor that is worse on the supine position and is relieved when the baby is upright most likely has which condition?

a. Congenital subglottic stenosis
b. Congenital vocal fold paralysis
c. Laryngomalacia
d. Tracheo-esophageal fistula

A

C

73
Q

The following are characteristic of laryngotracheobronchitis except

a. The location of airway narrowing is infraglottic
b. Presents with a thumb sign on lateral radiography of the neck
c. Viral in etiology
d. Tends to occur in infants and children under the age of 3

A

B

74
Q

In a patient with vocal fold nodules, the following management strategies are appropriate except

a. Voice rest
b. Anti-inflammatory medications
c. Proper hydration
d. Whispering when one needs to speak

A

D

75
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT innervated by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

a. Interarytenoid muscle
b. Cricothyroid muscle
c. Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle
d. Lateral cricoarytenoid muscle

A

B

76
Q

Which symptom is LEAST likely to be felt by a patient with a unilateral recurrent laryngeal nerve injury after thyroidectomy?

a. Hoarseness
b. Vocal fatigue
c. Breathiness
d. Stridor

A

D

77
Q

Which of the following is least likely to cause Ortner’s syndrome?

a. Tricuspid stenosis
b. Aortic aneurysm
c. Mitral stenosis
d. Atrial septal defect

A

A

78
Q

Intranasal masses associated with systemic allergic conditions are most likely:

a. Schneiderian papillomas
b. Squamous papillomas
c. Inflammatory nasal polyps
d. Tubular adenomatous polyps
e. None of the above

A

C

79
Q

Most commonly found in adolescent males, surgery for this neoplasm, although benign, is quite formidable, being fraught with risk of hemorrhage. What is this neoplasm?

a. Hemangiopericytoma
b. Angiosarcoma
c. Angiofibroma
d. Capillary hemangioma
e. Any of the above

A

C

80
Q

The most common benign tumor of the salivary gland with the propensity to be malignant is:

a. Lipoma
b. Schwanoma
c. Warthin’s tumor
d. Benign mixed tumor
e. None of the above

A

C

81
Q

A squamous-epithelium-lined cyst containing keratinaceous debris and occurring within the middle ear is a:

a. Cholesterol granuloma
b. Cholesterolosis
c. Cholesteatoma
d. Steatocystoma
e. None of the above

A

C

82
Q

A 35 year old male consulted for epistaxis. He also reported unilateral ear discomfort for quite some time now. Physical examination of the head and neck revealed palpable nodularities at the right cervical area. Oral cavity examination showed a bulging fullness of the nasopharyngeal mucosa. Which of the following correctly describes the lesion?

a. Histopathologic type does not affect response to therapy
b. Prognosis is uniformly dismal regardless of age upon diagnosis
c. A significant role for viral oncogenesis is associated with the disease
d. Chemotherapy currently provides the most optimal therapeutic response
e. None of the above

A

C

83
Q 
A 56 year old female consults for a pre-auricular mass on the right of ten years duration. It had been fairly stable in size for several years but during the last 3 months there was a subjective impression of a sudden increase in size. Physical examination showed a firm mass measuring 9cm in diameter. Give the most likely diagnosis.
A. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
B. Carcinoma ex pleomorphic adenoma
C. Benign mixed tumor
D. Malignant lymphoma
E. NOTA.
A

B

84
Q

Sialadenitis may be caused by:

a. Calculi
b. Bacteria
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

A

C

85
Q

Which can be used as a bone graft when doing mandibular surgery?

a. Femur
b. Tibia
c. Fibula
d. Tarsal

A

C

[OS 212] ORL (5 decks)

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