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[OS 212] ORL > 2012 > Flashcards

2012 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following tuning fork test is likely to be the result of the otologic findings of the case above:
A. Weber: lateralizes to the right; Rinne: R- AC>BC; L- AC>BC
B. Weber: lateralizes to the right; Rinne: R- ACBC
C. Weber: lateralizes to the left; Rinne: R- ACBC
D. Weber: lateralizes to the left; Rinne: R- AC>BC; L- AC

A

B

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2
Q 
Which of the following is a subjective test for otologic assessment?
A.	Play audiometry
B.	OAE
C.	ABR
D.	Tympanometry
A

A

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3
Q 
Which of the following disease would MOST likely present with sensorineural hearing loss:
A.	Impacted eardrum
B.	Meniere’s Disease
C.	Tympanic membrane perforation
D.	Tympanoscelrosis
A

B

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4
Q 
At what age of gestation does the tympanic membrane develop?
A.	8 weeks
B.	21 weeks
C.	28 weeks
D.	34 weeks
A

C

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5
Q 
The inner ear anomaly characterized by a total loack of inner ear development is called?
A.	Michel’s dysplasia
B.	Mondini’s dysplasia
C.	Scheibe’s dysplasia
D.	Cochlear dysplasia
A

A

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6
Q

Which if the following is true regarding vestibular physiology?
A. In normal conditions, baseline afferent vestibular input is balanced at rest
B. At rest there is no afferent vestibular activity
C. Head rotation to the left will cause an increase in afferent neural input from the right vestibular system
D. Head rotation to the left will cause a decrease in afferent neural input from the left vestibular system

A

A

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7
Q 
A patient with atherosclerotic CAD will most likely complain of dizziness described as:
A.	Dysequilibrium
B.	Vertigo
C.	Near Syncope
D.	Psychogenic
A

C

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8
Q

The following statements regarding nystagmus are true except:
A. Involves voluntary movement of the eyes
B. Direction can be horizontal, vertical or rotatory
C. May have a slow phase and a fast corrective phase
D. Can be caused by peripheral or central disturbances

A

A

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9
Q 
Which will give rise to dizziness of otologic origin?
A.	Diabetic Mellitus
B.	Hypothyroidism
C.	Hypercholesterolemia
D.	Gentamicin toxicity
A

D

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10
Q 
Medication most appropriate for treating severe acute vertigo:
A. Betahistines
B. Cinnarizine
C. Diazepam
D. Thiazide
A

C

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11
Q 
CNS has the ability to reorganize itself after a vestibular injury. This capacity to adapt to asymmetries in peripheral vestibular afferent activity:
A.	Regeneration
B.	Suppression 
C.	Compensation
D.	Reactivity
A

C

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12
Q 
Among the conditions listed below, which one is the least common cause of olfactory disturbances:
A. paranasal sinus disease
B. viral URTI
C. head trauma
D. Vitamin B deficiency
A

D

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13
Q

Which of the following is wrong to be associated?
A. allergic rhinitis – watery discharge
B. bacterial rhinosunisitis – mucopurulent discharge
C. malignancy - serosanguinous
D. retained foreign body – bloody

A

D

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14
Q 
Periorbital pain is MOST likely associated with disease in which sinus?
A.	Frontal
B.	Maxillary
C.	Ethmoid
D.	Sphenoid
A

C

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15
Q

The symptoms most likely associated with allergic rhinitis:
A. nasal turbinates: pale, bluish, edematous
B. mucopurulent discharge
C. crease at upper part of the nose
D. cervical adenopathy

A

A

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16
Q 
On a contrast CT scan, what image feature of a juvenile angiofibroma
A. hyperdense
B. normodense
C. hypodense
D. None of the above
A

A

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17
Q 
A test in which patient’s cheek is gently pushed laterally in order to displace the ala:
A. Cottle’s
B. Glatzel’s
C. Sacchoria
D. Transillumination
A

A

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18
Q 
Which will not elicit gagging when depressed with tongue depressor?
A.	Posterior third of the tongue
B.	Soft palate
C.	Retromalar trigone
D.	Posterior pharynx
A

C

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19
Q 
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a cause of dysphagia?
A.	caustic ingestion
B.	cerebrovascular accident
C.	head trauma
D.	Sjogren’s Syndrome
A

C

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20
Q 
Most probable for immunocompetent person with recurrent ulcerations in the oral cavity:
A. Aphthous ulcer
B. Pemphigus
C. Herpes stomatitis
D. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
A

A

21
Q 
The primary causative factor in a patient who smokes and drinks heavily with non-healing oral ulcers:
A.	Oral candidiasis
B.	Apthuous ulcers
C.	Malignancy
D.	Herpes stomatitis
A

C

22
Q 
Structural causes of swallowing dysfunction EXCEPT:
A. Cleft palate
B. Mandibular Ameloblastoma
C. Tracheoesophageal fistula
D. Cerebrovascular accident
A

D

23
Q 
Inability to phonate for extended periods of time without a change in voice quality:
A. dysphonia
B. hoarseness
C. vocal fatigue
D. stertor
A

C

24
Q 
The newborm baby presenting with respiratory stridor that is worse on the supine position and is relieved when the baby is upright most likely has which condition?
A.	Congenital subglottic stenosis
B.	Congenital vocal fold paralysis
C.	Laryngomalacia
D.	Tracheo-esophageal fistula
A

C

25
Q 
The following are symptoms of vocal fold paralysis except:
A.	hoarseness
B.	Odynophagia
C.	Aspiration
D.	Chronic Coughing
A

B

26
Q

The following are characteristics of laryngotracheobronchitis EXCEPT:
A. location of airway narrowing is infraglottic
B. presents a thumb sign in lateral radiography of the neck
C. viral etiology
D. tends to occur in infants less than 3 years old

A

B

27
Q 
In a patient with vocal fold nodules, the following management strategies are appropriate EXCEPT:
A. voice rest
B. anti-inflammatory meds
C. proper hydration
D. whispering when one needs to speak
A

D

28
Q 
Abnormal form of a body structure caused by non-disruptive mechanical forces is:
A.	malformation
B.	deformation
C.	disruption
D.	degeneration
A

B

29
Q

Which of the following steps in wound healing occurs last
A. WBC clear the wound debris and bacteria
B. Blood vessels constrict to control bleeding
C. Fibroblasts make collagen to fill the wound
D. New blood vessels form.

A

D

30
Q 
A fracture where the bone cracks on one side only is referred to as:
A. comminuted
B. open
C. greenstick
D. single
A

C

31
Q

A fastfood delivery driver collided head-on with a truck on Taft Avenue. At the emergency room, the first thing you should attend to is:
A. ask the patient about the accident
B. secure the airway
C. apply bandages to all facial lacerations
D. insert an intravenous tube

A

B

32
Q

A patient with Bell’s Palsy exhibits the following EXCEPT:
A. bilateral involvement
B. associated hearing loss
C. successful recovery to normal function
D. associated with altered taste

A

A

33
Q 
Which of the following is MOST likely to remain intact in a patient with facial paralysis due to mastoid surgery where injury occurred at the upper mastoid segment of the facial nerve?
A.	Taste sensation
B.	Eyelid closure
C.	Tearing
D.	Contraction of stapedius
A

C

34
Q 
Cholesteatoma develops due to chronic afflictions. Radiographically, they are seen as:
A.	irregular area of scelrosed bone
B.	rounded area of lucency
C.	pyramidal area of lucency
D.	ovoid area of sclerosed bone
A

B

35
Q 
On CT, a retinoblastoma has which of the following classical features:
A.	Calcification within the globe
B.	Blood within the globe
C.	irregular borders
D.	microphthalmia
A

A

36
Q 
The most common sinonasal affliction:
A.	polyps
B.	sinusitis
C.	angiofibroma
D.	nasal fracture
A

B

37
Q 
Sinonasal polyps usually arise from:
A.	Inferior turbinate
B.	Middle meatus
C.	Superior turbinate
D.	Sphenoethmoidal recess
A

B

38
Q 
While screening CT Scan is the best study to rule out sinusitis, which of the following is an acceptable affirmative:
A.	Caldwell’s view
B.	Schuller’s view
C.	Towne’s view
D.	Water’s view
A

D

39
Q 
Radiologic assessment of sinusitis
A. Thickened sinus walls
B. Congested turbinates
C. Air-fluid level
D. Multiple grape-like lesions
A

C

40
Q 
This is said to have a positive correlation with allergic rhinitis:
A.	Nasal deformity
B.	Nasal polyps
C.	Acute sinusitis
D.	Facial deformity
A

C

41
Q 
A 2 year old child presented to your clinic with a cystic lesion on the posterior midline portion of the tongue. Your working diagnosis is:
A.	Thyroglossal duct cyst
B.	Dentigerous Cyst
C.	brachial cleft
D.	odontogenic cyst
A

A

42
Q 
To be sure of your diagnosis in 72, which imaging study would you do?
A.	Open mouthed X-ray
B.	Ultrasound
C.	CT Scan
D.	Angiogram
A

B

43
Q 
A 28 year old female went to the clinic experiencing jaw pain for the past year. Imaging shows mandible with honeycomb appearance in the area that was painful. Working diagnosis:
A. Dentigerous cyst
B. Odontogenic cyst
C. Ameloblastoma
D. Osteosarcoma
A

C

44
Q

In imaging studies, a lymph node is considered enlarged if:
A. It is bigger than all others
B. Tender
C. Measures more than 10 mm
D. Visible to the eye at a distance of 2 feet

A

C

45
Q 
Bone graft used in mandibular surgery
A. Femur
B. Tibia
C. Fibula
D. Tarsus
A

C

46
Q 
In CT Scan of the head and neck, what do you check initially?
A.	Color
B.	Gender
C.	Symmetry
D.	Date
A

C

47
Q 
Unilocular luscency that is noted to surround the crown of an unerupted tooth is lined by squamous epithelium is best diagnosed as:
A.	radicular cyst
B.	brachial cyst
C.	dentigerous cyst
D.	thyroglossal cyst
E.	NOTA
A

C

48
Q 
The most common benign tumor of the salivary gland with the propensity to be bilateral is:
A. Lipoma
B. Schwanoma
C. Warthin’s Tumor
D. Benign Mixed Tumor
A

C

[OS 212] ORL (5 decks)

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