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Pharmacology Exam 3 > 2012 Exam > Flashcards

2012 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

A typical compensatory cardiovascular reflex following treatment of a hypertensive patient with a vasodilator could involve:

A. a reduction in heart rate, an increase in plasma renin levels and an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity.

B. an increase in heart rate, an increase in the force of cardiac contraction, and an increase in soduium and water retention.

C. reduced urine output, reduced cardiac output, and reduced heart rate.

D. increased urinary output, reduced cardiac output and increased heart rate.

A

B. an increase in heart rate, an increase in the force of cardiac contraction, and an increase in soduium and water retention.

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2
Q

Antihypertensive drugs lower blood pressure by reducing either total peripheral resistance and/or:

A. cardiac output

B. heart rate and/or cardiac stroke volume

C. both A and B

D. neither A nor B

A

C. both A and B

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3
Q

Which of the following antihypertensive drug classes directly bind to and block L-type calcium channels?

A. Dihydropyridines

B. Minoxidil

C. Nitrovasodilators

D. All of the above

A

A. Dihydropyridines

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4
Q

Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonists as antihypertensive drugs

A. include clonidine (Catapress)

B. reduce sympathetic outflow from the brain

C. are used currently in patients whose hypertension is not well-controlled by other drugs

D. have all of the above properties

A

D. have all of the above properties

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5
Q

Which of the following best explains the antihypertensive mechanism of action for lisinopril (Prinivil)?

A. Directly blocks AT1 adrenergic receptors

B. Increases angiotensin II levels

C. Reduces renin activity

D. Reduces angiotensin II levels

A

D. Reduces angiotensin II levels

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6
Q

Which of the following statemwents accurately describes the treatment approach for patients with high blood pressure?

A. Blood pressure normalization might be achieved with life-style modifications (eg. diet and exercise) alone.

B. Use thiazide diuretics for patients with stage I hypertension who have no other compelling indications.

C. Use of a two drug combination for patients with stage II hypertension who have no other compelling indication

D. All of the statements above are true

A

D. All of the statements above are true

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7
Q

When used for the treatment of angina, nitroglycerin e(Nitrostat)

A. reduces myocardial work by decreasing preload.

B. has low bioavailability when dissolved in the mouth

C. directly reduces cardiac rate and contractility

D. possesses all of the above properties.

A

A. reduces myocardial work by decreasing preload.

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8
Q

The signs and symptoms of angina pectoris are

A. due to an imbalance between cardiac oxygen demand and oxygen supply

B. frequently attributed to atherosclerotic lesions in coronary arteries.

C. treated with drugs that reduce total peripheral resistance and/or venous return to the heart.

D. attributed partly to pain fibers stimulated by metabolites released from cells within ischemic tissue.

E. consistent with all of the above

A

D. attributed partly to pain fibers stimulated by metabolites released from cells within ischemic tissue.

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9
Q

Dihydropyridine-type calcium channel blocking drugs, e.g. nifedipine (Procardia), are useful anti-antinal agents because they can

A. lower peripheral vascular resistance.

B. inhibit coronary artery spasm

C. do both A and B.

D. do neither A nor B.

A

C. do both A and B.

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10
Q

Digitalis glycosides

A. have a large therapeutic index value.

B. increase the intracellular free Ca2+ concentration in cardiac myocytes.

C. are characterized by both A and B.

D. are characterized by neither A nor B.

A

B. increase the intracellular free Ca2+ concentration in cardiac myocytes.

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11
Q

Which of the following mechanisms contribute to reduced mortality in the pharmacologic treatment of heart failure?

A. Interference with the actions of angiotensin II

B. Partial blockage of cardiac beta-1 adrenergic receptors

C. Blockade of aldosterone receptors

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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12
Q

The so-called “vicious cycle of heart failure” involves all of the following EXCEPT

A. retention of sodium and water.

B. the development of myocardial hypertrophy.

C. peripheral vasodilation.

D. a reduction in cardiac output.

A

C. peripheral vasodilation.

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13
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin)

A. inhibits Vitamin K-dependent synthesis of clotting factors

B. is an oral anticoagulant.

C. is contraindicated in pregnancy.

D. is characterized by all the above properties.

A

D. is characterized by all the above properties.

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14
Q

Alteplase (Activase)

A. selectively prevents platelet aggregation.

B. is a tissue plasminogen activator.

C. inhibits synthesis of thrombin.

D. is characterized by none of the above properties.

A

B. is a tissue plasminogen activator.

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15
Q

Aspirin

A. prevents binding of fibrinogen to glycoprotein IIb/IIa receptors on platelets.

B. activates ADP receptors on platelets.

C. irreversibly inhibits cyclo-oxygenase (COX).

D. does all of the above.

A

C. irreversibly inhibits cyclo-oxygenase (COX).

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16
Q

Which one of the following drugs selectively inhibits factor Xa?

A. Streptokinase (Streptase)

B. Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

C. Low molecular weight heparin

D. Clopidogrel (Plavix)

A

C. Low molecular weight heparin

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17
Q

A new drug is being tested against the standard therapy used to treat advanced lung cancer. Results of the clinical trial show reduced disease progression, indicating potential clinical benefit of the new drug. Investigators are considering filling a new drug application (NDA). In which phase of clinical trials is this new drug?

A. Phase O

B. Phase I

C. Phase II

D. Phase III

A

D. Phase III

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18
Q

A drug that has a high potential for abuse, and an approved medical use in the US, and for which no automatic refills can be prescribed is placed in which class of controlled substance?

A. Schedule I

B. Schedule II

C. Schedule III

D. Schedule V

A

B. Schedule II

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19
Q

You have been working for 10 years developing a new drug for potential clinical use. You have collected preclinical data, which you now intend to submit to the FDA to receive investigational new drug (IND) status. Which of the following must be submitted to receive IND status?

A. Chemical synthesis protocols for making the drug

B. Informed consent form for studies performed in humans

C. Toxicology studies performed in animals

D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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20
Q

Phase I clinical trials serve to

A. determine the efficacy of the experimental drug.

B. increase the market of an already approved drug.

C. establish the maximum tolerated dose.

D. priority rank multiple promising compounds.

A

C. establish the maximum tolerated dose.

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21
Q

In the Vaughan-Williams classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs, sodium and potassium channel blockers are categorized into which classes?

A. II and IV

B. III and IV

C. I and III

D. II and III

A

C. I and III

22
Q

Which of the following is /are used to classify anit-arrhthmic drugs according to the Vaughan-Williams classification?

A. Low therapeutic index

B. Extra-cardiac toxicity

C. Pro-arrhythmic potential

D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

23
Q

According to the Vaughan-Williams classification of anti-arryhthmic drugs, lidocaine is a

A. class I drug that is most effective on inactive sodium channels

B. class II drug that exhibits use-dependent block in cardiac tissue

C. class III drug that binds to activated sodium channels

D. class I drug that is most effective on depolarized cardiac tissue

A

D. class I drug that is most effective on depolarized cardiac tissue

24
Q

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

A. blocks K channels, prolongs the cardiac action potential and shortens the QT interval

B. blocks K channels, increases refractoriness and shortens the QT interval

C. is a Vaughan-Williams class III drug that prolongs the cardiac action potential and increases the QT interval

D. is a Vaughan-Williams class IV drug that shortens the cardiac action potential and decreased refactoriness

A

C. is a Vaughan-Williams class III drug that polongs the cardiac action potential and increased the QT interval

25
Q

Atorvastatain (Lipitor)

A. has numerous side effects thus limitiing its use in 50% of patients

B. lowers serum HDL levels

C. decreases fat soluble vitamin absorption

D. blocks a rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis

A

D

26
Q

Nicotinic acid (niacin)

A. acts locally in the small intenstine

B. is the first choice drug for any pt. with elevated LDL levels

C. blocks a rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis

D. increases the activity of lipoprotein lipase

A

D

27
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A. LDL is a anit-atherogenic

B Lowering plasma LDL levels has no effect on coronary heart dz mortality

C. Regulation of liver LDL receptor levels is the dominant mechanism for controllingLDL levels in humans

D. LDL transports dietary lipids form the intestine to the liver

E. Gemfibrozil (Lopid) is the most effective drug for controlling LDL levels

A

C

28
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE about second generation H1 receptor antagonists?

A. They are not highly selective for the H1 receptor

B. They do not cross the blood-brain barrier to the levels observed with first generation H1 antagonist

C. They are the drug fo choice for treating anaphylatic shock

D. They are effective in decreasing acid secretion in the stomach

A

B

29
Q

Infliximab (Remicade) is useful in treating rheumatoid arthritis because

A. it binds to the TNF-alpha receptor

b. it prevents mas cell degranulation

C. it binds to the glucocorticoid receptor

D. it binds to TNF-alpha receptor and prevents the cytokine from binding to its receptor

A

D

30
Q

Aerosol drug delivery is

A. a means to treat patients with reduced total drug dosage compared to systemic administration of the same drug

B. always devoid of any side-effects

C. never associated with absorption and systemic distribution of the drugs

D. appropriate for all patients, irrespective fo their age or physical limitations

A

A

30
Q

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

A. suppresses pulmonary inflammatory processes

B. is an antagonist of leukotrien receptors

c. binds to and inhibits ion channels controlling mast cell degranulation

D. has none of the above properties

A

D

30
Q

Albuterol (Ventolin)

A. is selective for beta -2 adrenergic receptors and causes bronchodilation

B. is used as an anti-inflammatory drug for the treatment of asthma

C. inhibits 5-lipoxygenase

D. inhibits phosphodiesterase

A

A

31
Q

Which one of the following drugs is NOT an effective anti-inflammatory agent?

A. ibuprofen (motrin)

B. acetaminophen (tylenol)

C. celecoxib (Celebrex)

D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

A

B

32
Q

Which one of the following drugs blocks arachidonic acid synthesis?

A. Acetaminophen (tylenol)

B. Celecoxib (Celebrex)

C. Dexamethasone (decadron)

D. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

A

C

33
Q

Which one of the following drugs is used for the long-term management of asthma?

A. Naproxen (Aleve, Naprosyn)

B. Dexamethasone (Decadron)

C. Misopristol (Cytotec)

D. Montelukast (Singulair)

A

D

34
Q

Which one of the following drugs has gastric ulcers as one of its major side effects?

A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

B. Misopristol (Cytotec)

C. Acetylsalicylic acid (aspirin)

D. Montelukast (Singulair)

A

C

35
Q

Interferes with the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A. Etanercept (Enbrel)
B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
C. Methotrexate (MTX)
D. Probenecid (Benemid)
E. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

A

A

36
Q

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

A. Etanercept (Enbrel)
B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
C. Methotrexate (MTX)
D. Probenecid (Benemid)
E. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

A

C

37
Q

Inhibits renal reabsorption of uric acid for the treatment fo chronic gout

A. Etanercept (Enbrel)
B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
C. Methotrexate (MTX)
D. Probenecid (Benemid)
E. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

A

D

38
Q

Is a NSAID used in some patients with an acute gout attack

A. Etanercept (Enbrel)
B. Indomethacin (Indocin)
C. Methotrexate (MTX)
D. Probenecid (Benemid)
E. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

A

B

39
Q

Metropolol (lopressor) is more selective for beta-1 adrenergic receptors than is propanolol (inderal)

T or F

A

T

40
Q

Endogenous vasoconstriction hormones, neurotransmitters and autadoids elicit smooth muscle contraction by stimulating the production fo the second messengers cAMP and cGMP.

Tor F

A

F

41
Q

Cholestryamine (Questran) is the first-choice drug for any patient with elevated LDL levels.

T or F

A

F

42
Q

Zileuton (Zyflo) is commonly used in the treatment fo chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

T or F

A

F

43
Q

Combination anti-anginal therapy can include using beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists with either nitrovasodilators or calcium channel blockers

Tor F

A

T

44
Q

Current drug treatment of heart failure involves blockade of the neuro-humoral systems that increase peripheal vascular resistance and fluid and salt retention.

T or F

A

T

47
Q

Which of the following BEST explains why metoprolol (lopressor) might be chosen over propranolol (Inderal) for treating a cardiovascular disease patient who has asthma?

A) propranolol acts on cardiac tissue but metoprolol does not.

B) propranolol induces bronchoconstriction but metoprolol does not

C) metoprolol is an indirectly acting sympatholytic drug

D) Metoprolol crosses the BBB more efficiently than propranolol.

E) Metoprolol acts on vascular smooth muscle but propranolol does not.

A

B) propranolol induces bronchoconstriction but metoprolol does not

48
Q

Prazosin (minipress) is useful in the treatment of hypertension mainly because of its actions on

A) vascular smooth muscle

B) bronchial smooth muscle

C) the heart.

D) the central nervous system

E) the liver

A

A) vascular smooth muscle

49
Q

Reserpine (serpasil) affects blood pressure by actin on

A) alpha-adrenergic receptors

B) beta-adrenergic receptors

C) the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT)

D) the norepinephrine transporter (NET)

E) Monoamine oxidase (MAO)

A

C) the vesicular monoamine transporter (VMAT)

50
Q

For treating a patinet with experiencing an acute HTN crisis, which of the following type of drug would be the best choice?

A) alpha 2 adrenergic receptor antagonists

B) monoamine oxidase inhibitor

C) Beta-1 adrenergic receptor agonists

D) Alpha-1 + Beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonist

E) Alpha-1 + beta-1 adrenergic receptor agonist

A

D) Alpha-1 + Beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonist

51
Q

dexamethasone (decadron)

A. is used for diagnosing Cushing syndrome

B. does not bind to corticosteroid-binding-globulin (CBG)

c. has max. anti-inflammatory and min. salt retention

D. all of the above

A

D

52
Q

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of acute adrenocorticoid defficiency?

A. aminoglutthimide (cytadren)

B. hydrocortisone (cortef)

C. dexamethasone (decadron)

D. mifepristone (RU486)

A

B

Pharmacology Exam 3 (8 decks)

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