2008 Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Class III antiarrhythmic drugs

A. Increase refractoriness.
B. Are specific K channel blockers.
C. Increase QRS interval on the electrocardiogram.
D. Shorten the ventricular action potential.

A

A

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2
Q

All currently used antihypertensive drugs reduce arterial pressure by simultaneously reducing the cardiac output and total peripheral resistance. True or false?

A

False

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3
Q

Nitroglycerin and sodium nitroprusside can be considered prodrugs because the gas nitric oxide is the bioactive agent released from both preparations. True or false?

A

True

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4
Q

The homozygous form of familial hypocholesterolemia is successfully treated with atorvastatin (Lipitor). True or false?

A

False

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5
Q

According to federal law schedule one drugs can only be prescribed for life-threatening diseases. True or false?

A

False

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6
Q

Phase 1 clinical trials involve laboratory animal testing to assess the safety and biological activity of new drugs. True or false?

A

False

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7
Q

The food and drug administration requires data demonstrating the bioavailability safety and efficacy of new prescription drugs prior to approval for marketing. True or false?

A

True

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8
Q

Drugs that have been shown to reduce mortality due to heart failure are those that directly increase the contractile force of the myocardium e.g. digitalis glycosides and beta-adrenergic agonists. True or false?

A

False

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9
Q

Beta blockers have a wide margin of safety when used for the treatment of heart failure. True or false?

A

False

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10
Q
which of the following drugs is useful for treating gastric ulcers due to chronic use of NSAIDs?
A. Acetaminophen (tylenol)
B. Ibuprofen (motrin)
C. misopristol (cytotec)
D. aspirin
E. none
A

C

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11
Q

A key difference between 1st and 2nd generation H1-histamine receptor antagonists is that the 2nd gen. drugs
A. are easier to swallow
B. don’t cross the blood brain barrier efficiently
C. are more broadly active, blocking receptors for several other neurotransmitters
D. are contraindicated for the tx of allergic rhinitis
E. all of the above

A

B

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12
Q

the mechanisms of pharmacologic glucocorticoid action include
A. binding to intracellular receptor proteins that participate in the control of gene transcription
B. increasing levels of intracellular regulators such as lipocortin and IkB, which function to suppress inflammatory pathways
C. suppression of the function of several types of immune system cells
D. all of the above

A

D

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13
Q
inhibits reabsorption of uric acid for the treatment of gout
A. probenecid (benemid)
B. indomethacin (indocin)
C. allopurinol (zyloprim)
D. etanercept (enbrel)
E. methotrexate (MTX)
A

A

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14
Q
is the drug of choice for the treatment of most RA
A. probenecid (benemid)
B. indomethacin (indocin)
C. allopurinol (zyloprim)
D. etanercept (enbrel)
E. methotrexate (MTX)
A

E

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15
Q
antagonizes the action of TNF alpha for the treatment of RA
A. probenecid (benemid)
B. indomethacin (indocin)
C. allopurinol (zyloprim)
D. etanercept (enbrel)
E. methotrexate (MTX)
A

D

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16
Q
inhibits xanthine oxidase, leading to decreased uric acid production for the treatment of chronic gout
A. probenecid (benemid)
B. indomethacin (indocin)
C. allopurinol (zyloprim)
D. etanercept (enbrel)
E. methotrexate (MTX)
A

C

17
Q
beta 2 adrenergic receptor selective agonist
A. cromolyn sodium (intal)
B. albuterol (ventolin)
C. ipratropium (atrovent)
D. theophylline
E. montelukast (singulair)
A

B

18
Q
bronchodilator, inhibits cAMP phosphodiesterase and is also an antagonist of A3 adenosine receptors
A. cromolyn sodium (intal)
B. albuterol (ventolin)
C. ipratropium (atrovent)
D. theophylline
E. montelukast (singulair)
A

D

19
Q
membrane stabilizer and inhibitor of mast cell degranulation
A. cromolyn sodium (intal)
B. albuterol (ventolin)
C. ipratropium (atrovent)
D. theophylline
E. montelukast (singulair)
A

A

20
Q
antagonist of M1-muscarinic cholinergic receptors that are expressed in airway smooth muscle cells
A. cromolyn sodium (intal)
B. albuterol (ventolin)
C. ipratropium (atrovent)
D. theophylline
E. montelukast (singulair)
A

C

21
Q

T or F: eicosanoids regulate both vasodilation and vasoconstriction relating to inflammation

A

True

22
Q

T or F: compared to the glucocorticoids, cortisol and dexamethasone, prednisone is intermediate in terms of duration of action, anti-inflammatory activity and mineral corticoid effects

A

True

23
Q
inhibits vitamin K-dependent synthesis of clotting factors
A. low molecular weight heparin
B. streptokinase (streptase)
C. warfarin (coumadin)
D. aspirin
E. abciximab (ReoPro)
A

C

24
Q
blocks the synthesis of thromboxane A2 in platelets
A. low molecular weight heparin
B. streptokinase (streptase)
C. warfarin (coumadin)
D. aspirin
E. abciximab (ReoPro)
A

D

25
Q
preferentially inhibits coagulation factor Xa
A. low molecular weight heparin
B. streptokinase (streptase)
C. warfarin (coumadin)
D. aspirin
E. abciximab (ReoPro)
A

A

26
Q

Causes clot dissolution

A

B