2011 Flashcards

1
Q
1.	The incidence of disease X is 1 in 3000/year. The prevalence is 1 in 1000. On the average, what is the duration of the disease?
A.	3 yrs
B.	10 yrs
C.	33 yrs
D.	50 yrs
A

C

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2
Q
A.	Cumulative incidence
B.	Incidence density
C.	Point prevalence
D.	Period prevalence
E.	Not a rate

One million Filipino have tuberculosis

A

E

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3
Q
A.	Cumulative incidence
B.	Incidence density
C.	Point prevalence
D.	Period prevalence
E.	Not a rate

10% of the population will develop papillary cancer of the thyroid in their lifetime.

A

A

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4
Q
A.	Cumulative incidence
B.	Incidence density
C.	Point prevalence
D.	Period prevalence
E.	Not a rate

20% of Filipinos are overweight at any given time.

A

C

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5
Q
A.	Cumulative incidence
B.	Incidence density
C.	Point prevalence
D.	Period prevalence
E.	Not a rate

In a study of 160 medical students, 30 experienced headache in 2 weeks of examination period.

A

B

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6
Q
A.	Cumulative incidence
B.	Incidence density
C.	Point prevalence
D.	Period prevalence
E.	Not a rate

10-20% of children will have hearing loss at sometime in any year.

A

C

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7
Q
A.	Cumulative incidence
B.	Incidence density
C.	Point prevalence
D.	Period prevalence
E.	Not a rate

1% of Filipino with goiter for the past 10 yrs.

A

D

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8
Q
8.	Prevalence studies are useful for which of the following:
A.	Studies of chronic diseases
B.	Studies for cause and effect
C.	Studies for adverse drug monitoring
D.	All of the above
A

A

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9
Q
9.	Which of the frequency measures or rates generally requires a follow-up time period?
A.	Point prevalence
B.	Period prevalence
C.	Incidence density
D.	None of the above
A

C

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10
Q
10.	Frequency of a rare disease is studied with what design?
A.	Cross sectional study design
B.	Cohort study design
C.	Case control study
D.	Any of the above
A

C

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following is prevalence study good for?
    A. Study of local epidemic of malaria
    B. Study of cancer cure among patients undergoing chemotherapy
    C. Study of a new test in determining coronary stenosis
    D. All of the above
A

A

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12
Q
12.	What is the cumulative incidence of cancer among HIV infected subjects in the example study above?
A.	5 in 7
B.	5 / 21 person-years
C.	28%
D.	None of the above
A

A

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13
Q
  1. Assuming there were 100 people screened for HIV infections, 50% of which were positive. 20% of the subjects with HIV infection have a concomitant venereal disease. Which of the following statement is true of the study population?
    A. The prevalence of HIV is 50%.
    B. The prevalence of venereal disease is 20%.
    C. The prevalence of venereal disease is 10%.
    D. None of the above
A

A

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14
Q
14.	Smoking is an important risk factor for cancer. However, given that it takes time (induction time or period) to develop cancer that can be attributed to smoking, which of the following is the better measure of frequency for investigating causality between smoking and cancer?
A.	Incidence Density
B.	Cumulative incidence
C.	Point prevalence
D.	Period prevalence
A

B

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15
Q
15.	In a fixed cohort study of 100 individuals, 10 already have heart disease at the start of the observation period. After two years, there were already 20 subjects with heart disease. What is the annual incidence of heart disease?
A.	5.5%
B.	10%
C.	11%
D.	20%
A

C

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16
Q

True of a DIAGNOSTIC TEST:
A. clinical information obtained from history
B. clinical information obtained from physical examination
C. a test performed in a laboratory
D. constellation of findings
E. all of the above

A

E

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17
Q
The probability above which diagnosis is sufficiently likely to warrant treatment:
   A. Test Threshold 
   B. Treatment Threshold
   C. Diagnostic Threshold 
   D. Probability Threshold 
   E. none of the above
A

B

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18
Q
Not true of a Diagnostic Test Design:
   A. A form of cohort design
   B. Diagnostic uncertainty
   C. Blind comparison with an independent gold standard applied similarly to the treatment and 
        control group
   D. Results of the test being evaluated should not influence the decision to perform the gold 
        standard 
   E. All of the above
A

A

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19
Q

THE SENSITIVE TEST:
A. is most helpful when the test result is negative (“SnOUT”)
B. when false positive results can harm patients physically, emotionally or financially
C. to confirm or “rule in” a diagnosis that has been suggested by other data
D. is rarely positive in the absence of a disease
E. none of the above

A

A

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20
Q

THE SPECIFIC TEST:
A. When probability of disease is low and purpose of test is to discover disease
B. Reason to suspect a dangerous but treatable condition
C. Important penalty for missing a disease
D. Most helpful when the test result is positive (“SpIN”)
E. None of the above

A

D

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21
Q
Performance of measurements can be described according to which characteristic:
A.	Validity
B.	Interval 
C.	Reliability
D.	Only a and c are correct
E.	 All of the above are correct
A

E

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22
Q

Validity of measurements can operationally be defined as:
A. Degree to which the tool measures what it is intended to measure
B. Results of the measurement corresponds to the true state of the phenomenon being measured
C. Established by the comparison with an accepted standard
D. Only a and c are correct
E. All of the above are correct

A

E

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23
Q

Reliability of measurements can operationally be defined as:
A. Extent to which repeated measurements of a stable phenomenon get similar results.
B. Not affected by random error or chance
C. Reproducibility, repeatability
D. Only a and c are correct
E. All of the above are correct

A

D

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24
Q

Responsiveness of measurements refers to:
A. Ability of the instrument to detect change as conditions change
B. Ability of the instrument to register very low or high values of the condition being measured
C. Specificity of measurements to detect differences
D. Only a and c are correct
E. All of the above are correct.

A

A

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25
Q

Strategies to enhance precision include:
A. Standardize procedures and methods for the measurement.
B. Train and certify those who make the observations
C. Automate the instruments
D. Only a and c are correct
E. All of the above are correct

A

E

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26
Q

Strategies to enhance accuracy include:
A. Standardize procedures and methods for the measurement.
B. Train and certify those who make the observations
C. Automate the instruments
D. Only a and c are correct
E. All of the above are correct

A

E

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27
Q

Features of statistical abnormality:
A. Based on the Gaussian distribution curve.
B. May not be valid due to overlaps in values among those with disease and those without disease
C. Will results in all diseases having the same frequency
D. Only a and c are correct
E. All of the above are correct

A

E

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28
Q

Limitations of statistical abnormality:
A. There is a general relationship between the degree of statistical unusualness and clinical disease.
B. Many measurements are due to a population based definition
C. Some extreme values are actually beneficial
D. Only a and c are correct
E. All of the above are correct

A

C

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29
Q

Small for gestational age babies

A. Statistical abnormality (Gaussian distribution)
B. Statistical abnormality (Percentile)
C. Abnormality associated with risk (Risk factor)
D. Therapeutic abnormality (Based on what is treatable)
E. Diagnostic abnormality (Based on test results)

A

A

30
Q

Intrauterine growth restriction

A. Statistical abnormality (Gaussian distribution)
B. Statistical abnormality (Percentile)
C. Abnormality associated with risk (Risk factor)
D. Therapeutic abnormality (Based on what is treatable)
E. Diagnostic abnormality (Based on test results)

A

B

31
Q

Diastolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg

A. Statistical abnormality (Gaussian distribution)
B. Statistical abnormality (Percentile)
C. Abnormality associated with risk (Risk factor)
D. Therapeutic abnormality (Based on what is treatable)
E. Diagnostic abnormality (Based on test results)

A

C

32
Q

Gestational diabetes mellitus

A. Statistical abnormality (Gaussian distribution)
B. Statistical abnormality (Percentile)
C. Abnormality associated with risk (Risk factor)
D. Therapeutic abnormality (Based on what is treatable)
E. Diagnostic abnormality (Based on test results)

A

D

33
Q

Birth weight > 4500g, asymptomatic term baby

A. Statistical abnormality (Gaussian distribution)
B. Statistical abnormality (Percentile)
C. Abnormality associated with risk (Risk factor)
D. Therapeutic abnormality (Based on what is treatable)
E. Diagnostic abnormality (Based on test results)

A

C

34
Q

Reduced glutathione levels of 20 mg/dl

A. Statistical abnormality (Gaussian distribution)
B. Statistical abnormality (Percentile)
C. Abnormality associated with risk (Risk factor)
D. Therapeutic abnormality (Based on what is treatable)
E. Diagnostic abnormality (Based on test results)

A

E

35
Q

Presence of malignant cells in a biopsy specimen

A. Statistical abnormality (Gaussian distribution)
B. Statistical abnormality (Percentile)
C. Abnormality associated with risk (Risk factor)
D. Therapeutic abnormality (Based on what is treatable)
E. Diagnostic abnormality (Based on test results)

A

E

36
Q

Presence of comedones and acne

A. Statistical abnormality (Gaussian distribution)
B. Statistical abnormality (Percentile)
C. Abnormality associated with risk (Risk factor)
D. Therapeutic abnormality (Based on what is treatable)
E. Diagnostic abnormality (Based on test results)

A

D

37
Q

IQ > 140

A. Statistical abnormality (Gaussian distribution)
B. Statistical abnormality (Percentile)
C. Abnormality associated with risk (Risk factor)
D. Therapeutic abnormality (Based on what is treatable)
E. Diagnostic abnormality (Based on test results)

A

A

38
Q

Newborn screen positive for congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A. Statistical abnormality (Gaussian distribution)
B. Statistical abnormality (Percentile)
C. Abnormality associated with risk (Risk factor)
D. Therapeutic abnormality (Based on what is treatable)
E. Diagnostic abnormality (Based on test results)

A

E

39
Q
Study design that may be used to document treatment effect.
A.	Case report / case series
B.	Cross sectional study
C.	Cohort study
D.	Only a and c are correct
E.	All of the above are correct
A

D

40
Q

Study design which has the least biased evaluation of treatment effect.
A. Randomized controlled trial
B. Clinical trial
C. Randomized, double blind, placebo controlled trial
D. Only a and c are correct
E. All of the above are correct

A

C

41
Q
Study design used to evaluate treatment effect without a control group.
A.	Case report
B.	Cross sectional study
C.	Case series
D.	Only a and c are correct
E.	All of the above are correct
A

D

42
Q
Main disadvantage is the presence of systematic differences in the treatment groups.
A.	Case report
B.	Case series
C.	Cohort study
D.	Only a and c are correct
E.	All of the above are correct
A

C

43
Q
Main use is the documentation of applicability of results to rare diseases.
A.	Case report
B.	Cohort study
C.	Case series
D.	Only a and c are correct
E.	All the above are correct
A

D

44
Q
Assignment of treatment is by chance.
A.	Random allocation
B.	Matching 
C.	Systematic allocation
D.	Only a and c are correct
A

A

45
Q

True about using MATCHING in a Case-Control study design:
A. Required sample size is bigger compared to a non-matched design
B. You can still analyze the relationship of the matching variable to the outcome or disease being studied
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above

A

D

46
Q

True about risk ratio in an exposure-disease outcome study EXCEPT:
A. An RR of 1.5 means that there is 50% probability of developing the disease if the risk factor is present
B. An RR of 1.5 means that there is a 1.5 fold risk of developing the disease if the risk factor is present
C. An RR of 1.5 means that there is 150% probability of developing the disease if the risk factor is present

A

B

47
Q
The disadvantages of using cohort design for studying risk:
A.	Expensive
B.	Results not available for a long time
C.	Cannot be used for rare diseases
D.	All of the above
E.	A and B only
A

D

48
Q

In a case control study design:
A. Incident cases are better than prevalent cases
B. Concurrent cohort is better than historical cohort
C. Both are true
D. None of the above

A

C

49
Q

Case-Control study design in the study of risk factors for diseases:
A. Outcome or disease is present at start of the study
B. Risk ratio can be computed directly with this design
C. Odds ratio can always be used to approximate the risk ratio
D. All of the above

A

A

50
Q
To determine how many times more likely are exposed persons to become diseased relative to non-exposed, you would calculate for:
A.	Population attributable risk		
B.	Relative risk		
C.	Attributable risk
D.	Population attributable fraction
E.	Odds ratio
A

B

51
Q
Study design to determine if excessive use of cell phones can lead to brain tumor 
	A. Case Series
	B. Case Control
	C. Cohort
	D. Randomized Clinical Trial
	E. Cross-sectional survey
A

B

52
Q
72.	The best observational analytical design to show that use of “Statins”, a cholesterol lowering drug can be beneficial in preventing Parkinson’s Disease, a degenerative movement disorder.
	A. Case Series
	B. Case Control
	C. Cohort
	D. Randomized Clinical Trial
A

D

53
Q
73.	An analytical design to prove that habitual excessive snoring of a bed partner can lead to deafness.
	A. Case Series
	B. Case Control
	C. Cohort
	D. Randomized Clinical Trial
	E. Cross-sectional survey
A

C

54
Q
74.	This type of clinical prevention involves exposing individuals to a weakened form of a pathogen in order to develop resistance against  disease:
A.	Chemoprevention
B.	Behavioral counselling
C.	Immunization
D.	Screening
A

C

55
Q
75.	This type of clinical prevention involves subjecting individuals to specific tests in order to detect the presence of a disease or a condition:
A.	Screening
B.	Chemoprevention
C.	Behavioral counselling
D.	Immunization
A

A

56
Q
76.	Doing regular exercise and eating a  balanced diet is a form of:
A.	Primary Prevention
B.	Secondary Prevention
C.	Tertiary Prevention
D.	Behavioral change communication
A

A

57
Q
77.	The use of Pap smear tests to detect cervical cancer is a form of:
A.	Primary Prevention
B.	Secondary Prevention
C.	Tertiary Prevention
D.	Behavioral change communication
A

B

58
Q
78.	The administration of HPV vaccines is a form of:
A.	Primary Prevention
B.	Secondary Prevention
C.	Tertiary Prevention
D.	Screening
A

A

59
Q
79.	In the Philippines, the poor pay for health care by selling property, incurring loans or depending on relatives. This burden of suffering is best described as:
A.	Death 
B.	Disease
C.	Disability
D.	Dissatisfaction
E.	Destitution
A

E

60
Q
80.	The Philippines has among the highest maternal mortality rates in the Asean region. This burden of suffering is best described as:
A.	Death 
B.	Disease
C.	Disability
D.	Dissatisfaction
E.	Discomfort
A

A

61
Q
81.	The gold standard for diagnosing a certain cancer is surgical biopsy. However, government mandated the conduct of a simpler, yet less accurate test for screening. Assuming, budget was not an issue, what primary consideration could have led to this policy?
A.	Effectiveness
B.	Accuracy
C.	Affordability
D.	Labeling
E.	Safety
A

A

62
Q

Sensitivity analysis

A. comparison of rates and within subgroups
B. selecting one or more patients with the same characteristics for comparison for each patient in one group
C. limit the range of characteristics of patients in the study
D. best case /worst case scenario
E. equal chance to patient to fall into one or the other group

A

D

63
Q

Stratification

A. comparison of rates and within subgroups
B. selecting one or more patients with the same characteristics for comparison for each patient in one group
C. limit the range of characteristics of patients in the study
D. best case /worst case scenario
E. equal chance to patient to fall into one or the other group

A

A

64
Q

Randomization

A. comparison of rates and within subgroups
B. selecting one or more patients with the same characteristics for comparison for each patient in one group
C. limit the range of characteristics of patients in the study
D. best case /worst case scenario
E. equal chance to patient to fall into one or the other group

A

E

65
Q

Restriction

A. comparison of rates and within subgroups
B. selecting one or more patients with the same characteristics for comparison for each patient in one group
C. limit the range of characteristics of patients in the study
D. best case /worst case scenario
E. equal chance to patient to fall into one or the other group

A

C

66
Q

Matching

A. comparison of rates and within subgroups
B. selecting one or more patients with the same characteristics for comparison for each patient in one group
C. limit the range of characteristics of patients in the study
D. best case /worst case scenario
E. equal chance to patient to fall into one or the other group

A

B

67
Q
  1. Evidence-based medicine is the application of clinical epidemiology to the care of patients
A

T

68
Q
  1. EBM includes formulating specific clinical questions, finding the best available evidence, judging the strength of evidence and actual use of this information in the care of patients.
A

T

69
Q
  1. External validity is also called at times, generalizability, meaning results of the study are true only for the sample population.
A

F

70
Q
  1. Shared Decision making means all the members of the health team decide on the management of a particular patient.
A

T

71
Q
  1. There is still room for expert opinion in clinical epidemiology and evidence-based medicine.
A

T