2007 Paper B Flashcards
Which of the following is not a typical clinical feature of severe intrauterine cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection?
A. Anaemia.
B. Cataracts.
C. Chorioretinitis.
D. Hepatosplenomegaly.
E. Intrauterine growth restriction.
B. Cataracts.
CID is characterized by intrauterine growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, hematological abnormalities (particularly thrombocytopenia), and various cutaneous manifestations, including petechiae and purpura (ie, blueberry muffin baby). However, the most significant manifestations of CID involve the CNS. Microcephaly, ventriculomegaly, cerebral atrophy, chorioretinitis, and sensorineural hearing loss are the most common neurological consequences of CID.
If primary maternal infection occurs during pregnancy, the average rate of transmission to the fetus is 40%; approximately 65% of these infants have cytomegalovirus disease at birth. With recurrent maternal infection (ie, cytomegalovirus infection that occurs in the context of preconceptual immunity), the risk of transmission to the fetus is lower, ranging from 0.5-1.5%
A previously well seven-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with a four day history of fever and sore throat, lethargy and two days of dyspnoea and a macular rash on her palms and soles. On examination her heart rate is 160, temperature 38.6°c, respiratory rate of 60, blood pressure of 70/55 and oxygen saturation of 92% on room air. On examination she is pale and looks unwell with cool peripheries and panting respirations. Her chest radiograph is shown below.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Atypical pneumonia.
B. Mediastinal mass.
C. Myocarditis.
D. Pneumomediastinum.
E. Pneumonitis.
C. Myocarditis.
In the secondary prevention of rheumatic fever which of the following is the current recommended regime?
A. Intramuscular penicillin.
B. Intravenous amoxicillin with febrile illness.
C. Oral amoxicillin with febrile illness.
D. Oral erythromycin, twice daily.
E. Oral penicillin V, twice daily.
A. Intramuscular penicillin.
A six-year-old girl presents with enuresis. She has never been reliably dry at night. She also has problems with daytime wetting. Her underpants are often damp, and she has urgency and frequency. Examination and urinalysis are normal.
Which treatment is most likely to be effective?
A. Bladder training exercises.
B. DDAVP.
C. Laxatives.
D. Oxybutinin.
E. Pad + bell.
D. Oxybutinin.
A 15-year-old girl presents with a history of deterioration of night vision and peripheral vision. Her past history includes mild global developmental delay, obesity and surgery in infancy for 4-limb post-axial polydactyly. Eye examination reveals a pigmentary retinopathy.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. autosomal recessive retinitis pigmentosa.
B. bardet-biedl syndrome.
C. choroideraemia.
D. McKusick-kaufman syndrome.
E. refsum disease.
B. bardet-biedl syndrome.
Retinitis pigmentosa -
- progressive degeneration and dysfunction of the retina, primarily affecting photoreceptor and pigment epithelial function.
- Night and peripheral vision are lost progressively, leading to a constricted visual field and markedly diminished vision in some patients.
_Bardet-Biedl syndrome _
- autosomal recessive
- obesity
- hypogenitalism in men,
- mental retardation,
- retinal dystrophy,
- polydactyly,
- renal malformations (particularly calyceal abnormalities),
- hypertension
- and, over time, progressive chronic kidney disease.
Choroideremia is an x-linked recessive retinal degenerative disease.
McKusick-Kaufman
- affects the development of the hands and feet, heart, and reproductive system.
- characterized by a combination of three features:
- polydactyly
- heart defects, and
- genital abnormalities.
Refsum Disease
- Peroxisomal disorder. Classic Refsum disease is characterized by the presence of four clinical abnormalities:
- Retinitis pigmentosa
- Peripheral polyneuropathy
- Cerebellar ataxia
- Elevated cerebrospinal fluid protein concentration (100 to 600 mg/dL) without an increase in cells
A four-week-old boy presents with persistent abdominal distension and infrequent bowel motions. He is exclusively breast-fed but is vomiting after most feeds. His weight gain is slow. On rectal examination he empties faecal fluid and air under pressure. An abdominal X-ray shows occasional small intestinal air-fluid levels and a distended colon.
Which diagnostic test will most likely reveal the correct diagnosis?
A. Barium meal.
B. Computed tomography scan.
C. Gas enema.
D. Nuclear medicine intestinal transit scan.
E. Rectal suction biopsy.
E. Rectal suction biopsy.
Features: constipation, partial obstruction (air fluid levels), dilated colon - hirschprungs therefore biopsy
A seven-year-old boy presents with a six month history of episodes occurring in sleep. The events occur in the early morning and wake him. During an episode, he is able to walk into his parent’s room, but is unable to speak. His parents have noticed that during an episode he has “spasms” of the right side of his face with marked salivation. He is able to describe tingling of his tongue after the event. An electroencephalogram (EEG) is performed and is shown below.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Absence epilepsy.
B. Benign partial epilepsy of childhood.
C. Frontal lobe epilepsy.
D. Parasomnia.
E. Temporal lobe epilepsy.
.
B. Benign partial epilepsy of childhood.
Benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (BECTS) - Most common. Typically starts during childhood and is outgrown in adolescence. The child typically wakes up at night owing to a simple partial seizure causing buccal and throat tingling and tonic or clonic contractions of one side of the face, with drooling and inability to speak but with preserved consciousness and comprehension. Complex partial and secondary generalized seizures can also occur. EEG shows typical broad-based centrotemporal spikes that are markedly increased in frequency during drowsiness and sleep. MRI is normal. Patients respond very well to AEDs such as carbamazepine. In some patients who only have rare and mild seizures treatment might not be needed.
Absence Seizures
Typical absence seizures usually start at 5-8 yr of age and are often, owing to their brevity, overlooked by parents for many months even though they can occur up to hundreds of times per day. Unlike complex partial seizures they do not have an aura, usually last for only a few seconds, and are accompanied by flutter or upward rolling of the eyes but typically not by automatisms of the complex partial seizure type (absence seizures can have simple automatisms like lip-smacking or picking at clothing and the head can minimally fall forward). Absence seizures do not have a postictal period and are characterized by immediate resumption of what the patient was doing before the seizure. Hyperventilation for 3-5 min can precipitate the seizures and the accompanying 3 Hz spike–and–slow wave discharges. The presence of periorbital, lid, perioral or limb myoclonic jerks with the typical absence usually predicts difficulty in controlling the seizures with medication.
Atypical absence seizures have associated myoclonic components and tone changes of the head and body and are also usually more difficult to treat. They are precipitated by drowsiness and are usually accompanied by 1-2 Hz spike–and–slow wave discharges.
Juvenile absence seizures are similar to typical absences but occur at a later age and are accompanied by 4-6 Hz spike–and–slow wave and polyspike–and–slow wave discharges. These are usually associated with juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.
Nocturnal autosomal dominant frontal lobe epilepsy has been linked to acetylcholine-receptor gene mutations and manifests with nocturnal seizures with dystonic posturing that respond promptly to carbamazepine. Several other less-frequent familial benign epilepsy syndromes with different localizations have also been described, some of which occur exclusively or predominantly in adults.
Parasomnias are defined as episodic nocturnal behaviors that often involve cognitive disorientation and autonomic and skeletal muscle disturbance. Parasomnias may be further characterized as occurring primarily during NREM sleep (partial arousal parasomnias) or in association with REM sleep, including nightmares, hypnogogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis; other common parasomnias include sleep-talking.
Temporal Lobe Epilepsy - Activation of temporal discharges in sleep can lead to loss of speech and verbal auditory agnosia (Landau-Kleffner epileptic aphasia syndrome).
A test has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 90%. It is used to screen the general population for a condition that has a prevalence of 1 in 100,000.
What will the positive predictive value be nearest to?
A. 0.01%.
B. 0.05%.
C. 0.1%.
D. 0.5%.
E. 1%.
A. 0.01%.
A four-year-old boy is referred because of the development of pubic hair. On examination he has Tanner stage 3 pubic hair. His testes are 2 ml in volume bilaterally. Investigations are as follows:
- Testosterone level: 7.8 nmol/l [< 1.8 mmol/l]
- Bone age: 7 years
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Central precocious puberty.
B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
C. Craniopharyngioma.
D. Cushing syndrome.
E. Premature adrenarche.
B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
Can’t be central as testes aren’t stimulated to produce testostérone therefore needs to be exogenous source ie CAH producing testosterone
Central precocious puberty is early breast or testicular development (testes not developed in this case)
CAH :
Girls will usually have normal female reproductive organs (ovaries, uterus, and fallopian tubes). They may also have the following changes:
- Abnormal menstrual periods
- Deep voice
- Early appearance of pubic and armpit hair
- Excessive hair growth and facial hair
- Failure to menstruate
- Genitals that look both male and female (ambiguous genitalia), often appearing more male than female
Boys won’t have any obvious problems at birth. However, they may appear to enter puberty as early as 2 - 3 years of age. Changes may include:
- Deep voice
- Early appearance of pubic and armpit hair
- Early development of male characteristics
- Enlarged penis
- Small testes
- Well-developed muscles
Craniopharyngioma – multiple deficiencies
A full-term neonate is born following a pregnancy complicated by polyhydramnios. The baby was hydropic, and died at six hours of age.
Which one of the following is least likely to have caused this?
A. Alpha-thalassaemia.
B. Beta-thalassaemia.
C. Blackfan-Diamond anaemia.
D. Fetal parvovirus B19 infection.
E. Rh disease of the newborn.
B. Beta-thalassaemia.
Thalassaemias: prenatally, fetus with α-thalassaemia may become symptomatic because HbF requires sufficiency α-globin gene production, whereas postnatally infants with β-thalassaemia become symptomatic because HbA requires adequate production of β-globin genes
Blackfan-Diamond: haematopoesis usually adequate in fetal life but some are pale at birth, hydrops fetalis occurs but is rare
A seven-year-old boy is presented with a slowly evolving history of frequent and excessive checking of locks around the house at night, lining up his toys and books in his bedroom and hoarding paper and string. These new symptoms are distressing for him and may preoccupy him for one to two hours every day.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. asperger syndrome.
B. depressive disorder.
C. generalised anxiety disorder.
D. obsessive compulsive disorder.
E. schizophrenia.
D. obsessive compulsive disorder.
A five-year-old boy presents with multiple ulcerated skin lesions (as shown) with raised margins, which commenced as pustular lesions associated with fever a week prior to presentation. Pyoderma gangrenosum is confirmed by skin biopsy.
Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this skin lesion?
A. Chronic granulomatous disease.
B. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection.
C. Inflammatory bowel disease.
D. Pseudomonas septicaemia.
E. Systemic lupus erythematosis.
C. Inflammatory bowel disease.
You attend the delivery of a term female infant born to an intravenous drug user. The mother’s antenatal screening revealed that she was positive for hepatitis C and hepatitis B surface antigen. She was HIV negative. The management of this infant should include:
A. administration of hepatitis B vaccination.
B. administration of both hepatitis B vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin.
C. check liver function tests and serology of the infant within 24 hours.
D. withhold hepatitis B vaccination and screen the infant for seroconversion in 12 months time after disappearance of maternal antibody.
E. exclusion of breast milk from the diet.
B. administration of both hepatitis B vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin.
A cystic lung lesion is diagnosed antenatally on routine ultrasound. After birth a CXR was performed and was normal.
The most appropriate next step is:
A. bronchoscopy.
B. chest X-ray.
C. CT angiography.
D. high resolution CT of chest.
E. ventilation/Perfusion scan.
D. high resolution CT of chest.
A well eight-week-old infant girl is referred because an antenatal ultrasound scan at 34 weeks gestation showed that the right kidney contained several cysts. The left kidney was normal. A postnatal scan confirmed that the left kidney is large but normal whereas the right kidney contains multiple cysts without normal intervening parenchyma.
The most likely long term outcome of multicystic dysplastic kidney is:
A well eight-week-old infant girl is referred because an antenatal ultrasound scan at 34 weeks gestation showed that the right kidney contained several cysts. The left kidney was normal. A postnatal scan confirmed that the left kidney is large but normal whereas the right kidney contains multiple cysts without normal intervening parenchyma.
The most likely long term outcome of multicystic dysplastic kidney is:
A. normal renal function.
B. recurrent haematuria.
C. recurrent urine infections.
D. systemic hypertension.
E. Wilms tumour in the cystic kidney.
A. normal renal function.
A six-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with acute urinary retention requiring urgent catheterisation. He has been previously well, but his parents state that he has complained of leg and lower abdominal pain for the last three days and has been walking ‘a bit funny’. On examination he is alert and cooperative with normal upper limb power, reflexes and light touch sensation. He has a broad based gait and is unable to arise from a squatting position without assistance. His lower limb reflexes are difficult to elicit and sensation is reduced in a patchy fashion in both lower limbs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Conversion disorder.
B. Guillain-Barré syndrome.
C. Multiple sclerosis.
D. Poliomyelitis.
E. Transverse myelitis.
E. Transverse myelitis.
Transverse Myelitis - Rapid development of both motor and sensory deficits. It has multiple causes and tends to occur in 2 distinct contexts. Small children, 3 yr of age and younger, develop spinal cord dysfunction over hours to a few days. They have a history of an infectious disease, usually of viral origin, or of an immunization within the few weeks preceding the 1st development of their neurologic difficulties. The clinical loss of function is often severe and may seem complete. Although a slow recovery is common in these cases, it is likely to be incomplete. The likelihood of independent ambulation in these small children is about 40%. The pathologic findings of perivascular infiltration with mononuclear cells imply an infectious or inflammatory basis. Overt necrosis of spinal cord can be seen.
In older children, the syndrome is somewhat different. Although the onset is also rapid with a nadir in neurologic function occurring between 2 days and 2 wk, recovery is more rapid and more likely to be complete. Pathologic or imaging examination shows acute demyelination.
Guillain-Barre - The paralysis usually follows a nonspecific viral infection by about 10 days. Weakness usually begins in the lower extremities and progressively involves the trunk, the upper limbs, and finally the bulbar muscles, a pattern known as Landry ascending paralysis. Proximal and distal muscles are involved relatively symmetrically, but asymmetry is found in 9% of patients. The onset is gradual and progresses over days or weeks. Particularly in cases with an abrupt onset, tenderness on palpation and pain in muscles is common in the initial stages. Affected children are irritable. Weakness can progress to inability or refusal to walk and later to flaccid tetraplegia. Paresthesias occur in some cases.
Multiple Sclerosis - Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic demyelinating disorder of the brain, spinal cord and optic nerves characterized by a relapsing-remitting course of neurologic episodes separated in time and space. Presenting symptoms in pediatric MS include hemiparesis or paraparesis, unilateral or bilateral optic neuritis, focal sensory loss, ataxia, diplopia, dysarthria, or bowel/bladder dysfunction.
Poliomyelitis - Virus attacks anterior spinal cord so only motor affected. Weakness may vary from one muscle or group of muscles, to quadriplegia, and respiratory failure. Tone is reduced, nearly always in an asymmetric manner. Proximal muscles usually are affected more than distal muscles, and legs more commonly than arms. Reflexes are decreased or absent. The sensory examination is almost always normal.
Weakness typically worsens over two to three days, although sometimes worsening can progress for up to a week. Bulbar involvement occurs in 5 to 35 percent of patients, producing dysphagia, dysarthria, and difficulty handling secretions. There may be encephalitis, usually in infancy. Respiratory insufficiency may occur.
Brown-Sequard Syndrome (for interest)
The Brown-Séquard syndrome is characterized by ipsilateral loss of motor function, vibration, and proprioception below the level of the lesion with contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation beginning approximately two levels below the lesion. This pattern of deficits occurs because the spinothalamic tract travels on the ipsilateral side of the cord before crossing over to the contralateral side. In addition, ipsilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation may occur at one or two levels below the lesion.
A 27-week-female infant develops abdominal distension and increasing ventilatory requirements at four days of age. Abdominal x-rays are taken and shown below.
he most likely cause is:
A. duodenal atresia.
B. hirshsprungs disease.
C. ileal perforation.
D. meconium ileus.
E. volvulus.
C. ileal perforation.
An eight-year-old male presents to the emergency room with severe leg pain, predominantly in the calf muscles after an upper respiratory tract infection three days previously.
On examination, he is unable to walk but is otherwise well. He complains of pain during the examination.
Investigations show a creatine kinase of 2000 iu/l [40-240 iu/l]. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Dermatomyositis
B. Guillain-Barré syndrome.
C. McArdle disease.
D. Myositis.
E. Rhabdomyolysis.
D. Myositis.
Typical story for benign acute childhood myositis → URTI symptoms followed by calf pain, otherwise normal examination, markedly raised CK, improves by a week
- The onset of pain tended to occur after a period of rest— that is, on awakening
- The vast majority of children tested had a raised CK
- In many cases this was massively elevated, however none of the children tested had evidence of rhabdomyolysis—that is, myoglobin in urine.
- Other less consistent laboratory findings are leucopenia, thrombocytopenia, and elevated serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT).
- Neurology is reported as normal and it has been suggested that mild calf weakness is due to muscle pain rather than true inability of muscle to generate power.
- Muscle studies have been performed relatively infre- quently in view of the short duration of symptoms and the benign prognosis. When electromyograms have been recorded they have either been normal or suggested patchy myopathic changes.The few muscles biopsies taken have been reported as normal, or said to demonstrate myositis, segmental rhabdomyolysis, or moderate muscle necrosis with interstitial inflammation.
A 12-year-old boy presents with a two day history of severe right iliac fossa pain. The illness started with vomiting, as well as high fevers and diarrhoea. On examination, he is tender in the right iliac fossa, with the remainder of the physical examination unremarkable.
Which of the following organisms is most likely to cause this clinical picture?
A. Aeromononas hydrophila.
B. Campylobacter jejuni.
C. Enterococcus faecalis.
D. Salmonella typhi.
E. Yersinia enterocolitica.
E. Yersinia enterocolitica.
A 2 1⁄2 -year-old boy presents for developmental assessment. He has only a few single words, but babbles extensively and uses some jargon. His parents feel he can follow some directions; however he is unable to point to body parts. He takes his parents by the hand and leads them to things he wants. He has no pretend play, and does not interact with other children. He is very active. He can run, jump, climb and take off his clothes. He is easily frustrated, and screams, hits and bites when upset.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Autism.
B. Autistic disorder.
C. Developmental language disorder
D. Intellectual disability
E. Sensorineural hearing impairment
D. Intellectual disability
An eight-year-old boy is referred for evaluation of wheezing which had been present on a monthly basis over the previous year. Physical examination was normal as was his chest X-ray.
His spirometry results were as follows:
- Forced Vital Capacity (FVC ) 70% of predicted
- Forced Vital Capacity in 1 second (FVC) 79% of predicted
- Forced Expiratory Flow 25%-75% (FEF25%-75% ) 74% of predicted.
This spirometric pattern is most suggestive of which of the following?
A. Lower airway obstruction.
B. Poor technique.
C. Respiratory muscle weakness.
D. Restrictive pattern.
E. Upper airway obstruction.
B. Poor technique.
A two-year-old girl returns from child care after an apparently ordinary day. When her mother undresses her for her bath she notices blood in the girl’s underwear. The mother examines the girl’s genital region and notices the findings in the photograph.
What is most likely the cause of the girl’s genital bleeding?
A. Accidental “fall astride” injury.
B. Congenital haemangioma of the labia
C. Lichen sclerosis et atrophicus.
D. Sexual abuse.
E. Traumatic separation of labial adhesions.
A. Accidental “fall astride” injury.
A three-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance with sudden onset of stridor, barking cough and hoarse voice. His oxygen saturation in the ambulance was 88% in air. On arrival he is sitting on his mother’s lap looking anxious, pale and sweaty. He has a loud stridor at rest with marked tracheal tug, intercostal recession and subcostal indrawing.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Intramuscular Adrenaline.
B. Intravenous Dexamethasone.
C. Nebulised Adrenaline.
D. Nebulised Budesonide.
E. Oral Dexamethasone.
C. Nebulised Adrenaline.
Croup
Mild – single dose oral dex, home
Moderate – oral dex, observe
Severe – adrenaline nebulised 1% solution 0.05mL/kg made to 4mL with N/saline and give with O2, single dose oral steroids, consider IV dexamethasone 0.6mg/kg
A two-year-old boy is found to have severe bilateral sensorineural deafness. There is no family history of note. On examination, he has partial heterochromia iridis, white eyelashes, a broad nasal bridge with telecanthus, and several depigmented patches on his trunk and limbs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Branchio-oto-renal syndrome.
B. Oculo-cutaneous albinism.
C. Pendred syndrome.
D. Tuberous sclerosis.
E. Waardenburg syndrome.
E. Waardenburg syndrome.
Waardenburg syndrome is a group of genetic conditions that can cause hearing loss and changes in coloring (pigmentation) of the hair, skin, and eyes. Although most people with Waardenburg syndrome have normal hearing, moderate to profound hearing loss can occur in one or both ears. People with this condition often have very pale blue eyes or different colored eyes, such as one blue eye and one brown eye. Sometimes one eye has segments of two different colors. Distinctive hair coloring (such as a patch of white hair or hair that prematurely turns gray) is another common sign of the condition.
Branchio-oto-renal syndrome (BOR), also known as branciootorenal syndrome or BOR syndrome, is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder involving the kidneys, ears, and neck.
Individiduals with BOR may have underdeveloped (hypoplastic) or absent kidneys with resultant renal insufficiency or renal failure.
Ear anomalies include extra openings in front of the ears (preauricular pits), extra pieces of skin in front of the ears (preauricular tags), or further malformation or absence of the outer ear (pinna). Malformation or absence of the middle ear is also possible. Individuals can have mild to profound hearing loss, which can either be sensorineural, conductive, or mixed. People with BOR may also have cysts or fistulae along the sides of their neck corresponding to the location of the embryologic branchial clefts.
Oculocutaneous albinism is a group of conditions that affect coloring (pigmentation) of the skin, hair, and eyes. Affected individuals typically have very fair skin and white or light-colored hair. Long-term sun exposure greatly increases the risk of skin damage and skin cancers, including an aggressive form of skin cancer called melanoma, in people with this condition. Oculocutaneous albinism also reduces pigmentation of the colored part of the eye (the iris) and the light-sensitive tissue at the back of the eye (the retina). People with this condition usually have vision problems such as reduced sharpness; rapid, involuntary eye movements (nystagmus); and increased sensitivity to light (photophobia). 4 types.
Pendred syndrome is a disorder typically associated with hearing loss and a goiter.
A three-month-old male boy presents with a four week history of persistent crying and frequent vomiting after most feeds. The infant is predominantly breast-fed. Occasional supplemental cow milk formula feeds were commenced from eight weeks of age because his mother returned to part-time work. The infant is generally well and passes four soft bowel motions per day, with increased mucus but no visible blood. Over the past two months his weight has fallen from the 50th to the 25th weight- for-age percentile.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cow milk protein intolerance.
B. Gastro-oesophageal reflux.
C. Infantile colic.
D. Lactose intolerance.
E. Pyloric stenosis.
A. Cow milk protein intolerance.
Which of the following observations regarding a rare disorder would provide the best evidence of autosomal dominant inheritance?
A. Father and son affected.
B. Father and daughter affected.
C. Mother and son affected.
D. Mother and daughter affected.
E. Male and female cousins affected.
A. Father and son affected.
An otherwise healthy four-year-old without drug allergies is admitted with the chest X-ray shown below.
Empiric treatment is initiated with Benzylpenicillin. By the second hospital day the patient is improving and the microbiology laboratory reports that a blood culture is growing Streptococcus pneumoniae with a penicillin MIC = 0.2 μg/mL (intermediate) and resistant to erythromycin.
Which one of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to continue therapy?
A. Amoxicillin-clavulinic acid.
B. Azithromycin.
C. Cefotaxime.
D. Penicillin.
E. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
D. Penicillin.
An immediate generalised reaction to which of the following drugs is most likely to be mediated by IgE (immunoglobulin E)?
A. Aspirin.
B. Cephalothin.
C. Dextran.
D. Radiographic contrast media.
E. Vancomycin.
B. Cephalothin.
A 15-year-old girl with known anorexia nervosa is brought to the Emergency Department following a collapse at school. On examination she is alert and orientated but feels faint when standing. She is clinically dehydrated with dry mucous membranes, reduced tissue turgor and reduced urine output. Her heart rate is 45, respiratory rate 30, temperature of 35.5 and blood pressure of 90/65. Her blood chemistry is shown below.
Which of the following would be the electrocardiogram?
A. Elevation ST segment.
B. Peaked T-waves.
C. Reduced PR interval.
D. Shortened QT interval.
E. U-waves.
E. U-waves.
Hypokalaemia: flattened or inverted T waves, a U wave, ST depression and a wide PR interval.
Hyperkalaemia: reduction of the size of the P wave and development of peaked T waves. Severe hyperkalemia results in a widening of the QRS complex, and ECG complex can evolve to a sinusoidal shape. Faster repolarization of the cardiac action potential causes the tenting of the T waves, and the inactivation of sodium channels causes a sluggish conduction of the electrical wave around the heart, which leads to smaller P waves and widening of the QRS complex
A neonate, born at 36-weeks to a Sudanese mother presents on day eight of life with apnoea and seizures. The baby had a birth weight of 2.4kg and has been fully breastfed. Investigations done at the time of a seizure are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the seizures?
A. Excessive phosphate in milk.
B. Maternal diabetes.
C. Maternal hyperparathyroidism.
D. Maternal Vitamin D deficiency.
E. Prematurity.
D. Maternal Vitamin D deficiency.
A four-year-old boy is referred for evaluation of a history of easy bruising before planned tonsillectomy for recurrent tonsillitis. He had an uncomplicated circumcision in the neonatal period. His mother reports that she had a post-partum haemorrhage requiring transfusion and tends to bruise easily herself. There is no other family history of note. A full blood count is normal. Coagulation screen demonstrates a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) with a normal international normalized ratio (INR).
Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Factor VIII deficiency.
B. Factor V Leiden.
C. Lupus anticoagulant.
D. Protein S deficiency.
E. Vitamin K deficiency.
C. Lupus anticoagulant.
Factor V Leiden, lupus anticoag, protein S deficiency all are procoagulants
Factor VIII (haemophilia A) unlikely as would have bled with circumcision
Vit K would make INR abnormal
INR – extrinsic (II, VII, IX, X)
APTT – intrinsic (VIII, IX, XI, XII)
Lupus anticoagulant (also known as lupus antibody, LA, or lupus inhibitors, antiphospholipid antibody syndrome) is an immunoglobulin[1] that binds to phospholipids and proteins associated with the cell membrane. Lupus anticoagulant is actually a prothrombotic agent, that is, presence of Lupus anticoagulant antibodies precipitates the formation of thrombi in vivo. Their name derives from their properties in vitro, since in laboratory tests, presence of these antibodies causes an increase in aPTT, doesn’t correct with 50:50 mix
Hypercoaguable with excess bleeding
A five-year-old boy is brought in by ambulance. He is sitting forward, drooling and looks pale and anxious. He has an audible stridor and his saturation on room air is 99%. He intermittently gags and dry retches and during these episodes his saturations fall to 82%. His chest radiograph is shown below.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Gaseous induction and examination under anaesthesia.
B. Intravenous Adrenaline
C. Nebulised Adrenaline.
D. Nebulised Budesonide.
E. Rapid sequence induction and examination under anesthesia.
A. Gaseous induction and examination under anaesthesia.
A seven-year-old girl is seen with a history of polyuria and polydipsia. She has been unwell with a fever and vomiting for a week. There is no family history of diabetes. Investigations confirm she has Type 1 diabetes and hypothyroidism.
Which of the following conditions is she most likely to develop in the future?
A. Addison disease.
B. Coeliac disease.
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Polycystic ovary disease.
E. Systemic lupus erythematosus.
B. Coeliac disease.
4-10% of those with T1DM will have celiac (usu prev 1%)
Autoimmune conditions are:
- Thyroid – 4% (more have thyroid Ab but don’t actually develop disease – 25%)
- Celiac – 6% (12% have antibody)
- Pernicious anaemia 2.6%
- Addisions 0.5%
A six-year-old girl presents to her paediatrician with irritability and unsteadiness. On questioning there is a seven week history of double vision and ataxia. Cranial nerve exam shows a left abducens nerve palsy with mild right facial weakness. She has very brisk reflexes with bilaterally upgoing plantar responses. MRI scan of her brain is performed and shown below.
The MRI is most consistent with:
A. brain abscess.
B. cerebellitis.
C. craniopharyngioma
D. disseminated encephalomyelitis.
E. glioma.
E. glioma.
CLINICAL PRESENTATION — Diffuse pontine gliomas can present with varied symptoms depending on the location of the lesion. These include:
- Cranial nerve palsies, long tract signs (eg, hemiparesis) and ataxia in over 50 percent of patients. Cranial nerves VI and VII are most commonly affected but III, IV, IX and X may also be involved.
- Hydrocephalus with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) is observed in fewer than 10 percent of patients at presentation.
- Intratumoral hemorrhage can be present in about 6 percent of patients at the time of diagnosis [23]. Symptomatic hemorrhage may eventually occur in up to 20 percent of children, usually in necrotic areas of tumor.
None of these symptoms is pathognomonic of diffuse pontine gliomas. Other brainstem tumors can present with similar symptoms.
- Cervicomedullary tumors typically present with lower cranial nerve dysfunction and ataxia.
- Focal tumors tend to interfere with the cranial nerves adjacent to the site of origin.
- Unlike other brainstem tumors, tectal plate lesions present with hydrocephalus in over 90 percent of cases. Although these tumors are rarely biopsied, those that have been studied are almost always low-grade astrocytomas.
A six-month-old breastfed girl developed wheeze, profuse vomiting, generalised rash and angio- oedema within minutes of ingestion of her second complement feed of 150ml cow’s milk based formula. Her first feed was given a week prior without problems. A skin prick allergy test was positive for cow’s milk and egg.
By the age of three-years, what is the likelihood that she will be able to tolerate normal cow’s milk ingestion?
A. 10%.
B. 25%.
C. 50%.
D. 75%.
E. 95%.
D. 75%.
A two-year-old child became unwell with fever and irritability. After two days, he developed a rash. The fever settled over the next day, and the rash evolved as shown in the photograph below.
Which of the following most commonly causes secondary skin infection in this condition?
A. Haemophilus influenzae.
B. Pseudomonas aerunginosa.
C. Staphyloccus epidermidis.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E. Streptococcus pyogenes.
E. Streptococcus pyogenes.
A six-year-old girl is referred with poor weight gain and chronic diarrhoea. Which of the following has the highest positive predictive value for coeliac disease?
A. IgA AGA (Immunoglobulin A Antigliadin Antibody).
B. IgG AGA (Immunoglobulin G Antigliadin Antibody).
C. IgA AntiTTG (Immunoglobulin A Anti Tissue Transglutaminase).
D. IgG AntiTTG (Immunoglobulin G Anti Tissue Transglutaminase).
E. HLA (Human Leucocyte Antigen) DQ2 Typing.
C. IgA AntiTTG (Immunoglobulin A Anti Tissue Transglutaminase).
The commonest pattern of asthma in early childhood is infrequent episodic, characterised by acute episodes triggered by viruses, with few or no symptoms in between.
Which of the following preventer medication strategies is most appropriate?
A. Inhaled corticosteroids / long-acting beta agonist
B. Inhaled corticosteroids.
C. Inhaled long-acting beta agonist.
D. Inhaled non-steroidal antiinflammatory.
E. No preventer medication.
E. No preventer medication.
In children with autism which of the following symptoms responds best to the atypical antipsychotic risperidone?
A. Echolalia.
B. Inattention.
C. Obsessional behaviour.
D. Self-injurious behaviour
E. Socialisation.
D. Self-injurious behaviour
A 12-year-old boy is seen in the Emergency Department with a history of a few seconds of lightheadedness while walking in the hot sun. He was then observed to fall to the ground and was unresponsive for one minute. There is no history of chest pain, shortness of breath or palpitations. His 12 lead ECG is shown below.
The mechanism for the ECG changes is most likely to be anterograde conduction through:
A. an accessory AV pathway after conduction through the AV node.
B. an accessory AV pathway before conduction through the AV node.
C. an accessory AV pathway with no conduction through the AV node.
D. an accessory atrio-Hisian ( intranodal) pathway.
E. the AV node with retrograde conduction through an accessory pathway.
B. an accessory AV pathway before conduction through the AV node.
WPW is an accessory pathway without a rate limit like AV node. Depolarisation commences from SA node and travels through accessory pathway before conduction to AV node, causing slurred upstroke of QRS.
A four-year-old boy is referred to the Otorhinolaryngology clinic for assessment. The appearance of his left tympanic membrane on otoscopy is shown below.
In this disease, the most common presenting symptom or sign is:
A. dizziness.
B. facial palsy.
C. hearing loss.
D. otalgia.
E. otorrhea.
E. otorrhea.
A nine-month-old boy has the following immunoglobulin profile:
A history of which of the following infections would be most consistent with his underlying immune defect?
A. Disseminated varicella infection.
B. Persistent oral thrush.
C. Recurrent otitis media with discharge.
D. Recurrent perianal abscess.
E. Staphylococcal pneumonia.
C. Recurrent otitis media with discharge.
X-linked agammaglobulinaemia
- most boys well until 6-9mo (maternal IgG) then acquire infections with extracellular pyogenic organisms (Strep pneumoniae, Hib) unless given prophylactic antibiotics or IVIg therapy
- infections – sinusitis, OM, pneumonia, sepsis, meningitis (less common)
- also Mycoplasma, chronic fungal infections, Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumo RARE
- viral infections handled normally except hepatitis viruses and enteroviruses
- rarely: paralysis with live polio vaccine, CNS infections with echoviruses and coxsackieviruses, echovirus-associated myositis resembling dermatomyositis
- growth hormone deficiency can occur
- suspect if lymphoid hypoplasia on physical exam (no tonsils or lymph nodes) and serum conc of IgG, IgA, IgM and IgE are far below 95th CI with total Ig <100mg/dL
A six-year-old boy is referred for assessment of progressive unsteadiness of gait over the preceding year. Prior to the onset, his mother recalls that he had chicken pox. In other respects he has been well and there is no family history of similar problems. His examination was significant for gait ataxia and dysmetria. A photograph of his eye is shown below.
Which of the following investigations would be expected to be abnormal?
A. Alpha- fetoprotein.
B. Copper and caeruloplasmin.
C. Lysosomal enzymes.
D. Uric acid.
E. Vitamin E.
A. Alpha- fetoprotein.
The photograph shows oculocutaneous telangiectasias. This, combined with the history of progressive ataxia makes ataxia-telangiectasia most likely.
The telangiectasias are seen on the bulbal conjunctiva, over the bridge of the nose, on the ears and exposed surfaces of the extremities.
Lab findings include elevated levels of alpha feto-protein, increased incidence of chromosome breaks, and decreased IgA, IgG 2 and 4, and IgE levels (in >50% of patients).
Children have a 50-100 times increased risk of lymphoreticular tumours, and death results from infection or tumour dissemination. Ataxia begins approx age 2 and progresses to loss of ambulation by adolescence. Reference: Nelson’s 19th edition, pages 735, 2055
A six-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a persistent headache and dizziness following a minor fall one week previously in which there was no loss of consciousness. She has had several vomits today and feels unwell. On examination, she is afebrile with a respiratory rate of 24/minute, a heart rate of 110/minute and a blood pressure of 96/55 mmHg. She is pale and quiet but able to respond appropriately to questions and commands. There are no focal neurological signs. Her non-contrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head is shown below.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Extradural haematoma.
B. Intracerebral haemorrhage.
C. Meningioma.
D. Subarachnoid haematoma.
E. Subdural haematoma.
A. Extradural haematoma.
A six-month-old Samoan boy presents to his General Practitioner with a five day history of irritability and reduced movement of his left leg. His mother reports an incident one week previously when she slipped and fell while carrying him. On examination he is afebrile, crying and not moving his left leg. A soft tissue injury is diagnosed and simple analgesia recommended.
Three weeks later he presents to the Emergency Department. He has remained irritable and is still not moving his leg. He is flexed at the hip and slightly externally rotated. There is pain on passive extension of the left knee. The leg is swollen, warm to touch and tender to palpation. He remains afebrile. A plain X-ray of the left femur and tibia is shown below.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. inflicted injury.
B. osteoid osteoma.
C. osteomyelitis.
D. pathological fracture.
E. septic arthritis.
C. osteomyelitis.
A clinically well child with the dysmorphic features shown in the photograph below presents with a loud ejection systolic murmur.
- saturation - pressure
- superior vena cava 64%
- right atrium 62% - 9/6 (mean 8)
- right ventricle 62% - 51/7
- main pulmonary artery 62% - 51/15 (mean 35)
- distal left pulmonary artery 62% - 12/9 (mean 11)
- distal right pulmonary artery 62% 14/9 (mean 12)
- left ventricle 98% - 66/8
- descending aorta 98% - 70/40 (mean 53)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alagille syndrome.
B. Congenital rubella syndrome.
C. Noonan syndrome.
D. Velocardiofacial syndrome.
E. Williams syndrome
A. Alagille syndrome.
Branch pulmonary artery stenosis (high RV and main pulm artery pressures)
Alagille syndrome – pulmonary stenosis, branch pulmonary artery stenosis
Congenital rubella syndrome – PDA
Noonan syndrome – pulmonary stenosis
Velocardiofacial syndrome/DiGeorge - cardiac are conotruncal defects – ToF, TA, DORV, subarterial VSD – and branchial arch defects (CoA, interrupted aortic arch, right aortic arch)
Williams syndrome – supravalvular aortic stenosis, branch pulmonary artery stenosis
Turner syndrome – coarctation of aorta
VACTERL – vertebral, anal atresia, cardiac defects, tracheoesophageal fistula, esophageal atresia, radial/renal anomalies, limb defects – mostly VSD, ASD and tetralogy of Fallot (TA and TGA less common)
A man is diagnosed with a rare autosomal recessive disorder. His pedigree is shown below.
What is the best estimate of the risk of his cousin (indicated on the diagram by an arrow) developing the same disorder?
A. 1/2.
B. 1/4.
C. 1/8.
D. 1/16.
E. 1/32.
D. 1/16.
IIA is carrier and has ½ risk of transmission to child, therefore IIB has ½ risk, which is same for IIC and IID
Therefore risk is IIB x IID x ¼ (as autosomal recessive) = ½ x ½ x ¼ = 1/16
A six-month-old girl is referred to the outpatient clinic for assessment of delayed development. She will not reach, sit unsupported or roll. She weighs 7.6 kg (50th-75thpercentile), and measures 67cm in length (50th%). Her head circumference is 41 cm (25th%). Her head and facial appearance is shown below.
The most likely reason for this appearance is:
A. coronal synostosis.
B. deformational plagiocephaly.
C. lambdoid synostosis.
D. metopic synostosis.
E. sagittal synostosis.
D. metopic synostosis.
A 12-year-old girl who emigrated from Zimbabwe 18 months ago presents with a three month history of recurrent painless terminal gross haematuria. Several mid stream urine specimens show a large number of red cells, white cells 100-500 per cm3 and 2+ protein on dipstix but there was no significant bacteria growth. Renal function is normal as is renal ultrasound. Urine microcopsy shows the following:
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Calculus.
B. Giardia lambia.
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D. Plasmodium falciparum.
E. Schistosomia haematobium infection.
E. Schistosomia haematobium infection.
Urinary schistosomiasis: Dysuria, urinary frequency, and terminal hematuria occur.
A nine-year-old boy presents to emergency with gross haematuria. His investigation results include:
Persistence of which of the following at three months is most useful in differentiating mesangiocapillary from post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
A. Low C3.
B. Low C4.
C. Negative throat swab.
D. Low IgA.
E. Raised ASOT.
A. Low C3.
A three-month-old baby presents with increasing left thigh swelling over the past week, pallor and irritability. As part of his assessment, the following results are obtained:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of his thigh swelling?
A. Haemangioma.
B. Haematoma.
C. Lymphangioma.
D. Necrotising fasciitis .
E. Rhabdomyosarcoma.
A. Haemangioma.
Kasabach-Merritt syndrome – haemangioma with thrombocytopaenia, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and acute or chronic consumption coagulopathy
Film – fragments, spherocytes, small round cells
D-dimer – fibrin degradation product (FDP) – break down of clot
A four-month-old infant is referred from a refugee centre for assessment of a neck lump, present since birth. He is feeding well and gaining weight normally. On examination there is a 1 cm x 1 cm mass in the anterior neck; overlying skin is red and warm. A thick discharge is expressed from the lesion.
A photograph of the lesion is shown below.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. branchial cleft remnant.
B. cystic hygroma.
C. mycobacteria avium complex.
D. thyroglossal cyst.
E. tuberculosis.
D. thyroglossal cyst.
A 36-week-male infant has a focal seizure at two days of age. Investigation of this seizure included the following diffusion weighted magnetic resonance image of the brain on Day three:
Which of the following neurological conditions is this child most likely to develop?
A. Ataxic cerebral palsy.
B. Choreoathetoid cerebral palsy.
C. Spastic diplegia.
D. Spastic hemiplegia.
E. Spastic quadriplegia.
D. Spastic hemiplegia.
MRI shows acutely infarcted area. Unilateral lesion in MCA territory, affecting contralateral arm, hand and face. Causes spastic hemiplegia.
A four-year-old boy has global developmental delay. He has a past history of severe gastro- oesophageal reflux in infancy. His facial appearance and the appearance of his hands are shown below.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cornelia de Lange syndrome.
B. Fanconi anaemia.
C. Mosaic trisomy 8.
D.Rubenstein-Taybi syndrome.
E. Williams syndrome.
A. Cornelia de Lange syndrome.
Cornelia de Lange
- IUGR, prematurity, weak cry, hypotonic in infancy, respiratory and feeding difficulties, 90% GORD, developmental delay and mental retardation, seizures, behavioural probs
- Short stature, microcephaly
Facial features
These are perhaps the most diagnostic of all the physical signs and combine to create a unique gestalt for the clinician. This combination of findings may be absent in postpubertal male patients.
The following are classic features:
- Confluent eyebrows (synophrys) (99%)
- Long curly eyelashes (99%)
- Low anterior and posterior hairline (92%)
- Underdeveloped orbital arches (100%)
- Neat, well-defined, and arched eyebrows (as though they had been penciled)
- Long philtrum
- Anteverted nares (88%)
- Down-turned angles of the mouth (94%)
- Thin lip (especially upper vermillion border)
- Low-set and posteriorly rotated ears
- Depressed nasal bridge (83%)
- High arched palate (86%) and overt or submucous cleft palate (20%)
- Late eruption of widely spaced teeth (86%)
- Micrognathia (84%)
- Short neck (66%)
- Hirsutism (78%)
- Severe abnormalities, such as oligodactyly (missing digits) or other deficiencies of the arms, may be present (27%).
A 13-year-old girl who has a body mass index (BMI) of 31kg/m2 [95th centile for age and sex = 28kg/m2], is investigated for obesity. Her periods are irregular and she has a family history of diabetes. On examination she has acanthosis nigricans of the neck and the axillae. Investigations are shown.
The most likely cause of these findings is:
A. gallstones.
B. non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
C. polycystic ovary disease.
D. type 2 diabetes mellitus.
E. viral hepatitis.
B. non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
A 21/2-year-old boy is brought to the hospital because his parents are worried about unexplained bruising which has appeared around his right eye over the past few days. He is pale and miserable, and is reluctant to walk. A fullness is palpable in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen.
Coagulation studies are normal. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.
B. acute myoloid leukaemia.
C. Gaucher disease.
D. inflicted injury.
E. neuroblastoma.
E. neuroblastoma.
Neuroblastoma: signs of mets incl fever, irritability, FTT, bone pain, bluish subcutaneous nodules, orbital proptosis, periorbital ecchymoses
Not AML or ALL (only anaemia, other bloods okay)
Gaucher disease: multisystemic lipidosis characterized by haematological probs, organomegaly, skeletal involvement (bone pain and pathological fractures) – lysosomal storage disease
- bruising from thrombocytopaenia, anaemia, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, bone pain
- reasonable differential for unexplained organomegaly, bruise easily, bone pain
A seven-year-old child with delayed language development, aggressive behaviour and seizures is brought to see you for evaluation. His mother is concerned about the increasing size of a “birth mark” on his abdomen which is shown below.
What other findings are you most likely to find on clinical examination?
A. Adenoma sebaceum.
B. Axillary freckling.
C. Café au lait spots.
D. Shagreen patch.
E. Ungual fibroma
A. Adenoma sebaceum.
The image shows a hypopigmented lesion seen in Tuberous Sclerosis Complex. Adenoma sebaceum are angiofibromas which develop over nose and cheeks at 4-6 years of age and are often confused with acne. A shagreen patch is also characteristic of TSC and consists of a roughened, raised lesion with an orange-peel consistency located primarily in the lumbosacral region. During adolescence or later, small fibromas or nodules of skin may form around fingernails or toenails in 15-20% of the TSC patients.
Cafe au lait and axillary freckling are skin lesions in neurofibromatosis
A 16-year-old boy presents with vague but increasing knee pain over the past two months. An X-ray is performed and shown below.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aneurysmal bone cyst.
B. Eosinophilic granuloma.
C. Ewing sarcoma.
D. Osteochondroma.
E. Osteosarcoma.
E. Osteosarcoma.
Sclerotic instead of lytic (Ewing’s, eosinophilic granuloma (usu skull), bone cyst), osteochondroma projects away from joint
A six-year-old boy with Down syndrome presents to your practice with persistent diarrhoea for the past four weeks. Stool microscopy reveals the following findings:
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. coeliac disease.
B. cow’s milk enteropathy.
C. crohn disease.
D. infectious colitis.
E. lactose intolerance.
A. coeliac disease.
A previously well six-year-old boy presents with fever and headache. A CT scan of his brain is shown below.
Which of the following is the most appropriate empiric antibiotic regimen?
A. Ampicillin plus Gentamicin.
B. Cefotaxime plus Gentamicin.
C. Cefotaxime plus Metronidazole.
D. Metronidazole plus Gentamicin.
E. Vancomycin plus Gentamicin.
C. Cefotaxime plus Metronidazole.
Gentamicin doesn’t cross BBB
Aminoglycosides are distributed well into ECF except for vitreous humor, CSF, respiratory secretions, and bile (particularly in patients with biliary obstruction).
Oral metronidazoleis absorbed well. It is usually given IV only if patients cannot be treated orally. It is distributed widely in body fluids and penetrates into CSF, resulting in high concentrations.
The only cephalosporins that reach CSF levels high enough to treat meningitis are
- Ceftriaxone
- Cefotaxime
- Ceftazidime
- Cefepime
All cephalosporins penetrate poorly into ICF and the vitreous humor.
Vancomycin is not appreciably absorbed from a normal GI tract after oral administration. Given parenterally, it penetrates into bile and pleural, pericardial, synovial, and ascitic fluids. However, penetration into even inflamed CSF is low and erratic.
A full-term 4.6kg male infant has recurrent dusky episodes commencing eight hours after a difficult vaginal delivery complicated by mild shoulder dystocia following prolonged rupture of membranes. APGAR scores were six at one minute and nine at five minutes and he was given brief bag and mask ventilation to improve his colour. He is sleepy and has not fed well for the past five hours.
On examination, he has a suffused face, no respiratory distress or heart murmurs and a normotensive fontanelle. His blood glucose level is 4.0 mmol/litre and as part of a septic work-up he has a lumbar puncture which gave the following CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) results:
Volume: 2mls
Appearance: Bloodstained
Gram Stain: No organisms seen
Chemistry:
- Glucose 2.9mmol/litre
- Protein 1000gm/litre
The most likely cause for these findings is:
A. herpes simplex encephalitis.
B. meningitis.
C. subarachnoid haemorrhage.
D. subdural haematoma.
E. traumatic lumbar puncture.
C. subarachnoid haemorrhage.
A two-week-old infant presents with poor feeding and tachypnoea. His oxygen saturation in room air is 89%. He has full volume brachial and femoral pulses. The first heart sound is normal and the second heart sound is loud and single. A grade 3/6 systolic murmur, which is ejection in quality, is heard at the left sternal edge. An apical mid-diastolic rumbling murmur is audible. Hepatomegaly is present. His ECG is shown below.

The most likely diagnosis is:
A. atrioventricular septal defect.
B. severe pulmonary stenosis.
C. tetralogy of Fallot.
D. truncus arteriosus.
E. ventricular septal defect.
D. truncus arteriosus.
Key features of truncus: enlarged heart, hyperdynamic praecordium, 2nd heart sound loud and single, ejection systolic murmur frequently preceded by ejection click, early diastolic decresendo murmur if truncal valve insufficiency, apical mid diastolic rumbling murmur caused by increased flow through mitral valve. All pulses bounding.
AVSD - Multiple different types of murmurs.
Severe pulmonary stenosis - Systolic murmur
TOF - First heart sound normal, second heart sound single because pulmonary component rarely heard.
VSD - Harsh systolic ejection murmur from RV outflow obstruction, not VSD.
A two-year-old boy presents with a four week history of persistent diarrhoea and mild weight loss. He has recently commenced childcare. Stool microscopy and biochemistry reveal the following:
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial gastroenteritis.
B. Coeliac disease.
C. Cryptosporidiosis.
D. Lactose intolerance.
E. Viral gastroenteritis.
B. Coeliac disease.
A nine-month-old boy is seen in clinic with an eight week history of an itchy rash. Reddish-brown macules and papules are noted on his trunk and back as shown in photo one. He takes prophylactic cotrimoxazole for high grade vesicoureteric reflux but is otherwise well.
On examination, it is noted that stroking the lesions leads to erythema of the surrounding skin as shown below in photo two.
The most likely diagnosis is:
A. chronic urticaria.
B. drug reaction.
C. insect bites.
D. scabies.
E. urticaria pigmentosa.
E. urticaria pigmentosa.
Urticaria pigmentosa is the name given to a type of mastocytosis, in which there are brown patches on the skin due to abnormal collections of mast cells.
Mast cells are normally widely distributed in the skin. They contain granules that contain histamine and other chemicals. When the mast cell is disturbed, these chemicals are released into the surrounding skin. The chemicals make the blood vessels leaky, resulting in localised itching, swelling and redness.
In children
Urticaria pigmentosa most often affects infants, with the first patches appearing at a few months of age. They are often confused with insect bites at first, but persist and gradually increase in number for several months or years. They can appear on any part of the body including the scalp, face, trunk and limbs.
In young children, it is common for the patches to blister when rubbed. If many patches are activated at the same time the infant may become irritable but is uncommon for severe symptoms to arise.
Over the next few years the urticaria pigmentosa becomes less irritable and eventually the patches fade away. By the teenage years, most patches will have gone.
Darier sign
One can demonstrate the presence of mast cells by rubbing one of the brown patches. Within a few minutes, the rubbed area becomes reddened, swollen and itchy. This is known as Darier sign, and confirms the presence of mastocytosis.
Precautions
- Exercise or heat can aggravate symptoms. A severe reaction can result in flushing and faintness.
- Certain medications can cause mast cell degranulation and should be avoided if there is extensive urticaria pigmentosa. These include:
- Aspirin (salicylates) and other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
- Codeine and morphine (narcotics)
- Alcohol
- Anticholinergics
A 12-year-old boy with a past history of allogeneic bone marrow transplantation (BMT) for severe aplastic anaemia is on cyclosporin and prednisone for active extensive chronic graft-vs-host disease (GVHD). He presents to emergency with a high fever. The following investigations were performed:
His blood film shows Howell-Jolly bodies. Which one of the following organisms is most likely responsible for his clinical presentation?
A. Escherichia coli.
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
C. Staphylococcus aureus.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
E. Streptococcus viridans.
D. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Howell-Jolly bodies seen with functional asplenia therefore encapsulated organism more likely to cause pathology.
Strep pneumo is known to cause pathology in hypospenism.
Some encapsulated bacteria include:
- Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib)
- Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus)
- Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus)
- Group B streptococcus (GBS)
- Klebsiella pneumoniae
- Salmonella typhi
A five-month-old infant presented with a one week history of fever and cough. An X-ray was performed and is shown below.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cystic adenomatoid malformation in the left lower lobe.
B. Hypoplasia of right lung.
C. Left pleural effusion.
D. Left lower lobe pneumonia.
E. Right upper lobe collapse.
A. Cystic adenomatoid malformation in the left lower lobe.
A three-year-old boy presents with a painful and swollen penis, as demonstrated in the photograph below.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Balanitis.
B. Cellulitis.
C. Idiopathic oedema.
D. Paraphimosis.
E. Phimosis.
D. Paraphimosis.
A four-year-old girl is seen in diabetes clinic. It is four months since she was diagnosed with type 1 (insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus and coeliac disease. Her parents report marked behavioural problems and temper tantrums, associated with diabetes treatment and dietary restrictions.
On examination extensive hairloss is noted as shown in the photograph above.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Alopecia areata.
B. Telogen effluvium.
C. Tinea capitis.
D. Traction alopecia.
E. Trichotillomania.
A. Alopecia areata.
Alopecia areata – autoimmune alopecia
Telogen effluvium is a scalp disorder characterized by massive hair loss as a result of early entry of hairs into the telogen phase.[1][2] Emotional or physiological stressful events may result in an alteration of the normal hair cycle. It may be due to a variety of causes, eating disorders, fever, childbirth, chronic illness, major surgery, anemia, severe emotional disorders, crash diets, hypothyroidism, and drugs.
