2. YEAR 2 EXTRAS FROM BLOCK LEARNING OUTCOMES Flashcards

1
Q

why is there a rising demand for healthcare?

A

due to the ageing population and elderly people being more at risk of more serious acute threats to health but also have more difficulty recovering from what younger people would regard as minor injuries

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2
Q

If a condition is incurable, should we offer the treatment to someone else?

A

just become a condition isnt curable doesnt mean it is untreatable.
Its important to stop viewing cure as the criterion of benefit and instead think about people’s health related QOL

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3
Q

what is macro level resource allocation?

A

Macroallocation decisions are made in government and policy arenas to allocate resources among competing needs

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4
Q

what is microlevel resource allocation?

A

decisions made about a particular patient or clinician

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5
Q

argue some reasons why age should be relevant to resource allocation decision making?

A

treatment and the care of older people is very costly
older people have lived a full life already unlike younger people
older people have been paying their taxes to finance the healthcare system all their life
older people are likely to be less responsive to treatment
a younger person will have a longer ‘rest of life’ than older people

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6
Q

argue some reasons why age should not be relevant to resource allocation decision making?

A

Just because older people have paid taxes does not make the NHS a savings club for healthcare - the NHS is part of a social insurance team
the costly bit is not the age but the end of life treatment
some elderly people will have suffered a lifetime of pain and disability so will not have had a ‘fair innings’
palliative care can be more expensive than therapeutic care
even though older people will have a shorter ‘rest of life’, you could argue that as you have less years left, each year of life becomes more precious
age along is not a good predictor of prognosis and decisions should be made based on biological not chronological age
making treatment decisions on the basis of age is discrimination which is against the law

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7
Q

what is the fair innings argument?

A

older people have has a full life already and younger people have not so its much fairer to divert resources from older to younger patients.

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8
Q

what did the Equality Act 2010 say?

A

protection must be offered for age, sex, race, gender reassignment status, disability, sexual orientation, marriage status and pregnancy

the relevance: it banned age discrimination against adults in the provision of services and public functions

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9
Q

what is direct age discrimination?

A

when a direct difference in treatment based on age cannot be justified. Is/was/could be treated in an infavourable way because of age

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10
Q

what is indirect age discrimination?

A

when a seemingly neutral provision/measure/practice has harmful repercussions on a person or group of persons

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11
Q

outline how you could argue that medical practice is age discriminating?

A

Doctors can withhold treatment that is likely to do more harm than good. The prevalence of impairments increases with age so older people are more likely to be excluded than younger people.
Nevertheless, wide individual variation exists in aging and many people in later life function physiologically within the normal range for people much younger.

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12
Q

what are the arguments for the use of QUALYs?

A

they provide the net benefit as they adress the primary purpose of healthcare which is about maximising healthcare - utilitarian theory
patients often say quantity and quality of life is what matters most
they are used widely by NICE

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13
Q

what are the arguments against the use of QUALYs?

A

• Measurements of output in units based on life years puts different values on individuals according to their life ecpectancy and thus citizens are no longer equal and older people are particularly disadvantaged
• It assumes that the value of life is determined by its length but the only person who can put a true value on life, is the person living it.
- They presume that given the choice a patient would prefer a shorter healthier life to a longer period of survival in a state of severe discomfort.
- Double jeopardy objection - those patients with pre-existing medical conditions will be treated much worse as it will reduce their overall quality of life

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14
Q

what are some relative measures of risk?

A

risk ratios and odds ratios (chances compared to another group)

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15
Q

what are some absolute measures of risk?

A

risks, odds, risk differences (the actual chances)

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16
Q

what did Benjamin Franklin say?

A

nothing can be certain except for death, taxes and scarcity of resources

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17
Q

what causes the scarcity in healthcare?

A

NHS budgetary restrictions
public expectations
ageing population = increasing demand
staffing levels

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18
Q

what is distributive justice?

A

distributing resources in a way that is fair and just

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19
Q

what is health economics?

A

the study of how society uses and allocates its limited resources to produce, distribute and consume health and healthcare

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20
Q

what is clinical and cost effectiveness?

A

when deciding a treatment it must permit the greatest health gain for the patient at the lowest cost possible

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21
Q

what is utilitarianisms view of rationing healthcare resources?

A

aims to maximise overall benefits at a societal lovel e.g. QUALYs

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22
Q

what is egalitarianisms view of rationing healthcare resources?

A

emphasises the equal moral status of individuals by trying to provide equal opportunity to have the basic goods in life e.g. using a lottery

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23
Q

what is prioritarianisms view of rationing healthcare resources?

A

attempts to help those considered worst off

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24
Q

what is the problem with utilitarianisms view of rationing healthcare resources?

A

there are unanswered questions on how best to quantify the QOL

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25
Q

what is the problem with egalitarianisms view of rationing healthcare resources?

A

insensitive to factors that are important e.g. patient need

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26
Q

what is the problem with prioritarianisms view of rationing healthcare resources?

A

ignores the prognostic differences

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27
Q

what is the rule of rescue?

A

the moral imperative to rescue identified individuals in immediate peril, regardless of cost

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28
Q

who are the buyers and sellers in the NHS market?

A

the clinical commissioning groups are the buyers

providers of care are the sellers

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29
Q

why is demand for healthcare always increasing?

A

because of the increasing population size, ageing population, multiple morbidities increasing

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30
Q

what is NICE’s recommendation for threshold of cost per QUALY?

A

20,000 -30,000

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31
Q

what is Alan Williams principles to guiding rationing?

A

to treat equals equally and with dignity
to meet peoples needs for healthcare as efficienctly as possible by imposing the least sacrifice on others
to minimise inequalities in the lifetime health of the population

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32
Q

what are guidelines?

A

systematically developed statements to assist practitioner and patient decisions about appropriate healthcare for specific clinical circumstances

NICE clinical guidelines are recommendations on how healthcare and other professionals should care for people with specific conditions.

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33
Q

why are clinical guidelines important?

A

they ensure doctors provide evidence based care, improve cost effectiveness, provide a practical and ethical framework for decision making and enhance the appropriateness of practice

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34
Q

what are some problems with clinical guidelines?

A

there are conflicting guidelines for patients with multiple morbidities
medicien is rapidly developing so guidelines can quickly go out f date
failure to understand or agree with responsibility for using the guidelines
lack of knowledge that the guidelienes exist

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35
Q

what is biographical disruption?

A

the way in which a life-threatening illness breaks an individual’s social/cultural experience by threatening self-identity.

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36
Q

what are some of the impacts of having a chronic illness?

A
loss of control and person power and self esteem
loss of independance
loss or change of role in family/work
loss of financial security
loss or change of future plans
loss of identity
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37
Q

what is the house of care model?

A

a framework for a coordinated service model that enables patients with long-term conditions and clinicians to work together to determine and shape the support needed to enable them to live well with their condition.

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38
Q

who rations health care?

A

central government decides NHS funding and this is divided amongst the 4 national constituent parts of te NHS. Its allocated by CCGs on the basis of population weighted by need.

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39
Q

what is the hippocratic tradition?

A

requires doctors to maximise benefits of care for the patient regardless of opportunity cost

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40
Q

what is ‘need’ for healthcare? and how is this different from ‘demand’?

A

a need for medical care exists when there is an effect and acceptable treatment or cure

demand is when an individual considers they have a need and wishes to recieve care

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41
Q

what was the sugary drinks tax?

A

an effective public health measure where a 20% tax on sugary drinks was used to try to reduce the number of obese adults

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42
Q

what is prognosis?

A

an assessment of the future course and outcome of a patients disease, based on knowledge of the course of the disease together with the persons general health, age and sex.

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43
Q

what are prognostic factors?

A

characteristics of the patient that can be used to predict outcomes more accuretaley
e.g. demographics, disease specifics and co-morbidities

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44
Q

what are risk factors?

A

patient characteristics associated with the development of the disease in the first place.

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45
Q

what is consequentialism?

A

whether an act is morally right depends only on consequences

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46
Q

what are some forms of consequentialism?

A
utrilitarianism
rule consequentialism
state consequentialism
ethical egoism
ethical altruism etc
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47
Q

what is clinical reasoning?

A

the ability to sort through a cluster of features presented by a patient and accurate asian a diagnostic label with the development of an appropriate treatment strategy as an end goal

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48
Q

what are some consequences of a poor doctor-patient realationship?

A
complaints
inaccurate diagnoses
less recognition of ICE
non adherence with care or treatment
decreased patient satisfaction
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49
Q

What did William Osler say about person centred medicine?

A

The good physician treats the disease, the great physician treats the person who has the disease

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50
Q

what are the 6 elements of person centred care?

A
understanding individuals preferences
empathy
shared goal setting and decision making
active listening
open ended questions and reflective conversations
involvements of family and friends
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51
Q

what is a doctor patient relationship?

A

A consensual relationship in which the patient knowingly seeks the physicians assistance and in which the physician knowingly accepts the person as a patient

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52
Q

outline the development of the doctor patent relationship

A

paternalistic model where active doctor and passive compliant patient
mead and bowers model of patient cent redness

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53
Q

what is microeconomics?

A

the study of how individuals and companies make decisions to allocate scarce resources

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54
Q

what is macroeconomics?

A

the study of an economy as a whole.

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55
Q

what is medical pluralism?

A

the employment of more than one medical system or the use of both conventional and complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) for health and illness

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56
Q

what is inequality?

A

the phenomenon of unequal and/or unjust distribution of resources and opportunities among members of a given society

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57
Q

what is equity

A

“providing care that does not vary in quality because of personal characteristics such as gender, ethnicity, geographic location, and socioeconomic status i.e. everyone should have equal opportunity to healthcare

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58
Q

what is ethical reasoning?

A

a skill enabling you to better argue to a position you can justify and to evaluate the views and arguments of other people.

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59
Q

what is ethics?

A

is the study of what makes an action wrong or right.

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60
Q

what is meta-ethics?

A

study of the meaning of moral concepts i.e. what does right mean

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61
Q

what is normative ethics?

A

the study of the means of deciding what is right or wrong aka. Moral theory.

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62
Q

what is applied ethics?

A

the application of moral theory to real world cases

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63
Q

what are the 4 types of moral theory?

A

consequentialism
deontoloy
virtue
utilitarianism

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64
Q

what is consequentialism?

A

– rightness is judged by desirability of the consequences of that action

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65
Q

what is deontology?

A

actions are right if they conform to a system or rules or regulations

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66
Q

what is virtue ethics?

A

the right act is the one which a virtuous person would perform in the circumstances

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67
Q

what is utilitarianism?

A
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68
Q

whats the four principle approach to ethics?

A
  • Beneficience – a practitioner should act in the best interests of the patient
  • Non-maleficience – a practitioner should ensure no further harm comes to the patient
  • Autonomy – the competent patient has the right to make their own decisions regarding their own healthcare. This involves acting with understanding, freely from the will of others and in accordance with your own values.
  • Justice – law/resource management etc
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69
Q

why is autonomy important?

A

it generally leads to better outcomes as patient is more likely to trust thr doctor and stick to the regimen (consequentialism)
its a requirement (deontology)
a virtuous person would allow an individual to be self-determinant (virtue)
When doctors act in the patients best interests they are activng in ways that will have an overall net benefit for the patient (beneficience).
Sometimes the treatment will have side effects (goes against non-maleficence) but its deemed to be in the best interests of the patient because of the net positive effect

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70
Q

what might make ethical decisions hard?

A

It can be difficult to assess best interests when the patient cannot communicate, when youre trying to weigh up conflicted goods. When your own values might disrtort what you think is in the best interest of the patient, when you disagree with the patient etc.

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71
Q

what makes an argument valid?

A

valid if the conclusion follows logically from the premises.

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72
Q

what makes an argument sound?

A

if the conclusion follows logically from the premises AND the premises are infact true

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73
Q

what id ad hominem?

A

– irrelevantly attacking the person instead of addressing someones argument e.g. not listening to a woman who stands against abortion because you know she had abortions herself

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74
Q

what is an argument from authority?

A

agreeing with a particular view because the person who said it occupies a place of authority

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75
Q

what is begging the question?

A

when an arguments premises assume the truth of the conclusion rather than supporting it e.g. tom wants to convince james chocolate is healthy so his argument is that cjocolate grows on trees so it must be healthy even though there is no proof that something is good for you just because it grows on trees

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76
Q

what is the straw man fallacy?

A

misrepresenting someones argument to make it easier to attack e.g. telling someone who wants to legalise cannabis that we should not because legalising drugs is dangerous even though the original argument was about cannabis specifically, not just drugs generally.`

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77
Q

what is sensitivity?

A

– the ability of a test to correctly identify patients with a disease (true positives / all diseased individuals)

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78
Q

what is specificity?

A

the ability of a test to correctly identify people without the disease (true positives / all non-diseased individuals)

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79
Q

what does high sensitivity mean?

A

fewer false negative results so its used to rule out conditions

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80
Q

what does high specificity mean?

A

reduces false positives so usually used to rule in conditions

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81
Q

what is a positive predictive value?

A

proportion of positive tests that are correct (true positives / test positives)

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82
Q

what is a negative predictive value?

A

proportion of negative tests that are correct (true negatives / test negatives)

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83
Q

what is screening?

A

Screening is the systematic application of a test or inquiry to identify individuals at sufficient risk of a specific disorder to warrant further investigation or direct preventative action, amongst persons who have not sought medical attention on account of symptoms of that disorder.

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84
Q

what are the Wilson criteria for screening?

A
  • The condition sought should be an important health problem
  • There should be an accepted treatment for patients with recognized disease
  • Facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be available
  • There should be a recognizable latent or early symptomatic stage
  • There should be a suitable test or examination
  • The test should be acceptable to the population
  • The natural history of the condition, includng development from latent to declared disease should be adequately understood
  • There should be an agreed policy on whom to treat as patients
  • The cost of case-finding should be economically balanced in relation to possible expenditure on medical care as a whole
  • Case finding should be a continuing process and not a once and for all project
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85
Q

what makes screening effective?

A

effective it needs to be able to recognize a high proportion of disease in its preclinical state, be safe, be cost effective, lead to demonstrated improved health outcomes and be widely available.

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86
Q

what are some barriers to screening?

A

fear, stigma, moving address so not getting updates, language barriers, people thinking they need symptoms first, not knowing how to book an appointment, embarrassment, lack of transport, misconceptions, childcare to worry about

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87
Q

describe the disability caused by incontinece?

A

People worry about coughing and sneezing, worry about their incontinence worsening as they age, worry about smelling of urine, worry about a sex life, limit their choice of clothing and have a desire for normality
People may also feel a loss of dependency, loss of control and may develop problems with their body image.

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88
Q

what is stigma?

A

an identifying mark or characteristic that can be a specific diagnostic sign of a disease

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89
Q

what is the process of stigma?

A

: labelling -> stereotyping -> othering -> stigmatisation -> discrimination

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90
Q

what is discreditable stigma?

A

keeping stigmatised conditions hidden except to close friends and family

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91
Q

what is discrediting stigma?

A

when a stigmatising conition cannot be hidden

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92
Q

what is felt stigma?

A

a sense of fear and shame due to one’s condition

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93
Q

what is enacted stigma?

A

discrimination by others

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94
Q

what is internalising?

A

absorbing the social views of being lower status and the impact on personal beleifs and behaviours

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95
Q

what is passing?

A

passing oneself off without acknowledging symptoms e.g. hiding yourself – can come at a very high psychological cost

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96
Q

what is covering?

A

not disclosing e.g. wearing cream to hide eczema

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97
Q

what is withdrawal in terms of stigma?

A

socially acknowledging a symptom but withdrawing from generally expected social interactions and relationships
e.g. social isolation is common amongst incontinence sufferers leaving them with feelings of hopelessness, sadness, and shame. The stigma attached to this condition is often worse than the actual symptoms.

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98
Q

how can stigma affect healthcare?

A

Fear of stigma may act as a barrier to seek medical care
Concerns about confidentiality
In some cultures stigma attached to HIV contributes to lack of medical care

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99
Q

describe the impact of chronic dialysis on patients?

A

Those on dialysis have lower levels of physical activity, diminished health questionnaire results compared with the general population.
it takes a long time out of the day
may be difficult to get to the dialysis unit
can limit freedom of movement

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100
Q

what is opportunity cost?

A

represent the potential benefits that an individual misses out on when choosing one alternative over another

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101
Q

how is NHS funded?

A

tax finance, national insurance and user charges

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102
Q

what is rationing?

A

when someone is denied/not offered an intervention that everyone agrees would do them good and they would like to have

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103
Q

Why should smokers receive treatment even if the smoking has ‘caused’ their helth condition?

A

Its not the role of the doctors to decide who is more deserving of a treatment
The patient may have little/no control over their smoking habits
Even if patients did have control they are no less deserving
Decision should be made on ground of clinical need
They may not be aware that they have contributed to their own ill health
They have paid taxes

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104
Q

what is confidentiality?

A

the principle of not divulging or disclosing information about patients to others

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105
Q

why is confidentiality important?

A

allows patients to trust clinicians, allows them to have autonomy, prevents patient harm, is virtuous, is a human rights act and a GMC requirement.

106
Q

what is a ‘breach in confidentiality’?

A

if information is shared with other people without the consent of the patient in question.

107
Q

when can confidentiality be breached?

A

if demanded by court statue, if the disclosure is in the public interest, if the patient lacks capacity and disclosure is in their best interest, if it’s necessary to prevent harm e.g. if a patent has a serious communicable disease such as an STD

108
Q

what are the key aspects to healthcare quality?

A

healthcare must be safe (minimisies risk and harm to patient)
effective (based on scientific knowledge and evidence-based guidelines)
timely (reduce delays)
efficient (maximise resource use)
equitable (fair and based on need only)
patient centred (respectful of and responsive to individual patients).

109
Q

what is an adverse event?

A

an unintended event resulting from clinical care that causes patient harm

110
Q

what is a near miss?

A

a situation in which events arising during clinical care fail to develop further, whether or not as a result of compensating action, thus preventing injury to a patient

111
Q

what is a no harm event?

A

an unintended event occurs resulting from clinical care but the patients doesn’t experience harm

112
Q

what is a never event?

A

serious incidents that are entirely preventable because guidance or safety reccomendations provide strong systemtic protective barriers and are available at a national level and should have been implemented by all health care providers. E.g. wrong site surgery

113
Q

how is hospital safety assessed?

A

standardised mortality ratio
reports on never events and serious incidents
inspections and monitoring by care quality commissioners
hospital episode statistics

114
Q

what is the standardised mortality ratio?

A

the ratio of the number of deaths in hospital within a given time period, to the number that might be expected if the hospital had the same death rates as some reference population

115
Q

what do care quality commission do?

A

egulates all health and social care services in England. The commission ensures the quality and safety of care in hospitals, dentists, ambulances, and care homes, and the care given in people’s own homes.

116
Q

what are active failures?

A

errors or violations committed by people in direct contact with a patient

117
Q

whats an error?

A

unintentional mistake that may be due to deficiencies in knowledge, rules, or skills

118
Q

what is a violation?

A

intentional mistakes but not usually with the intention of causing harm e.g. because of time pressure, actions that have become normal

119
Q

what are latent mistakes?

A

those that develop over time and lay dormant until they combine with other factors e.g. active failures to cause an adverse event

120
Q

what is blame culture?

A

when individuals cover up errors for fear of retribution

121
Q

what is normalisation of deviance?

A

deviance from correct or proper behaviour or rule becomes normalized

122
Q

what are some examples of situations associated with an increased risk of errors being made?

A

unfamiliarity with a task, inexperience, shortage of time, inadequate checking, poor procedures

123
Q

whats the human factors approach to making errors?

A

this acknowledges the universal nature of human fallibility, the inevitability of error and that these errors are not necessarily because of incompetence. Its about designing a workplace to minimise the likelihood of errors and their consequences. This can be done by avoiding reliance on memory, make things visibly, review and simplify processes, standardize common procedures, use checklists etc

124
Q

how can hospitals improve their patient safety?

A
  • Increase doctor and nurse to patient ratio
  • Improve teamwork and communication
  • Open reporting and learning from incidents
  • Standardise approaches to high risk patients
  • Promote safer prescribing
  • Promote hand hygeiene
125
Q

what should you do when an adverse incident occurs?

A
  1. Report it on the incident reporting system
  2. Assess the seriousness
  3. Analyse why it occurred
  4. Duty of candour – be open and honest with the affected patient and apologise
  5. Learn from the event and put in place actions to reduce the risk of repeat
126
Q

how many under 18s die every year in England?

A

> 3000

127
Q

at what age in childhood is the risk of dying highest?

A

under 1

followed by 15-19 year olds

128
Q

what are the leading causes of death for under 18s?

A

accidental injury, cancer and intentional self-harm (including suicide), followed by neurological, cardiovascular and respiratory disorders.

129
Q

what percentage of deaths in under 18s do traffic accidents account for?

A

50%

130
Q

whats the leading cause of death of young people in the UK?

A

suicide

131
Q

what are the leading causes of death in children under 5?

A

preterm birth complications, birth asphyxia, pneumonia, congenital abnormalities.

132
Q

what are some steps being taken to reduce the mortality rate in under 18s?

A
  • Reduce the risk of preterm and low birth weight babies by promoting maternal health
  • Socioeconomic improvements
  • Improve recognition and management of serious illness across the health service
  • Implement policies for common causes of death from accidents and injuries
  • Improve the management of chronic diseases
133
Q

what is screened for in the antenatal period and when?

A
  • Screening for infectious diseases – HIV, syphilis, hepatitis B - asap
  • Screening for sickle cell and thalassaemia and other haemoglobin disorders– before 10/40
  • Foetal anomaly screening programme – downs, Edwards, pautaus syndromes - 11-14/40
  • 11 physical conditions – 20/40 (anencephalcy, open spina bifida, cleft lip, diaphragmatic hernia, gastrochisis, exomphalos, serious cardiac abnormalities, bilateral renal agenesis, lethal skeletal dysplasia)
134
Q

what are babies screened for after birth and when?

A

Newborn physical examination – within 72 hrs of both (cataracts, heart murmurs, developmental dyaplasia od the hips, testes)

  • Newborn hearing screen – in the first 4-5 weeks
  • Newborn blood spot screening – 5 days old (sikle cell, cystic fibrosis, congenital hypothyroidism, inherited metabolic diseases, severe combined immunodeficiency).
135
Q

what will diabetics be offered in terms of screening from the age of 12?

A

annual diabetic eye test to check for early signs of diabetic retinopathy

136
Q

what are some issues with antenatal screening?

A

some test are associated with a 1% chance of miscarriage (particularly amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling)
lots of anxiety with inaccurate tests
pain
not always diagnostic

137
Q

what are some ways in which childbirth has become medicalised?

A

increasing C-sections, epidurals, inducement, less home births etc

138
Q

from a biophysical perspective, what is a normal birth?

A

is a full term pregnancy with spontaneous onset, vertex presentation of the foetus, low obstetric risk throughout pregnancy and labour, regular painful uterine contractions, progressive cervical effacement and dilation, progressive fetal descent, strenuous maternal effort, spontaneous vaginal delivery of the baby, placenta and membranes

139
Q

outline the developments in childbirth throughout history?

A
  • 1680 – Chamberlens midwifery forceps were crested to allow delivery of live foetuses without crushing the skull
  • 18th century – lying in hospitals for maternity care of poor married women were made. his caused a significant change as it was discovered that women giving birth at hospitals and being seen my obstetricians had a link to puerperal sepsis (due to poor hygeine) so more attended midwiferies.
  • 1881 – The Midwifes institute fromed
  • 1902 - Midwives Institute led to the First Midwife’s Act- enshrine normality in childbearing as the midwife’s role, referring to doctors as soon as abnormality occurs - this ensured a steady income stream for the medical profession.
  • 20th centuray - political drive to see hospital confinement for all women in labour as it was inherently safer and preferable. This culminated in the report of the Peel Committe in 1970 = lead to development in more maternal units in hospitals
140
Q

whats an argument for the medicalisation of giving birth?

A

childbirth can only be considered normal in retrospect

141
Q

why may epidurals not be best for childbirth?

A

Epidurals actually inhibit the Ferguson reflex and induction/augmentation reduce the sensitivity to natural oxytocin. This natural oxytocin can be produced in a calm and safe environment

142
Q

why may allowing a woman to give birth naturally be better?

A

allows the woman to create her own endogenous opiods - beta endorphins may dampen down contractions to modulate coordination and modulate perception of pain. This helps coordinate contractions. Women who give birth this way often have. euphoric experience after birth, this is lost when medication is given

143
Q

since the 1960s how has labour length changed and what is the significance of this?

A

Since the 1960s, labour length has increased by nearly 2 hours. This has been attributed to epidural use, older mums and bigger babies.

144
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages to a home birth?

A

less likely to get an infection or any risks from interventions, more likely to feel relaxed which helps labour progress, less need for pain meds
no aftercare for mother, not safe if at risk, insurance don’t cover costs, still may need to be transferred to the hospital ICE, birth can be messy

145
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages to a hospital birth?

A

pain control, access to NICU, staff support, availability of interventions
– stresss, fewer birthing positions, fewer support people, may not choose delivery doctor, little privacy

146
Q

outline the doctors role in respect to child protection and welfare?

A

as a doctor you must be able to Recognise patterns/risk factors of of neglect and refer in a timely and appropriate manner to social care
you must know what to do if you are concerned about a child and act on these concerns
you must be open minded when considering the possible cause of an injury or other signs that may suggest a child is being abused or neglected – don’t overshadow diagnoses by child protection conerns

147
Q

who is responsible for child protection in England?

A

department for Education (DfE)

148
Q

what is the ‘duty to protect children’?

A

everyone who works with children has a responsibility for keeping them safe, sharing information and identifying concerns.

149
Q

what did the children act 2003 section 11 say?

A

this places a statutory duty on certain agencies to co-operate to safeguard and promote the welfare of children – local authorities, NHS services and trusts, police, probation services and young offenders institutions.

150
Q

what is the national society for the prevention of cruelty to children (NSPCC)>

A

provide therapeutic services to help children move on from abuse, as well as supporting parents and families in caring for their children. We help professionals make the best decisions for children and young people, and support communities to help prevent abuse from happening in the first place.

151
Q

what are the benefits of breast milk?

A

more digestible
◦ strengthens the bond witih skin to skin contact
◦ antibodies pass from a mother to baby and strengthen their immune system
◦ naturally contains vitamins
◦ free
◦ different tastes from what the mother has eaten = easy acceptance of solid foods
◦ convenient
- Breast milk is perfectly designed for your baby
◦ burns calories/shrinks uterus = mums can return to their pre-pregnancy shape and weight faster
◦ studies show it can lower the risk of breast cancer, high bp, diabetes, CVD

  • Helps reduce risk of infections, D+v, SIDS, obesity, CVD
  • Lowers mums risk of breast + oarian cancer, osteoporosis, CVD, obesity
152
Q

what are the disadvantages of breast milk

A

doesnt contain vit D
latch on pain for the first 7-10 days
◦ time and frequency of feedings can mean a large commitment on the mother
◦ women need to be aware of what they eat and drink
◦ some maternal medical conditions and medications can be unsafe for the child

153
Q

what are the benefits of formula over breast milk?

A

◦ sterile
◦ contains vitamin D
◦ convenient as either parent can feed the baby so the partner feels more involved
◦ no need to find a priate place to nurse in public
formula is less digestible so formula-fed babies tend to need to eat less often
◦ women doesnt need to worry about diet/medication etc

154
Q

what are the disadvantages to formula over breast milk?

A

lack of antibodies so cant provide baby protection against infection
◦ requires planning
◦ costly
◦ formula-fed babies have more gas and firmer bowel movements

155
Q

what is meant by quality in the context of healthcare?

A

the degree to which health services for individuals and populations increase the likelihood of desired health outcomes

156
Q

what is consumer protection?

A

privacy, confidentiality and security measures that protect the personal health data of users of health services

157
Q

what is the Consumer protection act?

A

It safeguards and encourages consumers to speak against insufficiency and flaws in goods and services. If traders and manufacturers practice any illegal trade, this act protects their rights as a consumer.

158
Q

what are the rights of consumers?

A

the right to safety, to be informed, to choose, to be heard, to satisfaction of basic needs, to redress, to consumer education and to a healthy environment

159
Q

In 1946, WHO created 3 core principles to meet the right to satisfaction of basic needs. What are these?

A
  1. NHS shoyld be funded from taxation
  2. NHS should provide a comprehensive service to everybody
  3. NHS should be free at the point of delivery
160
Q

what is an audit?

A

An audit assesses if a certain aspect of health care is attaining a recognized standard. This lets care providers and patients know where their service is doing well, and where there could be improvements. The aim is to achieve quality improvement and improve outcomes for patients.

161
Q

what do NICE do?

A

provides evidence-based guidance and advise for health, public health and social care practitioners - this improves outcomes for people using NHS and other public health and social care services.

162
Q

why are medical records important?

A

helps collect all your data in one place to ensure all your doctors across different hospitals have the right information. It helps healthcare providers keep a track of everything you have been through- which allows them to help you better.
They reduce the risk of malpractice, helps maintain communication amongst healthcare personnel, records hospital quality

163
Q

what is found on a medical record?

A
  • Name age and address
  • Health conditions
  • Treatments
  • Medication
  • Allergies and past reactions to meds
  • Tests, scans and x-ray results
  • Any specialist care e.g. maternity or mental health
  • Lifestyle infor e.g. smoking and drinking
  • Hospital admission and discharhe information
164
Q

what is an abortion?

A

the deliberate termination of a human pregnancy, most often performed during the first 28 weeks of pregnancy.

165
Q

whats the law on abortion in the UK?

A

abortions must be carried out before 24 weeks of prwgnancy and only after under some very limited circumstances e.g. risk to others life or child will be born with a debilitating disease.
Only those <13 will have to have an adult with them, otherwise you are not required to tell anyone.

166
Q

what was the abortion act 1967?

A

abortion is legal if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith:

  • That the pregnancy has not excedded 24 weeks and the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risks greater than if the pregnancy were terminated
  • That the termination is necessary to prevent grave permenant injury to the physical/mental health of the pregnant woman
  • That the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk to the life of the pregnant woman, greater than if terminated
  • That there is a substantial risk that if the child were born it would suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped.
167
Q

what are some pro-life arguments?

A

abortion ends the life of the foetus
the human foetus has the same moral status as a person and it is wrong to end the life of someone with a moral status of a person so abortion is morally wrong.
Life is sacred.
You are robbing a child of its future.
Life begins at conception.
Relaxed abortion laws mean some people may use abortion as contraception.
Abortion discriminates against people with disabilities and devalues them.
Foetuses feel pain suring the abortion procedure.
Abortions cause psychological damage.
Abortion promotes a culture in which human life is disposable.

168
Q

what are some arguments for pro-choice for abortion?

A

we do not give the same consideration to a foetus as we do a person.
Its alve and human but not a person; personhood begins after a foetus becomes viable or after birth, not at conception.
A woman has the right to have control over her body.
If we forbid abortions, women will still try to do it but in much less safe ways.
Women may not have a choice as they may not be able to financially afford a child.
Modern abortion procedures are safe

169
Q

what are arguments for assisted reproductive technology?

A
  • Procreative autonomy – parents right to have children
  • It has helped so many patients who would otherwise be unable to conceieve
  • Its safe
  • It can help single women and same sex couples
  • Unused embryos can be donated to other couples or research
  • Embryos can be used to screen for inherited diseases
  • Welfare interests
  • You can screen embryos before embryo transfer so can avoid genetic diseases
170
Q

argue against assisted reproductive technology use?

A
  • Involves destruction of embryos which may have a moral status
  • Harmful to those trying to conceieve e.g. causes a lot of psychological distress
  • Risk of multi pregnancy and slightly higher risk of ectopic pregnancy
  • Ethical issues – embryos can be used for screening and choosing favourable characteristics
  • Unnatural
  • IVF cycles are often unsuccessful
  • Expensive – may make the child a burden on the parents
  • Screening embryos has been used for sex selection, choosing embryos with desirable characteristics etx
  • Treatment for IVF is made available dependant on where you live in the UK i.e. different postcodes are allowed different numbers of cycles for free
171
Q

what is the ‘right to an open future’ argument?

A

dilemmas should be resolved so as to ensure that children will have a maximally open future.

172
Q

what is the Human Fertilisation and Embryology act 1990?

A

A woman shall not be provided with fertility treatment services unless account has been taken of the welfare of any child who may be born as a result of the treatment including the need for a father

173
Q

why was the human fertilisation and embryology act 1990 criticised?

A

fertile couples don’t have to meet this criterion, so why should infertile couples have to
research suggests that it’s not the case that a father is always required for a child to flourish. - law has now changed from father to ‘the need for supportive parenting’

174
Q

what is Gillick competence?

A

used to assess whether a child is mature enough to consent to treatment i.e. if under 16 and wants to receive treatment but don’t want their parents/carers to know. However young people cannot refuse treatment that may lead to their death or severe permenant harm.

175
Q

what are the Fraser guidelines?

A

apply specifically to advice and treatment about contraception and sexual health

  • The young person cannot be persuaded to inform their parents or carers that they are seeking this advice or treatment (or to allow the practitioner to inform their parents or carers).
  • the young person understands the advice being given.
  • the young person’s physical or mental health or both are likely to suffer unless they receive the advice or treatment.
  • it is in the young person’s best interests to receive the advice, treatment or both without their parents’ or carers’ consent.
  • the young person is very likely to continue having sex with or without contraceptive treatment.
176
Q

in which circumstances can information about patients be shared with an MDT or other agencies e.g. social services?

A
  • if the patient consents to it being shared
  • if disclosure is of overall benefit to a patient who lacks capacity to consent
  • when disclosure is required by law
  • when disclosure can be justified in the public interest
177
Q

whats the role of the midwife?

A

Midwives are specialists in normal pregnancy and birth, and their role is to look after a pregnant woman and her baby throughout a phase of antenatal care, during labour and birth, and for up to 28 days after the baby has been born.

178
Q

what is conscientious objection?

A

you may choose to opt out of providing a particular procedure because of your personal beliefs and values, as long as this does not result in direct or indirect discrimination against, or harassment of, individual patients or groups of patients.
You must explain to patients if you have a conscientious objection to a particular procedure. You must tell them about their right to see another doctor and make sure they have enough information to exercise that right. In providing this information you must not imply or express disapproval of the patient’s lifestyle, choices or beliefs. If it is not practical for a patient to arrange to see another doctor, you must make sure that arrangements are made for another suitably qualified colleague to take over your role.
You must not express your personal beliefs (including political, religious and moral beliefs) to patients in ways that exploit their vulnerability or are likely to cause them distress.
The investigations or treatment you provide or arrange must be based on the assessment you and your patient make of their needs and priorities, and on your clinical judgement about the likely effectiveness of the treatment options. You must not refuse or delay treatment because you believe that a patient’s actions or lifestyle have contributed to their condition.
You must not unfairly discriminate against patients or colleagues by allowing your personal views to affect your professional relationships or the treatment you provide or arrange

179
Q

what are some health promotion ideas for falls?

A

encourage patients to stay physically active, have their eyes and hearing tested, be aware about side effects of medications, get enough sleep, , limit alcohol, stand up slowly, use assistive devices if needed and ensure they have everything in place at home that they need e.g. lifts, psychotropic drug withdrawal, podiatry interventions.

180
Q

how does living in a care home impact the incidence of falls?

A

Older people living in care homes are three times more likely to fall than older people living in the community.

181
Q

what are some ways you can prevent a stroke?

A
  • Eat a healthy diet – reduce salt intake
  • Exercise regularly
  • Don’t smoke
  • Doont drink too much alcohol
  • Lower bp if too high
  • Give aspirin and clopidogrel following a previous stroke if they don’t have AF
  • Control AF with meds
  • Lose weight if obese
  • Come off oral contraception/HRT
182
Q

what is confounding?

A

the distortion of the relationship between an exposure and outcome due to a shared relationship with another variable.

183
Q

how can we reduce confounding?

A

using randomisation
restriction (limit no. of participants in study who have possible confounding variables)
matching (create a comparison group that matches the possible confounder)
stratification
adjustment
multivariate analysis (the simultaneous observation and analysis of more than one outcome variable).

184
Q

whats a standardised mortality ratio?

how do you evaluate the answer?

A

a ratio between the observed number of deaths in an study population and the number of deaths would be expected, based on the age- and sex-specific rates in a standard population and the population size of the study population by the same age/sex groups.
>1 indicates that more mortality has occurred than would have been expected. A ration < 1.0 indicates less mortality has occurred

185
Q

what are directly standardised rates?

A

adjust for different age distributions in different populations and enable, say, the rates of disease between the populations to be directly compared/ a weighted mean event rate for a study population, using the group/stratum sizes of a reference population as the weighting scheme

186
Q

why do we need waiting lists?

A

there is a limitless demand for health i.e. people can always be healthier, there are limited resources too.

187
Q

whats the problem with waiting lists?

A

they are a major source of dissatisfaction for patients

188
Q

why are waiting lists good?

A

allow NHS resources to be fully epmployed i.e. we don’t want loads of spare capacity as this is a waste of resources
they also defer frivalous use

189
Q

whats the maximum waiting time for non-urgent referrals?

A

18 weeks

190
Q

whats the maximum waiting time for suspected cancer?

A

2 weeks

191
Q

how could we improve waiting times?

A
  • Manage demand e.g. effectively refer patients, effective use of primary care
  • Manage the queue – patients called from a waiting list in order of clinical priority and within agreed waiting time standards
  • Manage capacity
  • Provide leadership
192
Q

how much do hip fractures cost the NHS per year?

A

869 million

193
Q

what is mental capacity?

A

the ability to make decisions by yourself. It is decision and time specific.

194
Q

what are the 5 statutory principles of the mental capacity act 2005?

A

presumption of capacity, the right to be supported to make their own decisions, the right to make eccentric or unwise decisions, healthcare providers must make decisions for those who lack capacity based on their best interests, the healthcare provider making a decision for someone who lacks capacity should choose the least restrictive intervention.

195
Q

what are the 4 things a patient needs in order to have capacity?

A
  • Understand information relevant to the decision in question
  • Retain the information
  • Use the information to make their decision
  • Communicate a decision
196
Q

what are the 2 aspects of advanced care planning?

A

advanced statement of wishes

advanced decision refusing treatment

197
Q

is advanced care planning legally binding?

A

advanced statement of wishes isnt but advanced decision refusing treatment is

198
Q

what is an advanced deciding refusing treatment?

A

a written statement of your wishes to refuse a certain treatment in a specific situation. It is a way of making sure everyone knows what treatment you do not want to have if you become unable to make your own decisions.

199
Q

what makes an advanced decision valid?

A

valid if youre aged 18 or over and has capaicyt at the time the decision was made, you specify clearly what treatments you want to refuse, its signed by you and a witness, you hve made the advanced decision by your own accord and you have not done anything that could contradict the advanced decision since you made it

200
Q

whats a lasting power of attorney?

A

a way of giving someone you trust, your attorney, the legal authority to make decisions on your behalf if you lose the mental capacity to do so in the future, or if you no longer want to make decisions for yourself

201
Q

when is ethics approval needed from a supervisor?

A
  • Research involves access to records of personal or sensitive confidential information
  • Research involves the use of administrative or controlled data
  • Research involves linking or sharing of personal data or confidential information
  • Research involves participants over 18 years old than are not considered ‘vulnerable adults’
202
Q

when is ethics approval needed from the resrahc committee, HSS research ethics committee?

A
  • Research involves participants under 18 years old
  • Research involves participants over 18 years old that are considered ‘vulnerable adults’
  • Research involves human biological materials, as well as human embryos, foetuses, foetal tissue, reproductive material and stem cells
203
Q

when does research not need any ethics approval whatsoever?

A

If research doesn’t involve participants or personal data

204
Q

outline the epidemiology of coronary artery disease?

A

In the UK, one in eight men and one in 15 women die from coronary heart disease. CHD kills twice as many women in the UK as breast cancer. Around 24,000 people under the age of 75 in the UK die from CHD each year. CHD death rates are highest in Scotland and the north of England.
More people die of ischaemic heart disease globally than any other cause

205
Q

outline how the risk factors for CHD have changed in prevalence over the years and how this has impacted the prevalence of CHD?

A

smoking, cholesterol levels, population bp and deprivation have decreased. Obesity, diabetes and physical inactivity have increased but to a lesser extent so overall CVD deaths are reducing

206
Q

outline the epidemiology of lung cancer?

A

1 in 13 UK males and 1 in 15 femailes will be diagnosed with lung cancer in their lifetime. 79% of these cases are preventable and 72% are caused by smoking
Lung carcinoma make up >90% of primary lung malignancies.
It is the leading cause of cancer mortality in men and woman. Over 90% of these cases are >40 years of age

207
Q

outline the global epidemiology of TB?

A

2 billion people infected, about 33% of the global population. Of these, 90-95% aren’t even away they are affected.
Lower-middle income countries like Subsaharan Africa have the highest rates

Tb rates are slowly decreasing but it is still a huge global problem. The areas with high TB are also areas that tend to have a great burden of HIV
A large proprotion of TB cases in the UK are from people who have moved here from other countries

208
Q

what is the pevention paradox?

A

a preventative measure that brings large benefits to the community often offers little to each participating individual.

209
Q

whats the objective or primary prevention?

A

a reduction in disease incidence.

210
Q

what are the 2 approaches you can take for primary prevention?

A

high risk prevention approach

population prevention approach

211
Q

whats a high-risk prevention approach?

A

the objective is to target the intervention at those who are at highest risk for the disease and move them to lower risk levels - really important at the individual level but not so effective at a population level.

212
Q

what are the pros and cons of a high-risk prevention approach?

A
  • positives - appropriate to the individual, motivated patient and clinician, cost effective(not medicating those who done need it), beneft to risk ratio is good
  • negatives - screening is difficult (aka finding these groups is hard), limited potential as onyl targeting a small proportion, temporary and labelling
213
Q

whats a population prevention approach?

A

the objective is to reduce the burden of disease across the entire population. This should shift the curve of risk to the left

214
Q

what are the pros and cons of a population prevention approach?

A
  • positives - large potential as approaches the entire population
  • negatives - population paradox, poor motivation, benefit:risk ratio is low
215
Q

what are some environmental factors that affect lung health?

A
  • Occupational exposure to unsafe chemicals, dusts and fibres
  • Smoking
  • Frequent exposure to second hand smoke
  • Particulate matter
  • Formaldehyde
  • Ozone
  • Asbestos
  • Uranium
  • Arsenic
  • Cadmium
  • Chromium
  • Nickel
  • Some petroleum products
216
Q

what is population attributable risk?

A

How much of a disease in the population is attributable to a particular exposure
Calculate by: risk in population - risk in unexposed

217
Q

what is population attributable fraction?

A

What proportion of disease in the population is attributable to a particular exposure?
Calculate by: (Risk in population - risk in unexposed ) / risk in population

218
Q

what are some psychosocial issues for carers?

A
  • Mental health concerns – depression, anxiety, subclinical stress, ambivalence aout care, feeling isolated
  • Physical health concerns – fatigue, sleep problems etc
  • Secondary strains – finance, work relationship stress, loss of time for self care, reduced QOL
  • Family challenges – conflict about care, lack of support for caregiver, balancing needs of family members, behavioural isues
219
Q

what is palliative care?

A

Palliative care is specialized medical care for people living with a serious illness. This type of care is focused on providing relief from the symptoms and stress of the illness. The goal is to improve quality of life for both the patient and the family.
Palliative care is based on the needs of the patient, not on the patient’s prognosis. It is appropriate at any age and at any stage in a serious illness, and it can be provided along with curative treatment

220
Q

what are the aims of palliative care?

A
  • Improves QOL
    • provides relief from distressing symptoms
    • Supprts life and regards death as a normal process
    • Doesnt quicken or postpone death
    • Combines psycholgoical and spiritual aspects of care
    • Offers a support system to help people live as actively as possible until death
    • Offers a support system to help the family cope during a person’s illness and in bereavement
    • Uses an MDT approach to address the needs of the person who is ill and their families
221
Q

whats a DNA CPR?

A
  • If cardiac or respiratory arrest is an expected part of the dying process and CPR will not be successful in restarting breathing and circulation, discussing, making and recording a decision in advance not to attempt CPR can help to ensure that the patient dies in a dignified and peaceful manner. It may also help the patient achieve their wish of spending their last hours or days at their preferred place of death.
    A recorded DNACPR decision is not, in itself, legally binding and should be regarded as a clinical assessment and decision, made and recorded in advance, to guide immediate clinical decision-making in the event of a patient’s cardiorespiratory arrest.
222
Q

what are some complications of CPR?

A

A systematic review of injuries following CPR attempts identified rib fractures with a frequency of up to 97% and sternal fractures with a frequency of up to 43% in cases of attempted resuscitation. There is also a risk of internal injuries, with the systematic review noting a frequency of 1–5% of cases sustaining cardiac, pulmonary, or intra-abdominal organ injuries. Even if the heart is initially restarted, fewer than half of those who survive initially will survive to go home from hospital.

223
Q

what are the 3 categories that DNACPR decision are based on?

A
  1. perceived futility of CPR (CPR is unlikely to restore spontaneous circulation)
  2. refusal of CPR by the patient with capacity or through an advance decision to refuse treatment
  3. when the burdens of the resuscitation attempt are thought to outweigh the benefits.
224
Q

what are clinical decision support systems?

A

designed to aid clinical decision making. They provide clinicians with patient-specific assessments or recommendations to aid clinical decision making. They may be computerised, paper based, reminder services and may be develped to aid with particular decisions.

225
Q

what may be a barrier to using clinical decision support systems?

A

earlier negative experience of IT
◦ potential harm to doctor-patient relationship
◦ obscured responsibilities i.e. loss of autonomy or reasoning
◦ reminders increase workload

226
Q

what are the positive outcomes from clinical decision support systems so far?

A

useful to aid clinical decision making, can improve practitioner performance and patient decision aids may improve patient knowledge.

227
Q

what are the major causes of food poisoning in the UK?

A

campylobacter, salmonella, E.coli and norovirus

228
Q

what are the major causes of food poisoning globally?

A

campylobacter, salmonella, E.coli, norovirus, listeria, vibrio cholerae, hep A virus, echinococcus spp

229
Q

how long should you stay off school/work after the last episode of diarrhoea from food poisoning?

A

48 hours at least

230
Q

outline the rules with notifiable disease?

A

You muct notify any notifiable diseases, any infection which presents/could present/could have presented significant harm to human health and any contamination which could/has presented significant harm to human health.
Notifications should be made based on clinical suspicion! do not wait for labs!
All urgent cases should be reported by phone within 24 hours as there is often a critical window of time within which effective public health control measures can be implemented. Routine cases should be notified within writing within 3 days.

231
Q

what is epidemiology?

A

the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states and events in specified populations

232
Q

what is an outbreak?

A

as an increase in incidence of a disease above expected levels in a particular location or population in a given time period. Another common definition is the occurrence of a disease in two or more epidemiologically linked individuals, such as those with a confirmed common source of infection.

233
Q

what are the steps in a disease outbreak investigation?

A

Conduct outbreak surveillance and detection.
• Confirm the diagnosis, and assess the public health impact.
• Convene an outbreak control team, and establish communication.
• Establish a case definition and mechanisms for case ascertainment.
• Conduct thorough descriptive epidemiological and preliminary investigations.
• Where relevant, conduct contact tracing and environmental investigations.
• If necessary, undertake an analytical study to identify the cause of the outbreak.
• Communicate the findings.
• Implement and evaluate control strategies.

234
Q

whats some evidence for the role of diet in carcinogenesis?

A

Different cancers are prevalent in different populations and regions of the world e.g. oesophageal in Middle and East China, gastric in Russia and colon in the Western world. The fact that we see striking variations in cancer incidence across the world clearly indicated environmental influence.
Migrant studies showed that lifetime cancer risk in Japenese migrants who moved to hawaii ncreased compared with japanese men who stayed in japan.

Evidence from observational epidemiology that average fruit/veg intake of less than 200g was associated with increased risk of cancer. The average portion size of fruit is 80g so the ‘5 a day’ was introduced.

235
Q

outline how alcohol consumption has changed in history?

A

Alcohol consumption has increased since the 1960s and reached a peak in 2008 when it was most affordable.

236
Q

how many deaths does alcohol use/misuse cause a year?

A

3.3 million deaths (6%)

237
Q

how does socioeconomic status affect typically alcohol consumption rates?

A

People with higher socioeconomic status indicators tend to drink more frequently than others but lower SES groups tend to drink larger quantities of alcohol.

238
Q

how is the alcohol industry targeting youth?

A

flavoured alcoholic beverages

239
Q

In the UK, how do our attitudes to drinking alcohol compare with other countries?

A

we drink to celebrate but also as a coping mechanism

we tend to start consuming alcohol at a younger age and have a greater tendancy to binge drink.

240
Q

what proportion of men and women have an alcohol use disorderS?

A

38% of men

16% of women

241
Q

who in the hospital team has a role designated to alcohol use?

A

There is at least 1 hiospital alcohol health worker per trust

242
Q

what are some consequences of excess alcohol consumption?

A

alcohol related harms, hospital admissions, deaths, public disorder, workplace inefficiency, absences and sick leave, family issues e.g. arguments/violence/debt

243
Q

what are some health promotion strategies against alcohol use?

A

mass media campaigns, restricting exposure of young people to adverts, increasing price and taxation, charging per unit, restricting availability, enforced sobriety for jobs and not selling multi pack alcohol.

244
Q

what are some health promotion strategies against obesity?

A

removing 2 for 1 bargains on unhealthy food
sugar tax
Shops will be encouraged to promote healthier choices and offer more discounts on food like fruit and vegetables.

245
Q

what is causality?

A

the relationship between cause and effect

246
Q

what are the bradford hill criteria for?

A

a group of nine principles that can be useful in establishing epidemiologic evidence of a causal relationship between a presumed cause and an observed effect

247
Q

what are the 9 bradford hill criteria?

A
  1. Strength : A small association does not mean that there is not a causal effect, though the larger the association, the more likely that it is causal.
  2. Consistency (reproducibility): Consistent findings observed by different persons in different places with different samples strengthens the likelihood of an effect.
  3. Specificity: Causation is likely if there is a very specific population at a specific site and disease with no other likely explanation. The more specific an association between a factor and an effect is, the bigger the probability of a causal relationship.
  4. Temporality: The effect has to occur after the cause (and if there is an expected delay between the cause and expected effect, then the effect must occur after that delay).
  5. Biological gradient (dose-response): Greater exposure should generally lead to greater incidence of the effect. However, in some cases, the mere presence of the factor can trigger the effect. In other cases, an inverse proportion is observed: greater exposure leads to lower incidence.
  6. plausibility: A plausible mechanism between cause and effect is helpful (but Hill noted that knowledge of the mechanism is limited by current knowledge).
  7. Coherence: Coherence between epidemiological and laboratory findings increases the likelihood of an effect. However, Hill noted that “… lack of such [laboratory] evidence cannot nullify the epidemiological effect on associations”.
  8. Experiment: “Occasionally it is possible to appeal to experimental evidence”.
  9. Analogy: The use of analogies or similarities between the observed association and any other associations
248
Q

what are the 2 main issues in establishing causality?

A

confounding

reverse causality

249
Q

what is reverse causality?

A

a risk factor is associated with an outcome which leads to the development of another risk factor which is incorrectly associated with the outcome e.g. low BMI as a risk for lung cancer but really high BMI caused lung cancer which caused weight loss or alcohol decreased with associated with angina but really the angina caused the person to decrease their alcohol intake.

250
Q

who does the public health act allows exclusion from work when they have food poisoning?

A
  • persons or doubtful personal hygiene or with unsatisfactory toilet handwashing or drying facilities
  • children in nursery or pre-school groups
  • people whose work involves food prep or handling of ready to eat foods
  • health and social care staff who have contact with highly susceptible patients
251
Q

what is the food safety act 1990?

A

Define food and the enforcement authorities and their responsibilities. It came into force on 1st January 1991 and provides the framework for all its food legislation.

252
Q

what are some offences under the food act 1990?

A
  • the sale of food that has been rendered injurious to health, is unfit for human consumption or is so contaminated that it would not be reasonable to expect it to be used for human consmption
  • the sale of any food which is not of the nature or substance or quality demanded by the purhcased
  • the display of food for sale with a label which falsely describes the food, or is likely to mislead as to the nature or substance or quality of food
253
Q

what are the 4 most common cancers in the UK?

A

breast
prostate
lung
colorectal

254
Q

which cancers have a much higher prevalence in more deprived areas and why?

A

lung, head and neck - smoking prevalence is greater

255
Q

which cancer has the largest relative increase amongst the most affluent groups?

A

malignant Melanoma - afford sun exposure

256
Q

why does a country shift from communicable diseases to primarily non-communicable diseases as a country develops?

A

because of medical care improvements, an ageing population and Public Health interventions e.g. vaccination or clean water

257
Q

what are some dietary risk factors for head and neck cancers?

A

alcohol
very hot drinks
obesity
salted fish

258
Q

what are some dietary risk factors for stomach cancer?

A

salt and salt preserved foods

259
Q

what are some dietary risk factors for colorectal cancer?

A

obesity
red meat
processed meat

260
Q

what are some dietary risk factors for liver cancer?

A

alcohol

261
Q

what are some dietary risk factors for breast cancer?

A

alcohol and obesity after menopause

262
Q

how do we calculate expected utility?

A

with a decision tree