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NREMT Practice Test > 2˚ TEST > Flashcards

2˚ TEST Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Question 1 of 40
    If a patient is experiencing chest discomfort and is alert, which form of oxygen delivery is most appropriate?
    A. Venturi mask
    B. Nasal cannula
    C. Non-rebreather mask
    D. Simple face mask
A

Correct Answer: B. Nasal cannula
For a patient who is alert and experiencing chest discomfort, a nasal cannula is often used for mild to moderate oxygen supplementation.

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2
Q
  1. Question 2 of 40
    For a patient displaying signs of severe anxiety and hyperventilation, the first line of treatment should be:
    A. Administering oxygen
    B. Coaching slow breathing
    C. Immediate sedation
    D. Cardiac monitoring
A

Correct Answer: B. Coaching slow breathing
Slow breathing can help manage symptoms of hyperventilation and severe anxiety effectively.

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3
Q
  1. Question 3 of 40
    Which protocol should be followed for a patient suspected of having a myocardial infarction?
    A. High-flow oxygen only
    B. Aspirin and transport
    C. Nitroglycerin and reassessment
    D. Both aspirin and nitroglycerin before transport
A

Correct Answer: D. Both aspirin and nitroglycerin before transport
Aspirin and nitroglycerin are standard treatments for suspected myocardial infarction to help reduce clotting and improve blood flow to the heart.

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4
Q
  1. Question 4 of 40
    When encountering a burn patient with charred skin and a hoarse voice, what is the primary concern?
    A. Fluid resuscitation
    B. Airway compromise
    C. Infection
    D. Pain management
A

Correct Answer: B. Airway compromise
A patient with charred skin and a hoarse voice likely has airway burns, making airway compromise the primary concern.

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5
Q
  1. Question 5 of 40
    What is the most critical action for an EMT when treating a patient with suspected stroke symptoms?
    A. Immediate blood pressure lowering
    B. Rapid transport to a stroke center
    C. Administration of aspirin
    D. Oral glucose administration
A

Correct Answer: B. Rapid transport to a stroke center
Rapid transport to a stroke center is crucial for a patient with suspected stroke symptoms to enable timely and appropriate treatment.

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6
Q
  1. Question 6 of 40
    Which is the appropriate device to use for a patient with a flail chest to stabilize breathing?
    A. CPAP machine
    B. Cervical collar
    C. Bulky dressing
    D. Oxygen mask
A

Correct Answer: C. Bulky dressing
For a flail chest, stabilizing the chest wall with a bulky dressing can help manage breathing.

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7
Q
  1. Question 7 of 40
    In the event of a patient experiencing an allergic reaction with facial swelling, what is the best initial treatment?
    A. Epinephrine auto-injector
    B. Oral antihistamine
    C. Corticosteroids
    D. Inhaler bronchodilator
A

Correct Answer: A. Epinephrine auto-injector
An epinephrine auto-injector is the best initial treatment for an allergic reaction with symptoms like facial swelling.

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8
Q
  1. Question 8 of 40
    How should an EMT assess a patient with suspected internal bleeding in the abdomen?
    A. Palpate the abdomen for rigidity
    B. Administer a large volume of fluids
    C. Check for rebound tenderness
    D. Visual inspection only
A

Correct Answer: A. Palpate the abdomen for rigidity
Palpating the abdomen can help identify signs of internal bleeding and other injuries.

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9
Q
  1. Question 9 of 40
    For a conscious patient experiencing severe back pain with no trauma history, what is the best initial action?
    A. Immediate spinal immobilization
    B. Pain assessment and management
    C. Application of cold packs
    D. Transport in a sitting position
A

Correct Answer: B. Pain assessment and management
Initial management should focus on assessing and managing pain, especially without a history of trauma.

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10
Q
  1. Question 10 of 40
    Which medication is contraindicated for a patient experiencing acute heart failure symptoms?
    A. Nitroglycerin
    B. Furosemide
    C. Morphine
    D. None of the above
A

Correct Answer: D. None of the above
All listed medications can be appropriate under certain conditions in acute heart failure management, depending on the patient’s specific symptoms and medical history.

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11
Q
  1. Question 11 of 40
    What is the first step in managing a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax?
    A. Needle decompression
    B. High-flow oxygen
    C. Chest tube placement
    D. Auscultation of the lungs
A

Correct Answer: A. Needle decompression
Needle decompression is critical for managing tension pneumothorax to relieve pressure on the lungs and other thoracic structures.

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12
Q
  1. Question 12 of 40
    When responding to a diabetic emergency, if the patient is conscious and able to swallow, you should:
    A. Administer an oral glucose solution
    B. Provide a complex carbohydrate meal
    C. Inject insulin
    D. Wait for advanced medical help
A

Correct Answer: A. Administer an oral glucose solution
If a diabetic patient is conscious and able to swallow, administering oral glucose can quickly raise their blood sugar levels.

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13
Q
  1. Question 13 of 40
    The most effective splinting method for a lower leg fracture is:
    A. Traction splint
    B. Rigid splint
    C. Soft splint
    D. Vacuum splint
A

Correct Answer: A. Traction splint
A traction splint is ideal for stabilizing and aligning fractures of the lower leg to reduce pain and prevent further damage to surrounding tissues.

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14
Q
  1. Question 14 of 40
    You are dispatched to a call for a patient with severe abdominal pain. What is the appropriate position to transport this patient?
    A. Supine
    B. Left lateral recumbent
    C. Fowler’s position
    D. Prone
A

Correct Answer: C. Fowler’s position
Transporting a patient with severe abdominal pain in Fowler’s position (semi-sitting) can help alleviate discomfort.

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15
Q
  1. Question 15 of 40
    A patient with a severe headache and blurred vision should be assessed for:
    A. Stroke
    B. Dehydration
    C. Eye injury
    D. Migraine
A

Correct Answer: A. Stroke
Severe headache and blurred vision are symptoms that should raise suspicion of a stroke.

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16
Q
  1. Question 16 of 40
    In managing a seizure in progress, what is the priority for the EMT?
    A. Restrain the patient to prevent injury
    B. Place something in the patient’s mouth to prevent tongue biting
    C. Protect the patient from injury without restraining movements
    D. Administer anti-seizure medication
A

Correct Answer: C. Protect the patient from injury without restraining movements
During a seizure, it is important to protect the patient from injury without applying restraint, which can cause harm.

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17
Q
  1. Question 17 of 40
    What treatment should be given first to a patient experiencing hypothermia?
    A. Active rewarming
    B. Passive rewarming
    C. Hot drinks
    D. Electric blankets
A

Correct Answer: B. Passive rewarming
Passive rewarming is recommended for hypothermia to gradually increase the body temperature without causing rapid changes.

18
Q
  1. Question 18 of 40
    For a patient who has fainted and is now conscious, what is the most appropriate course of action?
    A. Keep the patient lying down and elevate the legs
    B. Immediately help the patient to stand and walk
    C. Provide fluids to drink
    D. Perform a cardiac workup
A

Correct Answer: A. Keep the patient lying down and elevate the legs
This position helps increase blood flow to the brain and can prevent another fainting episode.

19
Q
  1. Question 19 of 40
    A patient with suspected rabies exposure should receive:
    A. Rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin
    B. Antibiotic treatment
    C. Antiviral medication
    D. Observation only
A

Correct Answer: A. Rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin
Prompt administration of rabies vaccine and immunoglobulin is critical after suspected rabies exposure.

20
Q
  1. Question 21 of 40
    What is the appropriate initial management for a patient experiencing a heat stroke?
    A. Move the patient to a cooler environment and initiate cooling measures.
    B. Encourage the patient to consume caffeinated beverages to stay alert.
    C. Apply warm blankets to stabilize the body temperature.
    D. Provide a high-calorie meal to boost energy.
A

Correct Answer: B. Provide immediate transport
Sudden, severe, localized abdominal pain could indicate a serious condition, necessitating rapid transport to a medical facility.

21
Q
  1. Question 21 of 40
    What is the appropriate initial management for a patient experiencing a heat stroke?
    A. Move the patient to a cooler environment and initiate cooling measures.
    B. Encourage the patient to consume caffeinated beverages to stay alert.
    C. Apply warm blankets to stabilize the body temperature.
    D. Provide a high-calorie meal to boost energy.
A

Correct Answer: A. Move the patient to a cooler environment and initiate cooling measures.
Rapid cooling and moving the patient to a cooler environment are essential for treating heat stroke, a potentially life-threatening condition.

22
Q
  1. Question 22 of 40
    For a patient exhibiting signs of a severe panic attack, what is the best initial approach?
    A. Administer a benzodiazepine as prescribed.
    B. Use a paper bag to control hyperventilation.
    C. Engage in calming conversation and ensure an open airway.
    D. Leave the patient alone in a quiet space to deescalate emotions.
A

Correct Answer: C. Engage in calming conversation and ensure an open airway.
Keeping the patient calm and ensuring an open airway are vital in managing severe panic attacks effectively.

23
Q
  1. Question 23 of 40
    Which intervention is most critical for a patient with a suspected flail chest?
    A. Provide supplemental oxygen and prepare for ventilation support.
    B. Apply a tight bandage around the chest to restrict movement.
    C. Encourage deep breaths to prevent lung collapse.
    D. Administer intravenous fluids to maintain blood pressure.
A

Correct Answer: A. Provide supplemental oxygen and prepare for ventilation support.
Managing breathing and preparing for potential ventilation support are crucial for patients with flail chest due to compromised chest wall stability.

24
Q
  1. Question 24 of 40
    When you arrive on the scene of an accident and the patient has a protruding bone fracture in the leg, what should you do first?
    A. Reposition the bone to its normal alignment.
    B. Stabilize the limb with a splint without disturbing the bone.
    C. Apply direct pressure to the fracture site to stop bleeding.
    D. Elevate the leg to reduce swelling.
A

Correct Answer: B. Stabilize the limb with a splint without disturbing the bone.
Stabilizing the fracture with minimal disturbance to the protruding bone reduces further injury and pain.

25
Q
  1. Question 25 of 40
    You respond to a call for a patient with suspected meningitis. Which of the following symptoms would confirm this suspicion?
    A. A rash that does not fade under pressure.
    B. A headache relieved by over-the-counter painkillers.
    C. Diarrhea and abdominal cramping.
    D. Intermittent bouts of coughing.
A

Correct Answer: A. A rash that does not fade under pressure.
A non-blanching rash is a significant indicator of meningitis, necessitating urgent medical treatment.

26
Q
  1. Question 26 of 40
    How should you treat a patient who is experiencing hyperventilation syndrome?
    A. Instruct the patient to hold their breath for as long as possible.
    B. Coach the patient to breathe slowly through pursed lips.
    C. Provide supplemental oxygen at high flow rates.
    D. Encourage rapid shallow breathing to increase CO2 levels.
A

Correct Answer: B. Coach the patient to breathe slowly through pursed lips.
This technique helps reduce the symptoms of hyperventilation by increasing carbon dioxide levels in the blood.

27
Q
  1. Question 27 of 40
    In the assessment of a patient with abdominal pain, what is the most appropriate question to ask regarding the pain?
    A. “Does the pain move to different areas of your abdomen?”
    B. “Is the pain constant or does it come and go?”
    C. “Have you experienced this pain before?”
    D. All of the above.
A

Correct Answer: D. All of the above.
A comprehensive assessment of abdominal pain can help determine the cause and guide appropriate treatment.

28
Q
  1. Question 28 of 40
    What is the first action to take for a patient who has ingested a caustic substance and is vomiting?
    A. Have the patient drink milk to neutralize the acid.
    B. Perform abdominal thrusts to clear the stomach contents.
    C. Rinse the mouth and face with water, but do not induce further vomiting.
    D. Give activated charcoal to absorb the substance.
A

Correct Answer: C. Rinse the mouth and face with water, but do not induce further vomiting.
Rinsing helps remove residual caustic substance without causing further harm that could result from induced vomiting.

29
Q
  1. Question 29 of 40
    Which technique is most appropriate for assessing whether a patient has a tension pneumothorax?
    A. Auscultate the chest for absence of breath sounds on one side.
    B. Perform a needle decompression immediately without assessment.
    C. Check for jugular vein distension and tracheal deviation.
    D. Both A and C.
A

Correct Answer: D. Both A and C.
Assessing for absent breath sounds and checking for signs like tracheal deviation are critical in diagnosing tension pneumothorax.

30
Q
  1. Question 30 of 40
    What is the best initial management for a patient with a jellyfish sting?
    A. Rub the area with sand to remove tentacles.
    B. Rinse with fresh water.
    C. Apply vinegar to neutralize the venom.
    D. Cover the area with a bandage immediately.
A

Correct Answer: C. Apply vinegar to neutralize the venom.
Vinegar can help neutralize the venom from a jellyfish sting, alleviating pain and preventing further toxin release.

31
Q
  1. Question 31 of 40
    You are treating a patient with frostbite on the fingers. What is the most effective initial treatment?
    A. Rub the affected area to increase circulation.
    B. Immerse the affected area in warm water.
    C. Expose the fingers to direct heat from a fire.
    D. Apply ice to numb the pain.
A

Correct Answer: B. Immerse the affected area in warm water.
Warm water immersion is the most effective initial treatment for frostbite to gently rewarm the tissue and reduce ice crystal formation.

32
Q
  1. Question 32 of 40
    For a patient with a known allergy to bee stings who has been stung and is experiencing facial swelling, what is the priority treatment?
    A. Administer antihistamine orally.
    B. Apply a cold compress to the sting site.
    C. Monitor for signs of anaphylaxis and be prepared to administer epinephrine.
    D. Encourage the patient to remain calm and still.
A

Correct Answer: C. Monitor for signs of anaphylaxis and be prepared to administer epinephrine.
Vigilance for anaphylaxis and readiness to use epinephrine can be life-saving in severe allergic reactions.

33
Q
  1. Question 33 of 40
    When treating a patient who has experienced a near-drowning incident, what is the most important thing to assess first?
    A. Water temperature at the time of the incident.
    B. Amount of water ingested.
    C. Airway patency and breathing effort.
    D. Body temperature to check for hypothermia.
A

Correct Answer: C. Airway patency and breathing effort.
Ensuring the airway is clear and assessing breathing are priorities in managing a patient after a near-drowning incident.

34
Q
  1. Question 34 of 40
    You are first to respond to a call where a patient is actively seizing. What should you do to ensure safety?
    A. Restrain the patient to prevent injury.
    B. Clear the area around the patient to prevent injury.
    C. Place a spoon in the patient’s mouth to protect the tongue.
    D. Immediately begin CPR.
A

Correct Answer: B. Clear the area around the patient to prevent injury.
Safety precautions such as clearing the area minimize the risk of further injury during a seizure.

35
Q
  1. Question 35 of 40
    In a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack, what is the first line treatment?
    A. Administer a high dose of systemic corticosteroids.
    B. Provide a bronchodilator via an inhaler or nebulizer.
    C. Start intravenous fluids to maintain hydration.
    D. Encourage deep breathing exercises to calm the patient.
A

Correct Answer: B. Provide a bronchodilator via an inhaler or nebulizer.
Bronchodilators are the first line of treatment for acute asthma attacks to quickly relieve airway constriction.

36
Q
  1. Question 36 of 40
    What is the primary concern when treating a patient with third-degree burns on the arms and chest?
    A. Immediate pain relief.
    B. Preventing infection in the burn areas.
    C. Ensuring the patient’s airway is not compromised.
    D. Applying cooling gels to the burn areas.
A

Correct Answer: C. Ensuring the patient’s airway is not compromised.
Maintaining airway integrity is critical in patients with third-degree burns on the chest, as swelling and damage may impede breathing.

37
Q
  1. Question 37 of 40
    For a patient exhibiting early signs of shock, what is the most critical action?
    A. Lay the patient down and elevate the legs.
    B. Give the patient fluids to drink if they are conscious.
    C. Administer oxygen and monitor vital signs closely.
    D. Keep the patient warm and calm until help arrives.
A

Correct Answer: C. Administer oxygen and monitor vital signs closely.
Oxygen and close monitoring of vital signs are essential for managing patients showing early signs of shock.

38
Q
  1. Question 38 of 40
    How should an EMT manage a patient who is hyperventilating due to a panic attack?
    A. Encourage the patient to breathe into a paper bag.
    B. Administer supplemental oxygen at a high flow rate.
    C. Coach the patient to take slow, deep breaths.
    D. Provide reassurance and monitor for changes in condition.
A

Correct Answer: C. Coach the patient to take slow, deep breaths.
This technique helps stabilize breathing and alleviate symptoms during a panic attack.

39
Q
  1. Question 39 of 40
    When arriving on the scene of a motor vehicle accident, what is the first thing you should do?
    A. Check the safety of the scene.
    B. Triage the patients according to the severity of their injuries.
    C. Call for additional resources.
    D. Begin immediate extrication of the driver.
A

Correct Answer: A. Check the safety of the scene.
Ensuring scene safety is the first and most critical step before attending to patients in a vehicle accident.

40
Q
  1. Question 40 of 40
    What is the first step in caring for a patient with suspected spinal injury?
    A. Apply a cervical collar.
    B. Perform a detailed neurologic exam on scene.
    C. Move the patient to a backboard.
    D. Assess the patient’s ability to move their extremities.
A

Correct Answer: A. Apply a cervical collar.
A cervical collar is used to immobilize the neck to prevent further spinal injury until more thorough assessment and care can be provided.

NREMT Practice Test (4 decks)

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