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EZY OM(B) (Airbus A320 Family) > 2) Normal Procedures > Flashcards

2) Normal Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What is contained in the QRH?

A

1) A&E procedures
2) In-Flight Performance
3) Ops Data
4) Ops Eng Bulitins (OEB’s)
5) SUP INFO
6) Cold WX Quick Ref

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2
Q

When do you apply the sterile cockpit principle?

A

< 10.000ft

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3
Q

When do you cycle/turn the seat belts sign off?

A

Cycle: to release cabin crew after take off.

Flaps/Slats have to be 0 and conditions adequate

Off: @10.000ft or when conditions permit

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4
Q

When do you expect the first contact from cabin to flight deck?

A

10 min after the seatbelt sign off

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5
Q

Up to which points/in which situations is the A/P usable/recommended to be used?

A

Recommended: N-1 for CATII/III and in abnormal configuration up to 500’ RA Allowed: NPA: up to applicable minima Circling: up to applicable minima -100 ft ILS with CAT II on FMA: 80ft RA ILS without CAT II/III on FMA: 160ft AGL PAR approach: 250ft AGL After Go Around: 100ft AGL ALL OTHER: 500ft AGL

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6
Q

Describe the NADP1 procedure?

A
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7
Q

Describe NADP2 procedure?

A
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8
Q

What is the minimum to be briefed during the cabin crew briefing before the first flight of the day?

What can be briefed additionally?

A
  • Flight times
  • Security Procedures (search, tidy)
  • Weather conditions
  • Training situation or items

NTC’s, Food, Specials, Concerns, Questions, Delays, A/C position/stand, A/C status

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9
Q

What is to be a transit stop?

What should be communicated?

A

If the turnaround is with the same crew or

If the aircraft is taken over between crews via a personal, face to face handover:

  • ​Interior: Defects/Anomalies/OEB’s
  • Exterior: wheel chocks/LG doors/APU area
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10
Q

What should you never do if a Gear Door is seen open on a turnaround/walk around?

A

Never pressurise the green system by switching on the electric yellow hydraulic pump and thus pressurising green via the PTU!!!

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11
Q

What is the affect of inserting the OFP wind component into the MCDU?

A

It ONLY affects trip fuel and time computations

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12
Q

What should be inserted to enable CLB/CRZ/DES ECON speeds?

A

One must upload the winds

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13
Q

How are the MCDU speeds (Grn dot, F, S & Vls) computed?

A

From ZFW & ZFCG

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14
Q

What data do you need in the MCDU to get all the necessairy predictions correctly displayed?

A

ZFW, ZFCG and block fuel

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15
Q

What do you check if you check the DOOR, HYD, ENG displays during the preparation?

A
  • DOOR: OXY level sufficient for flight
  • HYD: correct filling and minimums
  • ENG: if oil levels are sufficient for the intended flight hours
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16
Q

What is the minimum pre set speed on the PERF page prior departure (wrap around speed)?

A

220 kts

or

Greendot + 5 kts

whichever is higher

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17
Q

How do you execute a take off to accelleration with heavy weights/warm conditions where clean speed is highter than 220kts?

A
  • Select speed 220kts
  • @210 kts flaps will retract automatically (max 215 kts F+1), slats stay deployed
  • Once CLB (accellaration phase) displayed on FMA, manage speed and retract slats
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18
Q

What values are applied when doing an pre departure altimeter check?

A
  • PFD - Elevation: +/- 25 ft (this may also be checked at the threshold)
  • PFD - PFD: max 20ft
  • PFD - ISIS: max 100ft
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19
Q

What is the reason for the 3 min engine warm up?

A
  • Thermal schock avoidance on high power application
  • Water purging
  • Center tank check will be finished
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20
Q

When do you use IGN on T/O?

A
  • Standing water on runway
  • Heavy rain falling during T/O
  • Heavy rain or turbulance expected during departure
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21
Q

How do you execute a tailwind and/or crosswind >20kts take off technique?

A
  1. Rolling take off
  2. Side stick full forward
  3. Set 50% N1
  4. Rapidly advance to 70% N1
  5. Gradually set TO N1 (but before 40kts)
  6. From 80kts to 100kts stick gradually to neutral
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22
Q

At what speed does the NWS disconnect from the pedals during take off?

A

130 kts

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23
Q

How do you do the battery check on the preliminary ?

A

If A/C not been electrically supplied for <6hours:

Check 25.5V (ensures >50% charge)

If not apply 20 minutes charging procedure

If A/C has been electrically supplied for >6hours:

BAT 1 and 2 AUTO

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24
Q

If you start the APU on batteries only, within what time frame should it be started after switching the batteries AUTO? (Provided 25.5V minimum)

A

Within 30 minutes of selecting the batteries to AUTO

(35 minutes after AUTO selected, battery charge is less than 25% of maximum capacity)

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25
Q

Can you test the APU fire system when the APU is running?

A

Yes

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26
Q

EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT

What should be checked in the flight deck?

A
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27
Q

What is the maximum difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position regarding an ADIRS re-alignment?

A
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28
Q

What selections does one make on the ground with regards to Pack usage?

A

ONE PACK OPERATION ON GROUND (#1)

PACK FLOW:

  • LO if the number of pax is
  • HI for abnormally hot and humid conditions
  • NORM for all other normal operating cases
  • If APU is supplying air, HI flow is automatically selected by the system regardless of the switch position
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29
Q

What is checked during pre flight on the DOOR/OXY page?

A

Check if the REGUL LO PR message is NOT displayed.

This ensures that the LP valve is OPEN

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30
Q

Discribe the procedure for RE-OPENING DOORS on the ground after slides have been aremed prior engine start:

A
  • Communication to be estabished between CM1 and SCCM
  • CM1 to give authorisation for the cabin doors to be disarmed and reopened
  • CM2 to make the PA “Cabin crew, disarm doors for arrival”
  • CM1 turns seat belt signs off
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31
Q

Prior start, when do you switch the XPNDR on?

A

When receiving the start up clearance

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32
Q

What do you do if ground staff report an engine fuel leak from the drainmast during start?

A
  • Run the engine for 5 minutes. If leak stops one can dispatch
  • If after 5 min still leak but
  • If after 5 min leak is between 60 and 90 drops/min maintainance is required within 25 cycles
  • If leakage is > 90 drops/min, shutdown engine and seek advice from MOC
  • If leakage is NOT from the drainmast, immediate maintainance action is required
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33
Q

Discribe the important indications during an engine start:

A

​N2 increases Start valve in line (LD)

Bleed pressure indic Green (LD)

Oil pressure increases (LD)

At 16% N2 Indication of active ignitor (LD)

At 22% N2 FF increases

Max 15 secs after fuel is on:

  • EGT increases
  • N1 Increases

At 50% N2 Start valve cross line (LD)

Ignitor indication off (LD)

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34
Q

What do you do if electrical power supply is interrupted during an engine start?

A
  1. Abort engine start by MASTER switch OFF
  2. Perform a 30 second dry crank (check QRH)
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35
Q

What are the indications of a stable engine after start?

A
  • N1 about 19,5% (20)
  • N2 about 58,5% (60)
  • EGT about 390°C (400)
  • FF about 275kg/h (300)
  • Grey background on N2 indication disappears
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36
Q

What is the restriction on IDLE run prior take off is an OETD to a remote hold has been performed?

A

Both engines must have ran IDLE together for a minimum of 5 minutes.

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37
Q

What do you do if you have a HYD LO PR after start?

A

You can remove it by either selecting the Y ELEC PUMP ON or by starting ENG 2

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38
Q

When do you expect icing conditions?

A

When OAT (on ground and for Take Off) or the TAT (in flight) is 10°C or below

and there is visible moisture in the air (clouds, fog with low vis, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals) or when standing water, slush, ice or snow is present on the run- and/or taxiway

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39
Q

When do you need to do the engine ice shedding procedure on the ground?

A

If on the ground in icing conditions for more than 30 minutes

Check cold weather operations for procedure

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40
Q

What are the maximum speeds during taxi?

A
  • 30 kts in a straight line
  • 10 kts for a sharp turn

Don’t ride the brakes

If in IDLE and >30 kts, brake (one application) to 10 kts

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41
Q

When does AUTO BRAKE MAX work?

A
  • Selected for Take Off ONLY
  • If Take Off is aborted system applies max brake pressure if:
    • Thrust levers are selected IDLE and
    • groundspeed is >72kts
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42
Q

What are the rules for FLEX temperature corrections?

A
  • If suddenly ENG A/ICE ON, substract 5°C
  • If suddenly QNH drops, substract 1°C/2hPa

(If only 1 hPa, also substract 1°C)

If OAT or TRef is reached by applying these corrections a recalculation on the EFB for TO is required

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43
Q

Describe the procedure for a turn on the runway and what the minimum width of a runway for a 180° turn is

A

30m width minimum

CM1 turns on the right-hand side, CM2 on the left-hand side

25° divergence of runway axis

Max speed 10kts

A319: when 2m from runway edge, full right/left turn and set 30-35% N1 (target groundspeed 5-8kts)

A320: when physically over edge of runway , full right/left turn and set 30-35% N1 (target groundspeed 5-8kts)

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44
Q

Which parameters must be checked by PM for “Take-off thrust set”?

A
  • Actual N1 has reached N1 rating before 80kts
  • Limit is rating limit -1%
  • Maximum split between engines is 1%
  • Check EGT is within limits (TOGA 950°C)
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45
Q

What should you do if you have a tailstrike on take off?

A

Avoid flying at an altitude requiring a pressurized cabin and return to the originating airport for damage assessment

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46
Q

After take off, when can A/P be engaged?

A

At 100 ft AAL

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47
Q

What are the effects of selecting the first Pack on after thrust reduction and the second one 10 seconds later?

A
  1. Selecting Pack ON after reducing take-off thrust decreases the chance of a hight EGT
  2. It increases
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48
Q

OPT FL (optimum flight level on MCDU PROG page) is a function of…….

A
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49
Q

What is the buffet margin at MAX REC FL on the MCDU PROG page?

A

0.3 g

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50
Q

When do you set STANDARD?

A

When cleared to a Flight Level

(In general one should wait until CLB is showing on FMA. This means accelleration phase has begun on local pressure altitude. It is not in OM(B) though…)

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51
Q

When should engine A/ICE be used during fligh?

A

ENG A/ICE MUST be ON during all flight operations, when icing conditions exist, or are anticipated

execpt during climb and cruise when the SAT is

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52
Q

Once in Cruise and as PF, what do you check?

A
  1. ECAM MEMO
  2. ECAM SYS PAGES
  • ENG: Oil pressure and temperature
  • BLEED: Bleed parameters
  • ELEC: Parameters, Gen loads/temp
  • HYD: a slight decrease is normal (Gear, cold soak)
  • FUEL: distribution
  • COND: Duct temperature v.s. zone temperature
  • FLT CTL: No unusual control surface postition
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53
Q

What should an enroute fuel check consist of and when do you do them?

A

​Crew must note:

  1. Time of observation
  2. FOB remaining
  3. EFOB on landing
  4. Block Fuel - Used Fuel = FOB
  • ​Shall be done on the OFP at TOC or CRZ altitude
  • Thereafter shall be done (written) at intervals not exceeding 1 hour
  • Verbal check shall be made at 30 minutes intervals
  • On shorter flights 1 fuel check shall be recorded on OFP
  • unless total elapsed time from take-off to landing is
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54
Q

If GPS PRIMARY is available, NO navigation accuracy check/monitoring has to be performed.

When MUST we monitor navigation accuracy?

A
  • ​IRS ONLY navigation
  • The PROG page shows LOW accuracy
  • “NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD” appears on the MCDU
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55
Q

How do you check the nav accuracy if necessary?

A
  1. On the RAD NAV page, manually tune VOR (VOR/DME or ADF) to a station within range and select associated needles on the ND
  2. Check that the needle overlays the blue navaid (FM computed) in the ND and check DME distance
  3. Insert a VOR/DME ident in BRG/DIST TO field on PROG page and compare computed BRG (DIST) with raw data on ND
  • If check
  • If check >3Nm: FM position is not reliable
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56
Q

What is the maximum value of Vapp determiined without failure?

A

VLS + 15 kts in case of strong crosswinds of >20 kts

In case VLS is increased, Landing distance performance MUST be performed!

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57
Q

What is the minimum Vapp value on approach?

A

VLS + 5

If VAPP

(VAPP = VLS + 1/3 of the headwind component)

58
Q

What are the considerations for a FLAP 3 landing?

A

​Flap 3 SHOULD be used for normal landings provided:

  • Care MUST be excercised to achieve a stable appr
  • No technical defects affecting landing performance (unless required)
  • NO contamination
  • The computed IFLD from EFB/QRH+15%
  • FLAP 3* is selected in LDG CONFIG on PERF APP
  • The GPWS LDG FLAP 3 pb is selected ON
59
Q

What is the break even distance between FLAP 3 + Auto Br LO and FLAP FULL?

A
60
Q

What are the main considerations for the selection of autobrake?

A
  • Landing distance v.s. autobrake level
  • Dry, normal length: LO is recommended, idle reverse
  • Contaminated, short length: MED is recommended
  • LOW VIS: check length v.s. required exit
  • If very long runway, autobrake is not necessary
61
Q

Discribe the OM(B) proposed DESCENT PLANNING

A
62
Q

Name DESCENT v.s. speedbrake considerations

A
  • Do not use DES mode and speedbrakes
  • If AP + 315 kts/M.75, rate of retraction is low (25 seconds full cycle). SPD BRAKES in amber
  • Deselect speedbrakes 2000 ft prior altitude capture
63
Q

What are the crew actions in case of a GPS/FM position failure during VOR/NDB Overlay Approaches?

A
  • If “FM/GPS POS DISAGREE” ECAM: use selected guidance to continue appraoch with radio NAVAID raw data
  • If “GPS PRIMARY” is lost, NAV and FINAL APP can be used to continue the appraoch provided radio NAVAID shows correct navigation
64
Q

What are the BARO VNAV deviation limits?

A
  • +/- 75 ft

or 3/4 index fly up and down

If these values are exeeded a Go Around MUST be flown!!!

65
Q

What are the restrictions for the use of LATERAL MANAGED guidance on a NPA?

A
  • ​Navigation database must be current
  • The appraoch is stored in the nav database
  • GPS primary MUST be available
  • Conventional aids MUST be displayed
66
Q

What are the restrictions for the use of VERTICAL MANAGED guidance on a NPA?

A
  • ​Navigation database must be current
  • The appraoch is stored in the nav database
  • GPS primary MUST be available
  • Conventional aids MUST be displayed
  • NO temperature correction needs to be applied
  • The final approach is not revised by the crew in the MCDU (Final descent point to MAP)
  • Trajectory is LAT and VERT intercepted prior FDP
  • LAT and VERT trajectory are monitored agains raw data
67
Q

Summerize the Stable Criteria:

A
  • SHOULD be stable at 1000’ TDZE, MUST be stable by 500 ft RA (exept bank angle in case of circling)
  • Aircraft in Landing Configuration
  • Target Vapp +10/-5
    • ILS LOC and GS +/- 1 dot
  • Bank Angle
  • Transient deviations due to atmospherical conditions are acceptable if corrected in a timely manner
  • Circling at 400’ RA max 15°AOB withing +/-30° of track
  • BY 1000’ TDZE: A/C in landing config and speed
  • BY 500’ RA: Stable criteria achieved and maintained, landing checklist completed
68
Q

When do you use a DECELERATED APPROACH technique?

A

This is the standard technique for:

  • ILS
  • Approach flown via FINAL APP
69
Q

When MAY you use the EARLY STABILIZED APPROACH technique?

A

Basis: speed for appraoch is reduced down to VAPP in landing config at the FDP

Examples:

  • Approach via selected/selected guidance
  • high glide path angle
  • low altitude intermediate approach

Select VAPP in MCDU as speed constraint at FDP!!!

70
Q

What are the diffirent DISCONTINUED APPROACH techniques and rules?

A

If AT or ABOVE FCU altitude you CAN apply the DISCONTINUED method:

  • Announce “CANCEL APPROACH”
  • If ILS or FINAL APP, press APPR pb/LOC pb to disarm
  • Select lateral mode as required (NAV or HDG)
  • Select vertical mode as required (V/S)
  • Select SPEED and adjust

(You can ALWAYS elect to use the GO AROUND method)

71
Q

Can you use WING A/ICE on landing?

A

Yes but ONLY in severe icing conditions

Otherwise switch it off after landing flap selected

72
Q

What parameters does the PM check and call during approach?

A
  • Speed lower than target speed - 5kts
  • Speed greater than target speed + 10 kts
  • Pitch +10°
  • AOB > 7°
  • A descent rate >1000’/min (or +150’/min for every 0.5° GPA)
73
Q

What are the requirements for a Lower Than Standard CAT I approach (LTS CAT I)?

A
  1. ​ILS promulgated as LTS CAT 1 and minima published
  2. A/C MUST be capable of Autoland & it MUST be performed
  3. CAT 1 DA and LTS CAT 1 RVR apply
  4. Visual references required are the same as for CAT 2
  5. LVP’s MUST be in force
  6. No OFP publication that restricts LTS CAT 1 for the intended runway
74
Q

What are the requirements for a CAT 2 approach (DH 100 ft)?

A
  1. At least ONE autopilot is coupled down to DH
  2. CAT 2, CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA
  3. Published charts and minima to be used
  4. Autoland is the normal way of landing on a CAT 2

Note:

(CAT 2 appraoch capability has been demonstrated on CAT 2 and CAT 3 quality ILS beams)

75
Q

What are the requirements for conducting a CAT 3A approach (DH below 100’ RA but not below 50’ RA)?

FAIL PASSIVE

A
  1. At least ONE autopilot is coupled for approach and automatic landing
  2. CAT 3 SINGLE or CAT 3 DUAL is displayed on FMA
  3. In case of absolute minima: 50’ RA, 200m RVR
  4. Autoland capability has been demonstrated on CATII and CAT III ILS beams
76
Q

What are the requirements for conducting a CAT 3B approach (DH below 50’ RA or NO DH)?

FAIL OPERATIONAL

A
  1. At least TWO autopilots are coupled for approach and automatic landing AND roll-out
  2. CAT 3 DUAL MUST be displayed on FMA
  3. In case of absolute minima: NO DH, 75m RVR
  4. Autoland capability has been demonstrated on CATII and CAT III ILS beams
77
Q

What are the general considerations prior conducting a CAT 2 or 3 approach?

A
  1. Aircraft Status check
  2. Weather: RVR at destination MUST be available for CAT 2 and 3 approaches
  3. Approach Ban
  4. ATC Call: either LVP’s on ATIS or confirmation of CAT2/3 facilities in order
  5. Seat Position: line up with red/white ball
  6. Use of landing lights: on or off due to glare
  7. RVR’s SHOULD be given prior 1000’ TDZE
  8. CM1 = PF, CM2 = PM
78
Q

What is the appraoch ban?

A

The FINAL APPROACH segment MAY NOT be continued beyond 1000ft if the reported RVR is below the published minima for the required transmissometers.

After 1000ft, if RVR becomes lower than the minima, the approach MAY be continue

79
Q

If flying an approach with FINAL APP, what is the minimum aircraft equipment necessary?

A
  1. 1 FMS MUST be operative in GPS PRIMARY
  2. 1 MCDU (PF)
  3. 1 FD (PF)
  4. 1 PFD (PF)
  5. 1 ND (PF)
  6. BOTH FCU channels
80
Q

What differences between the appraoch chart and the MCDU F-PLN A page for a FINAL APP guidance appraoch, are acceptable?

What is the max BARO REF difference between altimeters?

A
  • 0.1 degree difference vertical path
  • 1 degree difference lateral track
  • 3 degrees difference for conventional navaid approach
  • 100 ft
81
Q

What do you revert to if doing a VOR or NDB approach via FINAL APP guidance and either lateral or vertical guidance is not satisfactory?

A
  • NAV/FPA, if the vertical guidance is not satis
  • TRK/FPA, if the lateral AND vertical guidance are not statis
82
Q

In which 2 cases, on a FINAL APP flown RNAV(GNSS) approach with LNAV/VNAV or LNAV minima should one use the remaining appropriate AP/FD modes?

A
  • GPS PRIMARY LOST on one ND
  • NAV ACUR DOWNGRAD on one FMGS
83
Q

In which cases MUST you discontinue the FINAL APP flown RNAV(GNSS) appraoch with LNAV/VNAV or LNAV only minima?

A
  1. ‘GPS PRIMARY LOST’ on BOTH ND’s
  2. XTK > 0.3 Nm
  3. ‘NAV FM/GPS POS DISAGREE’ on ECAM
  4. ‘NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD’ on both FMGS
  5. In case of LNAV/VNAV minima in case of deviation of >75ft below the vertical path (V/DEV > 3/4 dot)
84
Q

LOC and/or GS capture modes will engage NO sooner than ….. seconds after being armed?

A

3 seconds

85
Q

What is the ICAO defined envelope where the quality of the G/S signal ensures a normal capture?

A
  • Within 10 Nm
  • +/- 8° of the ILS glide path
  • up to 1,75° and down to 0,3° nominal glide path angle
86
Q

What is the SOP to intercept the glide slope after LOC* if one is above the glide slope?

A
  • APPR pb on FCU……………………ensure pressed
  • V/S MODE…………………………select - 1500 ft/min
  • FCU Altitude………………..set above A/C altitude

Note: When reachting VFE, the AP maintains VFE and automatically reduces V/S without MODE REVERSION

87
Q

Where do you need to achieve the TOUCHDOWN?

A

In the touchdown zone which is either:

  • The first 1000m or
  • The first 1/3rd of the runway, whichever is less

Else initiate a balked landing

88
Q

With regards to the use of reversers on landing, how does the EFB take reversers into account for the in-flight landing calculation?

A

EFB defaults to both reversers operating (MAX REV) for all runway conditions.

If you want to know the distance without reversers, select: Aircraft Status - ALL REV INOP or NO reversers

This is also the case for using IDLE REV on landing!!! Check landing distance in-flight!

89
Q

What is the main issue of ground spoilers not deploying next to the fact that lift is not dumped?

A

AUTO BRAKE will not be activated

90
Q

What does the call “DECEL” on landing imply?

A
  1. Decelleration is felt by the crew AND
  2. confirmed with the speed trend on the PFD
91
Q

When do you stow the reversers after landing?

A
  • Upon reaching taxi speed
  • On snow-covered grounds prior 25 kts due to snow ingestion
92
Q

Prior which speed should AUTO BRAKE be disengaged?

A

20 kts

93
Q

What is the recommended time after selecting REV IDLE to start the APU?

A

1 minute

94
Q

How long is the cooling time after landing before OET can be commenced and below which N1 should the engine have been for that period of time?

A

3 minutes

95
Q

What are the conditions that have to be met to perform a OET after landing?

A
  • All hydraulic systems working normally
  • APU + APU GEN + GEN 1 are correctly operating
  • NSW steering and braking action has been normal
  • Cooling time of 3 minutes (N1
  • Taxiways are not slippery or contaminated with snow or ice
  • PF confirms actions of the PM (incl “At parking” items)
  • The actions are done in a straight line
96
Q

On parking, brake pressure is checked and not withing the green band. What do you request?

A

Chocks prior shutting down ENG #1

97
Q

Upon parking, when can the beacon light be switched off?

A

N1

98
Q

Why do you have to wait until the APU flap is fully closed, before you switch the batteries to OFF?

A
  • Causes smoke in the cabin at the next flight
  • If the batteries are off when the APU runs, there is NO APU fire extinguishing
99
Q

State: a command for the other pilot to check an item

A

“CHECK…..”

100
Q

The response that one states when he has checked an item:

A

“CHECKED”

101
Q

A call out verifying info from both the pilot stations

A

“CROSSCHECKED”

102
Q

Commencement of a checklist

A

“-name of checklist- CHECKLIST”

103
Q

Call that is made when passing 1000 ft prior an altitude or FL

A

PM: “ ONE THOUSAND TO GO”

PF: “CHECKED”

104
Q

When the PF sets the FCU altitude below the relevant Safety Altitude and announces the FMA, PM responds:

A

“CHECKED - BELOW SAFETY ALTITUDE”

105
Q

What does the call “ATTENTION. CREW AT STATION” imply and what will be done?

A

During ground operation when an emergency evacuation MAY BE required

In fligt it is used to alert the Cabin Crew that an event has occured and the Flight Deck are dealing with it. Crew are to stow any unnecessary equipment, return to their assined position and await further instructions

106
Q

When SEVERE turbulance is either encountered or expected and insufficient time is available for normal procedure you call:

A

“Cabin Crew and Passengers be seated immediately”

107
Q

You will use “Cabin Crew Normal Operations” when:

A

On the ground: when the potential for an emergency evacuation NO more excists

In Flight: when the cabin crew can resume normal cabin operations

108
Q

Passing 2000’ in the descent for a planned emergency landing:

A

“CABIN CREW, TAKE UP LANDING POSITIONS”

109
Q

When an Unplanned Emergency landing is imminent you call:

A

“ATTENTION! BRACE, BRACE”

110
Q

If an emergency evacuation is required, you call via PA:

A

“EVACUATE! UNFASTEN YOUR SEAT BELTS AND GET OUT!”

111
Q

If you loose RNAV capability during departure or arrival, what do you use via RT?

A

“UNABLE (designator) DEPARTURE/ARRIVAL, DUE EQUIPEMENT”

112
Q

What is defined as a “steeper angle approach”?

A

Approaches with a flight path angle of between

>3.5° and

113
Q

What is the approach flight path limitation for the A320 family?

A
  • 4.5°

Everything lower than this is considered normal

114
Q

What type of approaches are approved for Steeper Angle Approaches?

A
  • CAT I (LOC+GS)
  • LOC without GS (LOC/FPA or V/S)
  • NPA’s
  • Visual Approaches with PAPI’s

Limits to remain unchanged:

  • MLW
  • FWD and AFT CG limits
  • Max landing elevation
  • TW & CW limits
  • Single Engine operations are allowed!!!
115
Q

If the approach is >3.5° which approach technique MUST be used?

A

Stabilized appraoch procedure

116
Q

What are the limitations for steeper appraoches?

A
  • AUTOLAND NOT APPROVED
  • CAT II/III NOT APPROVED
117
Q

What is the required, minimum equipment that MUST be operative to conduct an RVSM flight?

A
  • 2 ADR’s + 2 main altitude indications
  • 1 ATC xpdr
  • 1 AP in ALT and OPEN CLB/DES modes
  • FCU altitude selection and (OPEN) CLB/DES slection
  • 1 FWC for altitude alert function
118
Q
A
119
Q

What is the maximum allowable overshoot of an altitude in RVSM?

A

150 ft

120
Q

What is the time interval to do random RVSM checks?

A

1 hour

121
Q

In which cases, while flying in RVSM airspace, MUST you inform ATC?

A
  • Failure of BOTH AP’s
  • Loss of altimeter redundance and only 1 remaining
  • Excessive dicrepancy of altitude indications
  • Encounter of severe turbulance
  • Abnormal situation preventing A/C to maintain assigned FL
122
Q

BRNAV, EU Airspace

What is the minimum RNP level?

A

5

123
Q

What is the minimum required equipment to enter BRNAV airspace?

A

One RNAV system, which means:

General

  • 1 FMGC
  • 1 MCDU
  • 1 VOR or 1 GPS receiver for FM navigation update
  • 1 DME or 1 GPS receiver for FM navigation update
  • 1 IRS

Specific

  • On PF side: PFD and ND must be operative
  • On PM side: at least 1 of the 2 EFIS must be operative (backup for temporary display if of ND info via PFD/ND switch
124
Q

Which message on the MCDU or ECAM need a raw data accuracy check or crosscheck with GPS MONITOR page?

A
  • NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD
  • FMS1/FMS2 POS DIFF
  • CHECK IRS 1 (2)(3)/FM POSITION
  • ECAM: FM/GPS POS DISAGREE (if GPS installed)
125
Q

If accuracy check confirms RNP-5 capability lost, or if both FMGCs have failed what are your actions?

A
  • Inform ATC
  • If only the accur check confirms only 1 FMGC position is incorrect, resume navigation with other FMGC

In INERTIAL NAV BRNAV compatibility is maintained for 2 hours, independently of the estimated accuracy displayed on the MCDU

126
Q

What is the minimum equipment required to fly P-RNAV or RNAV-1 procedures?

(be aware, for some procedures additional systems might be necessary due to legs below MFA or unsufficient radar coverage. Always check the charts! It concerns the accuracy of the lateral and veritcal profile!)

A
  • 1 FMGC
  • 1 MCDU
  • 1 GPS receiver, or
  • 1 VOR + 1 DME (in both cases procedure might prescribe GPS mandatory)
  • 2 IRS’s
  • 1 FD in NAV mode
  • On PF side: PFD + ND must be operative
  • On PM side: at least 1 of 2 EFIS screens must be operative
127
Q

What are the default Area RNP Values?

A
  • Enroute: 2.0 Nm
  • Terminal: 1.0 Nm
  • Approach: GPS 0.3 Nm
  • Approach: Other 0.5 Nm
128
Q

What is the definition of the Appraoch Area with regards to RNAV?

A

Circle of 15 Nm radius from the airport (if no appraoch procedure) or 5 Nm to the first waypoint of the approach procedure

129
Q

What is the definition of the Terminal Area with regards to RNAV?

A

The area outside of the approach area and within 51 Nm from departure or destination airport or out of the approach area and

130
Q

What is defined as the Enroute Area with regards to RNAV?

A

The out of the appraoch and terminal area

131
Q

What area is best to check for icing?

A

The Representative Surface:

  • Landing gear well
  • Black lines on upper surface of the wing
  • # 1 spoiler
  • Representative surface inner wing, front to back
132
Q

What should the Pre-Take Off contamination check at least comprise of?

A
  • Wing Leading edge
  • Wing Trailing edge
  • Wing Spoilers to check fluid condition
133
Q

Discribe the On Ground Engine Ice Shedding (Fan Icing)

A

​Is done when icing conditions exceed 30 minutes on the ground or significant engine vibration is encountered

  • Accellerate to 70% N1
  • for 30 seconds
  • repeat at intervals not greater than 30 minutes and prior high thrust operation

When in Freezing rain/drizzle/fog or heavy snow, repeat every 10 minutes

If aircraft starts to move, close thrust levers immediately!

134
Q

What are the external considerations to make when you are applying the Engine Ice shedding procedure on the ground?

A
  • Inform ATC (due to jetblast)
  • Consider informing the crew and pax
  • Consider TO CONFIG warning if procedure is done with Flap 0
135
Q

What is the ground clearance of the engine nacelle v.s. the ground?

A

0,56 m

136
Q

What is the increase of engine thrust when engine anti-ice is on?

A

25%

137
Q

If you taxi out on snow covered area’s the RA might not cmpute any data. What ECAM warnings may be triggered?

Can you disregard when taxiing?

Can you disregard for take off?

A
  • DUAL ENG FAILURE
  • ANTI ICE CAPT TAT FAULT
  • ANTI ICE F/O TAT FAULT
  • L/G SHOCK ABSORBER FAULT

Yes, you may disregard during taxi but you MAY NOT take off with these ECAM warnings!!!

138
Q

From which aerodrome temperature SHOULD all appraoch procedures altitudes be corrected in accordance OMA 8.8.3?

A

From -10°C aerodrome temperature

139
Q

How much runway length less does one need if the runway is covered with slush (1/2inch) with regards to CONFIG FULL v.s. CONFIG 3 (@60.000kg)?

A

150m less

140
Q

Must the EFB’s be disconnected during take off and landing?

A

Yes

141
Q

What is the max speed to cross arrestor cables?

A

40 kts

142
Q
A

EZY OM(B) (Airbus A320 Family) (12 decks)

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