2: emergency box Flashcards

1
Q

sodium bicarbonate classiffication

A

natural anticholinergic

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2
Q

when is 10% calcium chloride or calcium gluconate used

A

when the heart stops

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3
Q

what is used to correct PVC

A

2% lidocaine

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4
Q

what is atropine

A

organo phosphate reversal

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5
Q

what is doxapram

A

respiratory stimulant

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6
Q

when is prednisolone sodium succinate used

A

trauma cases

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7
Q

what drug is good for seizure patients

A

diazepam

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8
Q

diazepam aka

A

valium

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9
Q

what is also used as an appetite stimulant

A

valium

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10
Q

naloxone aka

A

narcan

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11
Q

what drug reverses narcotics

A

naloxone

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12
Q

what reverses xylosine

A

yohimbine

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13
Q

what is used on burn patients

A

heparin

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14
Q

furosemide aka

A

lasix

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15
Q

what is used to reduce swelling

A

mannitol 20%

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16
Q

how much drug is given IT

A

2xIV dose

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17
Q

how are drugs given IT

A

directly into tracheal lumen or urinary catheter down an ET tube

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18
Q

what drug is most common for cardiac arrest and allergies

A

epinephrine

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19
Q

what drug stimulates heart contractions and blood flow to vital organs

A

epinephrine

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20
Q

most common epinephrine ratio

A

1:1000

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21
Q

what is epinephrine often used to treat (3)

A

anaphylatic shock, epistaxis

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22
Q

what drug increases glycogenolysis to release glucose from the liver

A

epinephrine

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23
Q

where is epinephrine stored

A

refrigerated and away from light

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24
Q

what drug stimulates the myocardium

A

dopamine

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25
Q

what is dopamine used for (3)

A

CPR, shock therapy, renal failure

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26
Q

what could raise and should be closely monitored when giving a patient dopamine

A

blood presser and cardiac output

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27
Q

what drug should be administered by a carefully monitored CRI

A

dopamine

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28
Q

what concentrations of dopamine are there

A

40,80, and 160 mg/ml

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29
Q

what drug can cause arrhythmias, dyspnea, anxiety, excitability, and nausea

A

dopamine

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30
Q

what does sodium bicarbonate 8.4% correct

A

metabolic acidosis

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31
Q

what is used for shock, severe D+, cardiac disease, hyperkalemia, cardiac arrest over 10 minutes

A

sodium bicarbonate 8.4%

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32
Q

what is sodium bicarbonates concentration

A

8.4%

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33
Q

when is sodium bicarbonate contraindicated

A

vomiting and hypokalemia

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34
Q

what test should be run with sodium bircabonate

A

blood gas

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35
Q

what is the most common concentration of atropine

A

0.54 mg/ml

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36
Q

what parasympathetic anticholinergic increases heart rate

A

atropine

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37
Q

what is an antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

atropine

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38
Q

what should be done to stop PVC

A

give atropine slowly till stopped

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39
Q

what should be used with caution in horses and rumnents

A

atropine

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40
Q

what is useful for AV block and systole

A

atropine

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41
Q

what drug lowers gut motility

A

atropine

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42
Q

what does atropine dilate

A

pupils and bronciols

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43
Q

glycopyrrolate aka

A

robinul

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44
Q

what class is glycopyrolate

A

synthetic anticholinergic

45
Q

what anticholinergic is better for sight hounds and C-sections

A

glycopyrrolate

46
Q

what is the common dose for glycopyrrolate

A

0.2mg/ml

47
Q

why is glycopyrrolate better than atropine

A

longer duration

48
Q

what drug is used in severe hypocalcemic cases

A

calcium chloride 10%

49
Q

how should calcium chloride be given

A

slowly IV

50
Q

what can cause inflammation, necrosis, and sloughing if given extravascularly

A

calcium chloride

51
Q

when should calcium chloride be used with caution

A

nephrocalcinosis and digitalis patients

52
Q

what is used for hypercalcemia, hyperkalemia, and ventricular asystole

A

calcium gluconate

53
Q

what is used to restart contractions and strengthen heart muscle

A

calcium gluconate

54
Q

if calcium gluconate has to be given IC where should it be injected

A

left ventricle

55
Q

what is lidocaine classified as

A

local analgesic block

56
Q

what is lidocaine used for

A

ventricular arrhythmias

57
Q

how much lidocaine should be given for ventricular arrhythmias

A

2mg/kg

58
Q

how should lidocaine be given

A

slow IV till arrhythmia is stopped

59
Q

how many doses of IV doxapram HCL should be given

A

only 1 to prevent overdose

60
Q

when is doxapram HCL contraindicated

A

seizure patients

61
Q

what immunosurpressent glucocorticoid inhibits phospholipase and is an anti-inflammitory

A

dexamethasone

62
Q

when is dexamethasone used

A

in shock or trauma to lower edema

63
Q

what immunosurpressent stops asthma and allergic reactions

A

prednisolone sodium succinate

64
Q

what is used for spinal or intracranial trauma and shock

A

prednisolone sodium succinate

65
Q

what type of drug commonly causes polyphagia, PU/PD, panting, weakness, bilateral alopecia

A

steroids

66
Q

what type of drug will raise blood values (esp. glucose)

A

steroids

67
Q

what do steroids decrease (3)

A

thyroid hormone, protein synthesis, wound healing

68
Q

when are steroids not recommended (3)

A

during healing fractures, young animals, and pregnant animals

69
Q

when should steroids be used with caution (3)

A

CHF, diabetics, renal disease

70
Q

what drug is an anticonvulsent

A

diazepam

71
Q

what dosage forms does diazepam come in (4)

A

tablet, injectable, oral sol’n, rectal gel

72
Q

is diazepam controlled

A

yes

73
Q

what is also used for chocolate, nicotine, and aspirin toxicity

A

diazepam

74
Q

what drug is a psychotheraputic

A

phenobarbitol

75
Q

how often should theraputic levels be checked when on phenobarbitol

A

every 6 months

76
Q

what can phenobarbitol control

A

seizures

77
Q

what class is pentobarbital in

A

barbituate anticonvulsant

78
Q

what dose form does pentobarbital come in

A

injectable only

79
Q

what is a second choice seizure medication due to its narrow safety margin

A

pentobarbital

80
Q

what is used to treat shock, increased cardiac output and arterial blood pressure

A

narcan

81
Q

what are 2 common side effects of naloxone

A

lowers hemoconcentration and metabolic acidosis

82
Q

what does naloxone prevent

A

hypoglycemia

83
Q

what is used for romifidine reversal

A

yohimbine

84
Q

torbugesic/ torbutrol aka

A

butophanol

85
Q

what is butorphanol used for

A

skin or declaw

86
Q

what is the common concentration of heparin

A

10000 IU/ml

87
Q

what is heparin used for

A

clot prevention and burn victims

88
Q

when is heparin contraindicated

A

coagulant disorders

89
Q

how much heparin should be given

A

3cc

90
Q

lasix/salix/disal aka

A

furosemide

91
Q

what is furosemide used for (6)

A

hyperkalcemia, pulmonary edema, ascites, cerebral edema, nosebleeds, oliguria

92
Q

when should furosemide not be used

A

anuria progressive kidney disease

93
Q

what dosage forms is furosemide in

A

tablets, oral sol’n, injectable

94
Q

what can prolonged use of lasix lead to

A

low potassium levels

95
Q

when is mannitol contraindicated

A

dehydrated patients

96
Q

what drug shrinks vitrius humor of the eye

A

mannitol

97
Q

how often can mannitol be given

A

every 4-6 hours 2-3 times

98
Q

what does mannitol increase

A

cerebral blood flow

99
Q

what should be monitored while on mannitol

A

fluid/electrolyte imbalances, nausea/V+, dizziness

100
Q

what does mannitol treat (3)

A

oliguria, acute glocoma, acute cerebral edema with trauma

101
Q

how is mannitol given

A

IV only

102
Q

what drug can be used in place of epinephrine

A

vasopressin

103
Q

what drug increases water reabsorption

A

vasopressin

104
Q

what is the dose for vasopressin

A

0.4 ml/kg every 4-5 minutes

105
Q

what is amiodarone used for

A

irregular heart rhythem

106
Q

what is amiodarone dose

A

5mg/kg

107
Q

how often should emergency boxes be checked

A

at least once a month

108
Q

what should emergency boxes be checked for

A

outdated drugs, depleted supplies, clogged needles