2 atomic structure Flashcards

1
Q

what is the smallest part of an element

A

an atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

if atoms are neutral they contain

A

equal numbers of protons and electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

relative mass of a proton

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

relative mass of a neutron

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

relative mass of an electron

A

1/2000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

relative charge of a proton

A

+1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

relative charge of a neutron

A

0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

relative charge of an electron

A

-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

mass number =

A

equal to the number of protons and neutrons in the nucelus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

atomic number =

A

equal to the number of proton in the nucleus and to the number of electrons in the atom. defines the element

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

charge of an atom

A

atoms have no charge so it should be 0, but by losing or gaining electrons they can gain a positive or negative charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

isotopes

A

atoms that contain the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

isotope properties

A

chemical properties are related to number of electrons so isotopes of the same element have identical chemical properties. since their mass is different, the physical properties like density and boiling point are different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

relative atomic mass calculation

A

isotope A and isotope B
(A abundance x A mass) + (B abundance x B mass)
—————————————————————————–
100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how else can masses be determined

A

using a mass spectrometer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how do mass spectrometers work

A

a vaporized sample is injected into the instrument. atoms of the element are bombarded with a steam of high energy electrons in the ionization chamber. in practice the instrument is set so that only ions with a single positive charge are formed. the resulting unipositive ions pass through holes in parallel plates under the influence of an electric field where they are accelerated. the ions are then deflected by an external magnetic field.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does the amount of deflection in a mass spectrometer depend on

A

mass of the ion and its charge. the smaller the mass and higher the charge the greater the deflection. ions with a particular mass/charge ratio are then recorded on a detector which measures both the mass and the relative amounts of all the ions present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

three different forms of radiation

A

gamma
alpha
beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

gamma radiation

A

highly penetrating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

alpha radiation

A

stopped by a few cm of air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

beta radiation

A

stopped by a thin sheet of aliminium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

uses of radiation

A

nuclear power generation, the sterilization of surgical instruments in hospitals, crime dtection, finding cracks and stresses in food.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which isotope is used for carbon dating

A

14
C
6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what isotope is used for radiotherapy

A

131
I
53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what isotope is used as a trcer in medicine for treating an diagnosing illness

A

125
I
53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

trend in size of energy levels surrounding the nucelus

A

the energy gap between successive levels get increasingly smaller as the levels get further from the nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

sublevels in level 1

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

sublevels in level 2

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

sublevels in level 3

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

sublevels in level 4

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is heisenbergs uncertainty principle

A

“you cannot determine the position and momentum of an electron at the same time”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the aufbau principle

A

“electrons enter the lowest available energy level”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is pauli’s exclusion principle

A

“No two electrons can have the same four quantam numbers”, two electrons an go in each orbital, providing they are of opposite sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity

A

“when in orbitals of equal energy, electrons will try to remain unparied.” placing two electrons in one orbital means that, as they are both negativlely charged, there will be some electrostatic repulsion between them. placing each electron in a separate orbital reduces the repulsion and the system is more stable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is an orbital

A

a region in space where one is likely to find an electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how many electrons can orbitals hold

A

2 (with opposite spin! (pauli’s exclusion principle) )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

orbital s

A

spherical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

orbital p

A

dumb bell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

orbital d

A

various

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

orbital f

A

various

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

orbital s occurance

A

one in every principal level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

orbital p occurance

A

three in levels 2 upwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

orbital d occurance

A

five in levels from 3 upwards

44
Q

orbital f occurance

A

seven in levels from 4 upwards

45
Q

orbital definition

A

a 3D statistical shape showing where one is most likely to find an electron.

46
Q

why are orbitals not filled in numerical order

A

because the principal levels get closer together as you get further from the nucleus. this results in overlap of sub levels. the first example occurs when the 4s orbital is filled before the 3d orbitals.

47
Q

exceptions in electron configuration

A

copper and chromium

48
Q

isoelectronic

A

has the same electronic configuration

49
Q

what can EM waves travel through

A

space and depending on the wavelength, matter

50
Q

c =

A

v x lambda

51
Q

velcoity =

A

frequncy x wavelegnth

52
Q

electromagnetic radiation is a form of

A

energy

53
Q

how to find relative atomic mass of off a mass spectrum

A

read off the graph and then use figures normally

54
Q

why is the x axis (mass/charge) nearly always just the mass

A

because the charge will be +1 from the chlorine ions

55
Q

what is the x axis of the mass spectrum

A

mass/charge (or just mass)

56
Q

what is the y axis of the mass spectrum

A

relative abundance

57
Q

when are emission spectra produced

A

when photons are emitted from atoms as excited electrons return to a lower energy level

58
Q

the line emission of hydrogen prrovides evidence for

A

the existence of electrons in discrete energy levels, which converge at higher energies.

59
Q

where do the highest energy levels converge

A

at the ionisation energy

60
Q

c (velocity) =

A

lamda (wavelength) x v (frequency)

61
Q

what area of the EM spectrum is visible light

A

inbetween UV and IR

62
Q

which has the highest energy with a short wavelength and high frequency

A

gamma waves

63
Q

which has the lowest energy with longest wavelength and lowest frequency

A

radiowaves

64
Q

E is proportional to

A

1/lamda

65
Q

what is the visible emission spectrum due to

A

electrons falling into the n=2 level from higher enrgy levels

66
Q

why do lines in the spectrum converge aat higher enrgy

A

as the energy levels get closer together as the value of n increases.

67
Q

what colour is n=6 –> n=2 transition

A

violet

68
Q

what colour is n=5 –> n=2 transition

A

blue

69
Q

what colour is n=4 –> n=2 transition

A

blue-green

70
Q

what colour is n=3 –> n=2 transition

A

red

71
Q

what wavelength is a violet transition

A

410

72
Q

what wavelenght is a blue transition

A

434

73
Q

what wavelength is a blue-green transition

A

486

74
Q

what wavelenght is a red transition

A

656

75
Q

longest wavelength =

A

shortest f

76
Q

what is odd about lines 5 and 6 and 7 and 8 in the visible region

A

they are considered UV but are above 400 so are not offically in the visible region. (but you can see them)

77
Q

homogenous mixture

A

same composition throughout (uniform)

78
Q

heterogenous mixture

A

different composition throughout (non-uniform)

79
Q

compare the chemical properties of isotopes

A

generally the same

80
Q

compare the physical properties of isotopes

A

generally the same

81
Q

continous spectrum

A

radiation spread over all wavelengths or energies

82
Q

line spectrum

A

radiation spectrum emitted at a certain wavelength or energy

83
Q

max electrons in a s orbital

A

2

84
Q

number of atomic orbitals in an s orbital

A

1

85
Q

max elecrons in a p orbital

A

6

86
Q

max electrons in a d orbital

A

10

87
Q

max electrons in a f orbital

A

14

88
Q

number of atomic orbitals in a p orbital

A

3

89
Q

number of atomic orbitals in a d orbital

A

5

90
Q

number of atomic orbitals in a f orbital

A

7

91
Q

what is electronegativity

A

power to attract the 2 electrons in a covalent bond

92
Q

2,3-dihydroxybutanedioc acid produces

A

2 H+ ions

93
Q

superimposable

A

ability to place one object over ano9ther in such a way that both are visible clearly

94
Q

enantiomers

A

nonsuperimposable mirror image structures

95
Q

chiral centre

A

the carbon that is directly attached to four distinct groups

96
Q

steroisomers

A

compounds differing only in spatial arrangement of atoms

97
Q

achiral

A

mirror image can be super imposed with molecule

98
Q

optically active

A

ability of a molecule to rotate plane polarized light known as optical activity. molecules that can do this are optically active

99
Q

Plane-polarised light is

A

composed of waves that vibrate in only one plane

100
Q

disteroisomers

A

two isomers which do not behave as mirror images

101
Q

mass =

A

density x volume

102
Q

volume =

A

moles x 24dm

103
Q

moles =

A

conc x vol

104
Q

acid dissosciation constant

A

quantitative measure of the strength of an acid in solution

105
Q

delta energy =

A

h v
plancks constant x frequency