Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM > 19-8 Clinical Care OBGYN > Flashcards

19-8 Clinical Care OBGYN Flashcards

1
Q

what is the second most common cancer in women

A

female breast carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the second leading cause of cancer deaths

A

female breast carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the most significant risk factor for female breast carcinoma

A

age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the most reliable means of detecting breast cancer before a mass can be palpated

A

mammography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

mammography can identify most slow growing cancers within how many years before they are palpable

A

2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the diagnostic procedure of choice in both palpable and image detected abnormalities

A

core needle biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

local and distant recurrences for female breast carcinoma occur most frequently within what time frame

A

within the first 2-5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how often should a female with breast carcinoma be examined during the first 2 years

A

every 6 months and then annually thereafter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what disease condition in males increase their risk of male breast carcinoma

A

men with prostate cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which condition has the worse prognosis, male breast carcinoma or female breast carcinoma

A

male breast carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is described as a painless, hard, ill defined, non tender mass beneath the nipple or areola

A

male breast carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is described as a painful bilateral, breast mass that worsens during premenstrual phase cycle

A

fibrocystic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the most frequent lesion of the breast

A

fibrocystic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is described as a round, rubbery, discrete, mobile, nontender mass of the breast

A

fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a common benign neoplasm (of the breast) that occurs most frequently in young women

A

fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the cause of fat necrosis

A
  • trauma (MVA or assault)
  • segmental resection
  • radiation therapy
  • flap reconstruction after mastectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are risk factors for female breast carcinoma

A
  • age
  • FMH of breast cancer or ovarian cancer
  • BRCA1/BRCA2 mutation
  • nulliparous
  • early menarche
  • late menopause
  • PMH of endometrial cancer or cancer in the other breast
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is considered early menstrual cycle

A

under 12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is considered late menopause

A

after 55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is described as a single nontender, firm to hard breast mass, with ill defined borders

A

female breast carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the treatment for fibrocystic changes

A
  • NSAIDs
  • avoid trauma
  • wear supportive bra
  • decrease dietary fat intake
  • eliminate caffeine
  • vitamin E, 400IU daily
  • BSE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what causes milky discharge in non lactating women

A

hyperprolactinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what type of medications can cause lactation in men and women

A

antipsychotic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the normal range for menstrual bleeding

A

2 to 7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is the average number of days for normal menstrual bleeding

A

5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is the mean blood loss per menstrual cycle

A

40ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

blood loss over 80ml

A

menorrhagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

bleeding between periods

A

metrorrhagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

bleeding that occurs more often than every 21 days

A

polymenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

bleeding that occurs less frequently than every 35 days

A

oligomenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are structural causes of abnormal uterine bleeding

A
  • polyp
  • adenomyosis
  • leiomyoma
  • malignancy (hyperplasia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the most common anovulation cause of abnormal uterine bleeding

A

ovulatory dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the common sequalae of sexual violence

A
  • anxiety disorders
  • PTSD
  • rape trauma syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the two principle phases of rape trauma syndrome

A
  • immediate or acute
  • late or chronic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is “quickening”

A

perception of first movement noted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

at how many weeks can “quickening” be felt

A

18th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

at how many weeks does softening of the cervix occur

A

around 7 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is chadwick sign

A

bluish to purple color of the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

at how many weeks is the uterine fundus palpable above the pubic symphysis

A

12-15 weeks from the last menstrual period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

at how many weeks can fetal heart tones be heard

A

8-10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

at how many weeks will the uterine fundus be palpable at the umbilicus

A

20-22 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how long can pregnant women remain on the ship

A

up until 20th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is a threatened abortions

A
  • bleeding or cramping occurs
  • pregnancy continues
  • the cervix is not dilated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what type of abortion has a dilated cervix

A

incomplete abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what type of abortion is it when the cervix is not dilated

A

threatened abortions

46
Q

what causes functional amenorrhea

A

hypothalamic pituitary

47
Q

what are the complications of premature menopause

A

increased risk of coronary disease, stroke, and mortality

48
Q

what is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in premenopausal women

A

pregnancy

49
Q

any female with vaginal bleeding, a positive hCG, and abdominal pain is experiencing what condition

A

ectopic pregnancy

50
Q

what trimester does ectopic pregnancies usually occur

A

first trimester 2% of the time

51
Q

what are the risk factors for ectopic pregnancy

A
  • infertility
  • PID
  • ruptured appendix
  • prior tubal ligation
52
Q

what is the most common cause of maternal death during the first trimester

A

ectopic pregnancy

53
Q

what condition does the patient have:
- unilateral pelvic pain
- vaginal bleeding
- adnexal tenderness
- positive hCG

A

ectopic pregnancy

54
Q

treatment for ectopic pregnancy

A
  • laparoscopy
  • methotrexate 50mg/mm IM
55
Q

what are complications of ectopic pregnancy

A
  • shock
  • anemia
  • repeat tubal pregnancy
56
Q

how often does repeat tubal pregnancies occur

A

10%

57
Q

what is the procedure of choice to confirm and remove ectopic pregnancy

A

laparoscopy

58
Q

what causes mastitis

A

staph aureus

59
Q

what condition must be considered if mastitis occurs in nonlactating breast

A

inflammatory carcinoma

60
Q

what antibiotics are used for mastitis caused by MSSA

A
  • cephalexin (keflex)
  • clindamycin
61
Q

what antibiotics are used for mastitis caused by MRSA

A
  • trimethroprim/sulfamethoxazole (bactrim)
62
Q

what are the complications of mastitis

A
  • abscess formation
  • sepsis
63
Q

within how many hours should a patient with mastitis be referred to supervising physician if no improvement

A

72 hours

64
Q

what is primary amenorrhea

A
  • failure of menarche to appear
65
Q

what age does menarche ordinarily occur

A

11-15 years

66
Q

what is secondary menarche

A

absence of menses for 3 consecutive months in women who have began menses

67
Q

what is the terminal episode of naturally occurring menses

A

menopause

68
Q

when can a diagnosis of menopause be made

A

after 6 months of amenorrhea

69
Q

nearly 70% of adnexal torsions occur on what side

A

right

70
Q

What type of abortion is it when:
- products of conception are completely expelled
- pain stops
- cervical os is closed
- blood in vaginal vault
- spotting may persist

A

complete abortion

71
Q

What type of abortion is it when:
- the cervix is dilated
- some products of conception remains in the uterus
- mild cramps
- bleeding is excessive

A

incomplete abortion

72
Q

what type of abortion has
- brownish vaginal discharge but no active bleeding
- pain stops
- cervix is semi firm and slightly patulous
- adnexal are normal
- uterus is smaller
- products of conception has not been expelled

A

missed abortion

73
Q

what are the complications of pregnancy loss

A
  • hemorrhage
  • anemia
  • recurrent abortion
74
Q

what instruction governs pregnancy

A

opnavinst 6000.1

75
Q

what is the instruction that governs sexual assault patient

A

SECNAVINST 1752.4

76
Q

when is uterine catherization contraindicated

A
  • high riding/ free floating prostate
  • blood at urethral meatus
  • perineal hematoma
77
Q

where is the urethral meatus located

A

lies in the superior fornix of the vulva above the vaginal opening and below the clitoris

78
Q

how many times do you clean the area before inserting a foley in a female

A

4-5 times

79
Q

how many times do you clean the area before inserting a foley into a male

A

3-4 times

80
Q

under what conditions are pregnant service women allowed to stay on the ship

A
  • up til 20th week of pregnancy
  • while in port
  • during short underway
    (if MEDEVAC is within hours)
81
Q

what type of nipple discharge is more likely benign fibrocystic changes

A

serous (clear)

82
Q

what type of discharge is more likely neoplastic papilloma or carcinoma

A

bloody

83
Q

bilateral nipple discharge is likely associated with what

A

non neoplastic ENDOCRINE etiology

84
Q

what causes inflammation of the vagina

A
  • pathogens
  • allergic reactions to contraceptives
  • vaginal atrophy
  • friction
85
Q

what condition has
- vaginal irritation
- pain
- unusual or malodorous discharge
- pelvic inflammation
- cervical motion tenderness
- adnexal tenderness

A

vaginitis

86
Q

what are things that predispose patients to vulvovaginal candidiasis

A
  • broad spectrum antibiotics
  • pregnancy
  • diabetes
  • corticosteroids
  • heat
  • moisture
  • occlusive clothing
87
Q

what condition is:
- pruritis
- vulvovaginal erythema
- white curd like discharge
- NOT malodorous

A

vulvovaginal candidiasis

88
Q

what condition is:
- sexually transmitted protozoal
- infects vagina, skene ducts, and lower urinary tract
- pruritis
- malodorous frothy, yellow-green, discharge with diffuse vaginal erythema
- strawberry cervix

A

trichomonas vaginalis

89
Q

which vaginitis is caused considered to be a polymicrobial disease that is not sexually transmitted and chronic in nature

A

bacterial vaginosis

90
Q

what is caused by an overgrowth of gardnerella and other anerobes

A

bacterial vaginosis

91
Q

what is increased malodorous discharge without obvious signs of vulvitis or vaginitis

A

bacterial vaginosis

92
Q

what is the treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis

A

antifungals (fluconazole)

93
Q

what is the treatment for trichomonas

A

metronidazole (antibiotic)
- treat both partners

94
Q

what is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis

A

metronidazole
clindamycin vaginal cream

95
Q

what patient education should be given to someone with vaginits

A
  • avoid nonabsorbent undergarments
  • avoid douching
  • delay sexual intercourse until tx is complete
96
Q

what age should cervical cancer screening begin

A

21

97
Q

how many years is cervical screening and PAP requirements for age 21-65

A

every 3 years

98
Q

at what age is HPV testing conducted

A

at age 30

99
Q

how often are PAP and cervical screenings required in women aged 30-65 with negative HPV risk factors

A

every 5 years

100
Q

in what 2 ways can PAP be described

A
  1. ASC-US (Atypical Squamous Cell of Unknown Significance)
  2. SIL (Squamous intraepithelial Lesions)
101
Q

what system is used to report PAP smear

A

bethesda system

102
Q

when is the follow up for women with ASC-US and negative HPV screening

A

1 year

103
Q

What is indicated if a woman have ASC-US and a positive HPV screen

A

colposcopy

104
Q

what vaccination is recommended for the prevention of HPV

A

gardasil

105
Q

what age is gardasil recommended

A

age 9 and older

106
Q

what is the treatment for cervical dysplasia

A
  • cryosurgery
  • CO2 laser
  • LEEP
  • Conization
107
Q

most common benign neoplasm of the female genital tract

A

leiomyoma

108
Q

what condition is described as a discrete, round, firm, often multiple uterine tumor

A

leiomyoma

109
Q

where are lesions from endometriosis typically located

A
  • pelvis
  • bowel or diaphragm
110
Q

when is early menopause

A

before age 45

111
Q

when is premature menopause

A

before age 40

FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions