16 - Molecular Oncogenesis Flashcards

1
Q

What three things are the molecular genetic bases of cancer? Why are these important?

A
  1. Acquired mutations (somatic)
  2. Inherited mutations (germline)
  3. Other (infections, epigenetics)

Nonlethal genetic damages lie at the heart of carcinogenesis.

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2
Q

Mutation + cancer gene = _____? How does this ocur?

A

Initiating event.

The gene is big and rarely include cancer genes. Mutations occur randomly and are currently insignificant.

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3
Q

What is the molecular pathology of cancer?

A

Mutations in DNA and RNA lead to genetic variants and thus lead us to the diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.

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4
Q

What are characteristics of an oncogene? What are examples?

A

One mutant gene (dominant,“driver mutation”) with constituitive activation (gasoline the tumor uses to grow).

Examples: growth factors and receptors, signaling molecules, and transcription factors.

Drug targets.

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5
Q

What are characteristics of tumor suppressor genes? What are examples? What happens when they’re mutated?

A

Genes that cause loss of funciton for tumors (“brakes”).

Examples: Tummor suppressers (p53) and cell cycle controllers (RB)

Mutations in tumor suppressor genes cause loss of control on proliferation and loss of DNA damage response.

Loss of heterozygosity (loosing both tumor suppressor genes) causes loss of function.

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6
Q

What type of mutations are small genetic lesions?

A

Single nucleotide variants such as insertions or deletions (indel)

Simple to detect

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7
Q

What type of mutations are large genetic lesions?

A

Copy-number varients and structural variants.

Complex to detect.

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8
Q

What is another term for a genetic lesion? Are these mutations?

A

A variant.

Not all variants are mutations, variants are just disagreements with a reference sequence.

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9
Q

What genetic lesions occur at the nucleotide level?

A

Single nucleotide variants (SNV) and Insertions or deletions (indel).

These are are small/simple genetic lesions.

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10
Q

What is a small nucleotide variant and what are the consequences?

A

Chancein the codon sequence.

May alter the amino acid in protein, may contribute to the cancer phenotype.

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11
Q

What are the four types of single nucleotide variants?

A
  1. No mutation
  2. Silent - clinically benign/not reported
  3. Missense - benign, uncertain, or pahtogenic
  4. Pathogenic - reported
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12
Q

What types of mutations occur at a structural level (chromosomes)

A

Large/complex genetic aberrations:

  • Fusion genes and chimeric proteins
  • Gains and losses of chromatin
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13
Q

What are driver mutations? What are passenger mutations?

A

Driver: mutations that alter the function of cancer genes, primarily responsible for the cancer phenotype and represent therapeutic targets.

Passenger: acquired mutation that does not contribute to cancer phenotype, may synergive with driver mutations

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14
Q

Describe the process of tumor progression and generation of heterogeneity? What is the significance of this in treatment?

A
  1. One cell aquires mutations that it needs to grow and survive.
  2. Tumor cell variants grow to form a polyclonal mass of cells.

When you treat, only a fraction of cells will respond to the drug while other subclones can still grow out.

(You need to treat the most aggressive met cell types)

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15
Q

About how long does it take for a tumor cell to become an invasive tumor? From the time it becomes an invasive tumor, how long does it usually take to kill the patient? When does it usually become clinically apparent?

A

Birth-invasive: ~decade

Invasive-death: ~2 years

Clinically apparent: ~6mo before the patient dies

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16
Q

What is function and activity of growth factor and growth factor receptor?

What happens when they are mutated?

A

Growth factor receptors are RTKs that, upon GF binding, dimerize and cause the catalytic domain to come together to form a docking site for intracellular mediators.

Normal receptors: transient activation

Mutant receptors: constituitively activated

Overexpression of recptors causes increased sensisitivy to growth factors

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17
Q

Tumors can synthesize and secrete their own _____, and this is called paracrine loop.

What are examples of this?

A

Growth factor

Glioblastoma: synthesis of PDGF and PDGFR

Sarcoma: synthesis of TGFa and TGFaR

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18
Q

What are two growth factor receptors that are examples of targeted drug therapy? What drugs target each?

A

1. ErbB1 (EGFR): overexpressed in many cancers and is mutated in lung cancer.

  • predicts responsiveness to anti-EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitors
  • Erlotinib

2. ErbB2 (Her2/Neu): amplified in breast CA

  • ​poor prognostic sign, predicts lack of response to estrogen therapy
  • Trastuzumab
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19
Q

Other than ErbB1 and ErbB2, what is a third growth factor receptor that is an example of targeted drug therapy? How can it be treated? What is the most common location of this mutation?

A

KIT mutation: seen in gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) - most commonly in exon 11.

  • Becomes activated like EGFR when mutated
  • Treated with CKIT tyrosine kinase inhibitor: Imatinib (Gleevev)
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20
Q

What are signal transduction proteins? What happens when they have a mutation?

A

Molecules that couple receptor to nuclear targets.

Mutations “short circuit” the receptor.

Cancer resutls when these have mutations and become constituitively activated.

Examples: RAS and BRAF (commonly mutated)

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21
Q

Molecules that hydrolyze ____ are usually doing work, while _____ is usually reserved for signaling.

A

ATP for doing work

GTP for signaling

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22
Q

What is RAS? What happens when it has a mutation?

A

RAS is a GTP-binding protein.

Mutations in RAS affect GTP binding or GTP hydrolysis and cause RAS to be locked into permanent activation (oncogene)

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23
Q

What is BRAF and what results from mutations in BRAF?

A

Serine/threonine protein kinase that is mutated in 100% of hair cell leukemia and 60% of melanomas.

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24
Q

What drugs can be used for targeted treatment of cancer caused by a BRAF mutation?

A

Vemurafenib

Dabrafenib

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25
Q

What is a philadelphia chromosome fusion oncoprotein? What causes this?

A

Cytosolic tyrosine kinase that gets fused to BCR, which is a promotor. This fusion leads to activation of everything downstream of the promotor (constituitively activated, loss of regulatory control).

Bcr-abl t(9:22) - t means translocation

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26
Q

What cancers are associated with philedelphia chromocome fusion oncoprotein? What is the treatment?

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)

Chronic myelogneous leukemia (CML)

Poster child for targeted therapy because it’s caused by single gene translocation.

Treat with Imatinib (Gleevec)

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27
Q

What is oncogene addiction?

A

When cancer is caused by a single mutation in a single gene, and treating that one mutation cures the cancer.

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28
Q

What impact do oncogenes have on trasncription factors? What are some examples of transcription factors commonly mutated in cancer?

A

TFs are the endpoint of signal transduction.

Oncogenes lead to continuous stimulation of TFs and drive expression of growth-promoting genes.

Exp: MYC, MYB, JUN, FOS, REL

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29
Q

What is MYC and what results from activation of MYC gene?

A

MYC is a master transcriptional regulator of cell growth.

Mutation results in upregultion of cyclin D (cell cycle progression), and other pro-growth genes that allow the the cell to enter the cell cycle and divide uncontrollably.

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30
Q

What type of cancer is assocaited with MYC mutations?

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma - one of the fastest growing tumors but highly responsive to chemo

31
Q

What are the cell cycle regulators?

A
  1. Cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs): constituitvely expressed and phosphorylate target proteins
  2. Cyclins: transient expression, unstable, and activate CDKs
  3. Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitors: inhibit CDKs
32
Q

What effect do tumors have on cyclins, CDKs, and CDK-inhibitors?

A

Tumors upregulte CDK and cyclins

Tumors downregulate CDK-inhibitors.

33
Q

What is an example of a CDK-inhibitor?

A

p16 inhibits CDK4/cyclin D, preventing cells that are damaged from going into the cell cycle.

CDK4 and Cyclin D normally allow the cell to pass through the G1 restriction point.

34
Q

What is the purpose of cell cycle checkpoints? What happens when the genes that regulate these checkpoints are mutated?

A

2 major checkpoints ensure damaged cells don’t replicate

Mutations in genes regulating the checkpoints allow cells with damaged DNA to replicate, thus their daughter cells will carry mutations.

35
Q

What is the two hit hypothesis? What is an example?

A

Mutations in both alleles (of a tumor suppressor) are required for oncogenesis.

Mutations in both alleles of the retinoblastoma (Rb) gene result in retinoblastoma, causing tumors in the eye.

36
Q

What is the function of the RB gene? What happens when it’s hyper or hypo phosphorylated?

A

Governs the G1-S checkpoint of the cell cycle

When RB is hyperphosphorylated, E2F is released, and cell enters S phase(transcription activated)

When RB is hypophosphorylated, E2F is sequestered, and the cells stays in G1 (transcription is blocked)

37
Q

What effect do growth factors have on RB?

A

They phosphorylate RB, causing E2F to be released, and the cell to enter into S phase (transcription occurs)

38
Q

All cancers show dysregulated _________ checkpoint. What molecules are involed in this checkpoint?

A

G1-S

  • p16 - stops
  • cyclin D1 - go
  • CDK4 and CDK6 - go
  • RB (hyperpos=go, hypophos=stop)
39
Q

What state RB in in cancer?

A

Hyperphosphorylated

40
Q

What is the function of p53?

A

Gaurdian of the genome

Senses cellular stress such as anoxia, DNA damage, and aoncoprotein activity.

Directs cells to repair (GADD45) , senescence (p21), and apoptosis (BAX).

41
Q

What are the mediators p53? What is the funtion of each?

A
  1. p21: G1 arrest
  2. GADD45: DNA repair
  3. BAX: apoptosis
42
Q

What family senses DNA damage and activates p53? How does it doi this?

A

ATM/ATR family senses DNA damage and activates p53 via release from MDM2.

43
Q

Most human cancers have what mutation?

A

Biallelic loss of function of TP53 tumor suppressor gene.

44
Q

What is the effect of MDM2 on p53 and what is required for TP53 response?

A

MDM2 inhibits p53 when it’s bound.

MDM2 inactivation is requied for Tp53 response (ie tumor suppression).

45
Q

What is Li-fraumeni syndrome? What does it cause?

A

Inheritance of a mutated p53 allele.

People with this have a 25x risk of developing cancer by 50yo (younger age and multiple cancers)

Can cause wide variety of cancers: sarcomas, carcinomas, leukemias.

46
Q

What is human papillomavirus? What are the low and high risk types?

A

DNA virus with multiple genetically distinct subtypes with a range of malignant potential.

Low risk: HPV-6 and 11 (warts)

High risk: HPV-16, 18, 31, and 33

47
Q

What are the transforming effects of HPV E6?

A
  • Activate TERT to cause increased telomerase expression
  • Inhibit p53

Results in immortalization and increased cell proliferation

48
Q

What are the transforming effects of HPV E7?

A
  • Inhibition of p21 (preventing senescence) which causes _increased CDK4/CyclinD (_progression into cell cycle)
  • Inhibit RB-E2F : Rb hyperphosphorylated and cell cycle progression can occur

Results in immortalization and increased cell proliferation

49
Q

What happens when cancer mutates RB and p53?

A

RB knocked ou: cells can bypass normal checkpoints and continue to grow unregulated

p53 knocked out: increase rate of mutations because DNA damage is not sensed.

50
Q

What is APC? What results from mutation in APC?

A

A tumor suppressor gene that mediates the destruction and down-regulation of B-catenin (causing reduced transcription)

Mutations (two hits) cause:

  • B-catenin accumulation
  • WNT activation
  • Upregulation of cyclinD1, MYC, TWIST, and SLUG
  • Reduced E-cadherin: loss of contact inhibition
51
Q

What cancer is caused by a mutation in APC?

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis

>100 mucosal polyps on the colon of young adults

Invariable potential for malignant transformation of polyps

52
Q

What are malignant gliomas? Which grade are the most severe?

A

Heterogenous group of primary brain tumors arising frmo glial cells.

Grades 2-4 are diffusely invasive and surgical resection is NOT possible.

May be treated with surgery (1), radiation, and/or chemo.

53
Q

What drugs can be used to treat malignant gliomas??

A

Temozolomide (newly diagnosed gliomas)

Bevicuzumab (recurrent gliomas)

54
Q

What are common mutations in gliomas?

A

IDH1 or IDH2: isocitrate dehydrogenase 1/2

All reported mutations are missense

These lead to hypermethylation in the genome which turns off tumor suppressor genes.

55
Q

What is the normal function of isocitrate dehydrogenase?

A

Transforms isocitrate to alphaketoglutarate

Allows resistance to apoptosis and protection to oxidative stress

56
Q

What is the function of Bcl2 and how does it relate to follicular lymphoma?

A

Bcl2 stops BAK/BAX from activating the intrinsic mitochondrial apoptotic pathway (Bcl2 stops apoptosis).

Follicular lymphoma = overexpression of bcl2.

Overexpression of bcl2=no apoptosis and accumulation of lymphocytes in a follicle.

57
Q

What needs ot occur for a tumor to have limitless resplicative ability?

A

Loss of p53 (tumor suppressor)and restoration of telomerase (no shortening of telomeres)

58
Q

Tumors greater than 1mm need what to survive?

A

Vascularization

59
Q

How are immune checkpoint inhibitors involved in cancer treatment? What is an example of a drug that does this?

A

Checkpoint inhibitors put T cells into senescence (PD1 binds PDL1 on tumor causing senecence)

Drugs block checkpoint inhibitors so T cells can be activated and fight tumors (nivolumab).

60
Q

Inflammation caused by what two viruses is associated with cancer? How does inflammation from these viruses cause cancer?

A

Hep B and C viruses.

70-85% of hepatocellular arcinoma is due to HBV and HCV.

  • chronic hepatocellular injury
  • stimualtion of hepatocellular proliferation
  • ROS damages DNA
61
Q

What are two acquired causes of genetic mutations?

A
  1. Underlying genetics (germline/inherited)
  2. Environmental exposure (somatic/acquired)
62
Q

What is lynch syndrome?

A

Hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer syndrome caused by an inherited mutation in mismatch repair genes (MMR).

When MMR is mutation, you can’t catch mutations, and you get an accumulation of DNA damage.

63
Q

What is Xeroderma pigmentosa caused by?

A

Defecive nucleotide excision repair (NER) system resulting in defective repair of UV damage to pyrimidines.

Multiple genes contribute to this disease.

Causes increased risk of cancer on sun-exposed skin.

64
Q

What four diseases occur when you can’t repair DNA by homologous recombination?

A
  1. Fanconi anemia (multi-genic)
  2. Bloom syndrome (BLM)
  3. Ataxia-telangiectasia (ATM gene)
  4. Hypersensitive to DNA-damaging agents
65
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations are assocaited with what? What do they normally do?

A

Account for 50% of hereditary breast cancer but are rarely mutated in sporadic breast cancer.

They normally function to repair DNA double-stranded breaks by homologous recombination.

66
Q

What are two ways that microbes can cause cancer?

A

1. Viral genomic integration - overexpression of viral proteins that affect host cell growth and disrupts proto-oncogene (causing cancer)

2. Stimualtion of host inflammatory reponse with subsequent regeneration - HepB, B, H.pylori, schistosoma.

67
Q

What is Human T Cell Lymphotrophic Virus-1 (HTLV-1)?

A

RNA virus that targets CD4+ T cells.

Activates TAX gene causing activation of cytokine genes in host T cells. T cells release cytokines which stimulate macrophages to release mitogens (which activate T cells).

This establishes a paracrine loop to lead to proliferaiton.

68
Q

What are the two ways that the Epstein barr virus can lead to cancer?

A
  1. LMP1 oncoprotein: stimulates proliferation via JAK2/STAT pathway and inhibits apoptosis via Bcl2 activaton
  2. EBNA2 oncoprotein: stimualtes cyclin D1 and src

EBV is associated cancer is seen in the immunocompromised

69
Q

What is H. pylori and what does it cause? How does it cause this? How do you treat it?

A

Bacteria implicated in tunmots such as gastric adenocarcinomas and MALTomas.

Host inflammatory response leads to carcinogenesis via regeneration, metaplasia, and dysplasia.

Treat by eradicating bacteria (reversible!).

70
Q

What are the two types of chemical carcinogens? What do these methods have in common?

A
  1. Direct-acting carcinogens: don’t require processing
  2. Indirect-acting: often metabolized by p450 - must be activated

Both direct and indirect carcinogens have the same target - nucleic acid.

71
Q

What two polymorphic genes may contribute to carcinogenesis?

A
  1. P450 1A1 (not a mutation, just a variant that impacts how we respond to carcinogens)
  2. Glutathione-S-transferase: detoxifies polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, deletions are common
72
Q

What are two classifications of carcinogenic compounds?

A
  1. Initiator: causes permanent DNA mutations directly or indirectly
  2. Promoter: nontumorigenic chemical that enhances the proliferation of mutatel cells (reversible)

Without a promotor, the initiator is unlikely to cause cancer

73
Q

What is among the most potent chemical carcinogens? What cancers is this implicated in?

A

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons found in the combustion of coal, oil, iron and steel foundries, and tobacco smoking.

Implicated in Lung, bladder, laryngeal, and oral cavity cancers.

74
Q

What are the two kinds of radiation?

A
  1. Ionizing: X and gamma rayy: exposure from radiologic exams, occupational exposure, nuclear accidents, and atomic bombs.
    * leukemias, breast, colon, thyroid, and lung cancers
  2. UV light: UVA, UVB, and UVC: formation of pyrimidine dimers and cause mutations in proto-oncogenes
  • nucleotide excision pathway
  • xeroderma pigmentosum
  • basal cell carcinoma
  • squamous cell carcinoma
  • melanoma