1502/175.302 WGTN Distance

Question 1

1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of stigma?
   a) A label applied to a group of people that distinguishes them from others
   b) A label applied to a group of people that breaks the law
   c) The label is linked to deviant or undesirable attributes by society
   d) People with the label face unfair discrimination

Answer 1

b) A label applied to a group of people that breaks the law

Question 2

2. Cindy is an accomplished lawyer who sought psychological help in dealing with the stresses of balancing work and family responsibilities. Which definition of mental disorder applies to Cindy?
   a) Harmful dysfunction
   b) Violation of social norms
   c) Personal distress
   d) Disability

Answer 2

c) Personal distress

Question 3

3. The eugenics movement
   a) was a direct result of the germ theory of disease.
   b) sought to cleanse society of people with undesirable characteristics.
   c) classified mental disorders according to their genesis.
   d) sought to abolish ECT treatments.

Answer 3

b) sought to cleanse society of people with undesirable characteristics.

Question 4

4. The carriers of the genetic information passed from parent to child are called
   a) nature.
   b) genes.
   c) zygotes.
   d) DNA.

Answer 4

b) genes.

Question 5

5. One’s observable characteristics are called
   a) fistulas.
   b) genotypes.
   c) genetic types.
   d) phenotypes.

Answer 5

d) phenotypes.

Question 6

6. A phenotype is illustrated by which of the following?
   a) Lisa’s level of anxiety
   b) Lisa’s chromosomes
   c) The genes that code for Lisa’s eye colour
   d) Lisa’s DNA structure

Answer 6

c) The genes that code for Lisa’s eye colour

Question 7

7. Nick was born with a predisposition for aggression and impulsivity that has resulted in frequent trouble with the law. As a result of time spent in jail, Nick has developed alcohol dependence. This is an example of
   a) linkage analysis.
   b) epigenetics.
   c) gene-environment interaction.
   d) reciprocal gene-environment interaction.

Answer 7

d) reciprocal gene-environment interaction.

Question 8

8. Helping a person engage in tasks that provide an opportunity for positive reinforcement is called
   a) observational learning
   b) behavioural activation therapy
   c) classical learning
   d) operant learning

Answer 8

b) behavioural activation therapy

Question 9

9. The difference between emotions and moods are
   a) emotions involve feelings, while moods involve behaviours.
   b) emotions have been linked to psychological disorders, while moods have not.
   c) emotions are long-lived experiences, while moods tend to be short-lasting.
   d) emotions are fairly short-lived states, while moods tend to last for longer periods of time.

Answer 9

d) emotions are fairly short-lived states, while moods tend to last for longer periods of time.

Question 10

10. Why do women have poorer health in general than men?
    a) Women live longer than men
    b) Women are more likely to be diagnosed than men
    c) Women are exposed to more stress than men
    d) All of the above

Answer 10

d) All of the above

Question 11

11. Which of the following is responsible for the relationship between low SES and poor mental and physical health?
    a) Environmental factors reinforce poor health behaviours
    b) Limited access to health services
    c) Greater exposure to stress
    d) All of the above

Answer 11

d) All of the above

Question 12

12. The diathesis-stress paradigm emphasises that psychopathology results from
    a) predisposition and the unconscious.
    b) predisposition and environmental disturbances.
    c) physiology and biochemistry.
    d) attachment and gestalt problems.

Answer 12

b) predisposition and environmental disturbances.

Question 13

13. Diagnostic systems allow clinicians and scientists to
    a) conduct psychotherapy.
    b) communicate accurately with one another about cases and research.
    c) understand the role of cultural bias.
    d) all of the above.

Answer 13

b) communicate accurately with one another about cases and research.

Question 14

14. Generally, it is impossible for measures to be
    a) reliable but not valid.
    b) valid but not reliable.
    c) neither reliable nor valid.
    d) both reliable and valid.

Answer 14

a) reliable but not valid.

Question 15

15. The letters in the abbreviation DSM refer to:
    a) Diseases and Symptoms of the Mind.
    b) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual.
    c) Diseases and Symptoms Manual.
    d) Disorders and Symptoms Manual.

Answer 15

b) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual.

Question 16

16. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    a) Culture can have a large influence on which symptoms of a given disorder are expressed
    b) For most diagnoses in the DSM-5, it is advised not to consider cultural context
    c) All symptoms of psychiatric disorders manifest themselves in similar ways across cultures
    d) The DSM-II was the first edition of the DSM to consider cultural and ethnic variations in psychopathology

Answer 16

a) Culture can have a large influence on which symptoms of a given disorder are expressed

Question 17

17. Xavier is recording his thoughts each time he feels depressed. This is also referred to as a ______________________ assessment.
    a) projective
    b) behavioural
    c) cognitive
    d) neuropsychological

Answer 17

c) cognitive

Question 18

18. Which of the following is not considered a common symptom of depression?
    a) Psychomotor retardation or agitation
    b) Sleeping too much or too little
    c) Feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt
    d) All of the above are common symptoms of depression

Answer 18

d) All of the above are common symptoms of depression

Question 19

19. Jacqueline has been depressed, ongoing, for the past three years. Based on this information, the best diagnosis for Jacqueline would be
    a) persistent depressive disorder.
    b) cyclothymic disorder.
    c) bipolar disorder.
    d) disruptive mood regulation disorder.

Answer 19

a) persistent depressive disorder.

Question 20

20. Which of the following symptoms are indicative of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, according to the DSM-5?
    a) Severe recurrent temper outbursts
    b) Swings in mood from extreme highs to extreme lows
    c) Persistent negative mood
    d) Both temper outbursts and a persistent negative mood

Answer 20

d) Both temper outbursts and a persistent negative mood

Question 21

21. Which of the following is a chronic, milder form of bipolar disorder?
    a) Dysthymic disorder
    b) Cyclothymic disorder
    c) Manic-depression
    d) Hypomanic disorder

Answer 21

b) Cyclothymic disorder

Question 22

22. Norepinephrine and serotonin are _____________________________ implicated in mood disorder etiology.
    a) two parts of the autonomic nervous system
    b) antidepressant medications
    c) neurotransmitters
    d) structures in the limbic system

Answer 22

c) neurotransmitters

Question 23

23. In regards to suicide and gender, more __________ attempt suicide and more __________ actually kill themselves.
    a) women; men
    b) women; women
    c) men; men
    d) men; women

Answer 23

a) women; men

Question 24

24. The difference between anxiety and fear is that:
    a) anxiety is a response to immediate danger, while fear is defined as apprehension over an anticipated problem.
    b) anxiety is immediate and fear is anticipated.
    c) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.
    d) anxiety is always adaptive, whereas fear is not.

Answer 24

c) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.

Question 25

25. John is persistently and excessively afraid of snakes. Whenever he sees one, he feels intense anxiety and thus avoids snakes at all costs. John realises, however, that this fear is unrealistic. John most likely has
    a) obsessive-compulsive disorder.
    b) social anxiety disorder.
    c) specific phobia.
    d) panic disorder.

Answer 25

c) specific phobia.

Question 26

26. Julie has social anxiety disorder. Given this information, it would not be surprising if she also met DSM-5 criteria for
    a) schizophrenia.
    b) borderline personality disorder.
    c) avoidant personality disorder.
    d) obsessive compulsive personality disorder.

Answer 26

c) avoidant personality disorder.

Question 27

27. Edna does not currently have panic disorder. However, she cannot leave her house and had required home sessions when she began therapy. It is likely that
    a) Edna has agoraphobia, but does not meet criteria for panic disorder.
    b) Edna does not have agoraphobia.
    c) Edna is faking her symptoms.
    d) Edna has more severe panic but is able to cope with the symptoms.

Answer 27

a) Edna has agoraphobia, but does not meet criteria for panic disorder.

Question 28

28. The worries of people with GAD
    a) are generally limited to physiological concerns.
    b) are similar to worries of most people, just more excessive.
    c) typically are driven by another Axis I disorder.
    d) All of the above

Answer 28

b) are similar to worries of most people, just more excessive.

Question 29

29. Behavioural inhibition is defined as the
    a) tendency to experience neuroticism.
    b) inability to inhibit one’s behavioural reactions.
    c) tendency to become agitated and cry when faced with novel stimuli.
    d) inability to regulate symptoms of anxiety.

Answer 29

c) tendency to become agitated and cry when faced with novel stimuli.

Question 30

30. Intrusive, irrational and unwanted thoughts are called
    a) irrational beliefs.
    b) generalised anxiety.
    c) obsessions.
    d) compulsions.

Answer 30

c) obsessions.

Question 31

31. Oscar feels the urge to turn a light switch on and off 12 times before leaving a room. This would be referred to as
    a) an irrational belief.
    b) generalised anxiety.
    c) an obsession.
    d) a compulsion.

Answer 31

d) a compulsion.

Question 32

32. Attempting to stop an obsession is called
    a) thought suppression.
    b) compulsive suppression.
    c) ceasing behaviour.
    d) reinforcement attempts.

Answer 32

a) thought suppression.

Question 33

33. Which of the following is NOT one of the DSM-5 categories for PTSD?
    a) Intrusively re-experiencing the traumatic event
    b) Avoidance of stimuli associated with the event
    c) Mood and cognitive changes following the trauma
    d) Forgetfulness and disorientation following the trauma

Answer 33

d) Forgetfulness and disorientation following the trauma

Question 34

34. Irritable or aggressive behaviour, reckless or self-destructive behaviour, difficulty falling or staying asleep, and hyper vigilance are all symptoms associated with the DSM-5’s ___________________________________________________ category of PTSD.
    a) intrusively re-experiencing the traumatic event
    b) avoidance of stimuli associated with the event
    c) mood and cognitive changes following the trauma
    d) symptoms of increased arousal and reactivity

Answer 34

d) symptoms of increased arousal and reactivity

Question 35

35. Acute stress disorder differs from PTSD in that the symptoms
    a) are more severe.
    b) last longer.
    c) last only a short period of time.
    d) are hard to define.

Answer 35

c) last only a short period of time

Question 36

36. Somatoform and dissociative disorders are similar in that both
    a) have symptoms suggesting a physical dysfunction.
    b) typically begin after a stressful experience.
    c) involve aggressive outbursts.
    d) are delusional in quality.

Answer 36

b) typically begin after a stressful experience.

Question 37

37. Dissociative identity disorder must involve
    a) at least 3 distinct personalities.
    b) selective amnesia.
    c) at least 2 distinct personalities.
    d) depersonalisation.

Answer 37

c) at least 2 distinct personalities.

Question 38

38. Donna was brutally assaulted outside the local supermarket. Although she cannot recall the details of the assault, she becomes terrified when she drives past the 7-Eleven. This is an example of a situation in which a person
    a) has an explicit memory, but no implicit memory.
    b) has neither explicit nor implicit memory.
    c) will most likely develop dissociative identity disorder.
    d) has no explicit memory, but has an implicit memory.

Answer 38

d) has no explicit memory, but has an implicit memory.

Question 39

39. Schizophrenia is a disorder characterised by disturbances in
    a) thought.
    b) emotion.
    c) behaviour.
    d) All of the above

Answer 39

d) All of the above

Question 40

40. The DSM-5 criteria for a diagnosis of schizophrenia includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    a) delusions.
    b) hallucinations.
    c) forgetfulness.
    d) disorganised speech.

Answer 40

c) forgetfulness.

Question 41

41. Those diagnosed with schizophrenia may believe that
    a) thoughts have been placed inside their heads from outside sources.
    b) their thoughts are being broadcasted or transmitted to others.
    c) they are all powerful and knowing.
    d) all of the above.

Answer 41

d) all of the above.

Question 42

42. Anhedonia as a symptom of schizophrenia refers to lack of
    a) emotional expression.
    b) interest or pleasure.
    c) coherent speech.
    d) speech.

Answer 42

b) interest or pleasure.

Question 43

43. The DSM-5 refers to the pathological use of substances as
    a) substance abuse.
    b) substance dependence.
    c) substance use disorder.
    d) None of the above

Answer 43

c) substance use disorder.

Question 44

44. Delirium tremens may result from
    a) a sudden drop in alcohol levels in a chronic, heavy drinker.
    b) high doses of alcohol in a person who has not previously drunk heavily.
    c) high doses of alcohol in a chronic heavy drinker.
    d) All of the above can cause the symptoms of delirium tremens

Answer 44

a) a sudden drop in alcohol levels in a chronic, heavy drinker.

Question 45

45. Abusing more than one drug at a time is referred to as
    a) polydrug abuse.
    b) multiple substance abuse.
    c) multiplied addiction.
    d) All of the above

Answer 45

a) polydrug abuse.

Question 46

46. Which of the following statements about the “stepping-stone” theory of drug use is most accurate?
    a) Most people who use “soft” drugs will move on to try “harder” drugs.
    b) Most people who use “hard” drugs started out on “softer” drugs.
    c) There is no difference between “hard” and “soft” drugs.
    d) There is no relationship between the use of “hard” and “soft” drugs.

Answer 46

b) Most people who use “hard” drugs started out on “softer” drugs.

Question 47

47. If a drug is used largely because it decreases negative mood, then the psychological effect of that drug is considered
    a) negatively reinforcing.
    b) positively reinforcing.
    c) non-addictive.
    d) a mood stabiliser.

Answer 47

a) negatively reinforcing.

Question 48

48. A first step for treating people dependent on drugs is
    a) helping them identify why they began to use drugs.
    b) detoxification.
    c) helping them understand why the drug is not good for them.
    d) committing to abstinence.

Answer 48

b) detoxification.

Question 49

49. Anorexia nervosa implies that those with the disorder become disinterested in food, while the reality is that:
    a) they are preoccupied with food.
    b) they are repulsed by food.
    c) they like to watch other people eat food.
    d) they truly are not interested in food.

Answer 49

a) they are preoccupied with food.

Question 50

50. The three features that are required for the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa include all of the following EXCEPT:
    a) restriction of behaviours that lead to very low body weight.
    b) intense fear of gaining weight and being fat.
    c) distorted body image.
    d) body weight is normal.

Answer 50

d) body weight is normal.

Question 51

51. In bulimia nervosa, binge eating typically occurs
    a) while alone.
    b) after stress.
    c) after a negative social interaction.
    d) All of the above

Answer 51

d) All of the above

Question 52

52. The physical consequence associated with binge eating disorder includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    a) breathing problems.
    b) cardiovascular problems.
    c) migraine headaches.
    d) joint/muscle problems.

Answer 52

c) migraine headaches.

Question 53

53. In the cognitive-behavioural view, the non-eating of anorexics is reinforced by
    a) reducing anxiety about being fat.
    b) reducing sexual demands from males.
    c) attention of overly concerned family members.
    d) increased time and energy for studies.

Answer 53

a) reducing anxiety about being fat.

Question 54

54. The field of _____________________________ focuses on the disorders of childhood within the context of life-span development.
    a) developmental psychology
    b) developmental illness investigation
    c) developmental psychopathology
    d) adult development

Answer 54

a) developmental psychology

Question 55

55. Externalising problems are more frequent in__________, and internalising problems are more frequent in__________, regardless of culture.
    a) boys; girls
    b) girls; boys
    c) boys; boys
    d) Gender distribution varies widely in different cultures.

Answer 55

a) boys; girls

Question 56

56. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder is characterised by all of the following EXCEPT
    a) poor academic work.
    b) shyness.
    c) difficulty getting along with peers.
    d) distractibility.

Answer 56

b) shyness.

Question 57

57. The fundamental characteristic of autism spectrum disorder is
    a) intolerance for routines.
    b) not relating to others.
    c) intellectual disability.
    d) poor gross motor skills.

Answer 57

b) not relating to others.

Question 58

58. Personality disorders are defined as
    a) maladaptive behaviours that consistently violate the rights of others.
    b) long-standing, pervasive, and inflexible patterns of behaviour and inner experience that deviate from the expectations of a person’s culture.
    c) any psychological disorder having an onset before age 12 and recurring at least three times during adult life.
    d) a chronic pattern of extreme instability in relationships, mood, and self-image.

Answer 58

d) a chronic pattern of extreme instability in relationships, mood, and self-image.

Question 59

59. A concern about the DSM-5’s classification system for personality disorders is that
    a) about half of the people who meet criteria for one personality disorder also meet criteria for another personality disorder.
    b) some of the disorders are rare in community settings, and even in most clinical settings.
    c) many people who seem to have a serious personality problem don’t fit any of the personality disorder diagnoses.
    d) all of the above.

Answer 59

d) all of the above.

Question 60

60. The three clusters of personality disorders are:
    a) Odd/Eccentric, Anxious/Fearful, and Dramatic/Erratic.
    b) Odd/Avoidant, Anxious/Fearful, and Dramatic/Attention-Seeking.
    c) Odd/Eccentric, Anxious/Withdrawn, and Dramatic/Erratic.
    d) Odd/Avoidant, Anxious/Fearful, and Attention-Seeking/Erratic.

Answer 60

a) Odd/Eccentric, Anxious/Fearful, and Dramatic/Erratic.