1402/175.302 MAN Distance Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of stigma?
    1) A label applied to a group of people that distinguishes them from others.
    2) A label applied to a group of people that breaks the law.
    3) The label is linked to deviant or undesirable attributes by society.
    4) People with the label face unfair discrimination.
A

2) A label applied to a group of people that breaks the law.

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2
Q
  1. The DSM-5’s definition of “mental disorder” involves all of the following criteria
    EXCEPT:
    1) It occurs within multiple individuals.
    2) It involves dysfunction.
    3) It is not primarily a result of social deviance.
    4) It is not a culturally specific reaction to an event.
A

1) It occurs within multiple individuals.

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about ECT?
    1) It is used today to effectively treat patients with severe depression.
    2) Today it is primarily used in the treatment of epilepsy.
    3) It destroys the tracts connecting the frontal lobes to the lower centers of the
    brain.
    4) ECT practices ceased to exist after the introduction of the lobotomy.
A

1) It is used today to effectively treat patients with severe depression.

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4
Q
  1. Anne experienced extreme pain at the dentist as a child. Now, she goes to a
    different dentist, but feels her heart race when she arrives, and goes down when she leaves. Her heart racing whenever she goes to the dentist is due to
    __________, and the calming feeling when she leaves is due to __________.
    1) classical conditioning, operant conditioning.
    2) operant conditioning, classical conditioning.
    3) operant conditioning, meditational learning.
    4) operant conditioning, modeling.
A

1) classical conditioning, operant conditioning.

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5
Q
  1. Contemporary views on genetic and environmental factors in behaviour emphasise that
    1) genes are important for only some behaviours.
    2) a good environment can overcome genetic limitations.
    3) both factors influence each other.
    4) the percentage of genetic influence on a behaviour can be measured.
A

3) both factors influence each other.

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT mentioned in the text as being implicated in psychopathology?
    1) GABA
    2) Dopamine
    3) Serotonin
    4) All of the above are mentioned
A

4) All of the above are mentioned

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7
Q
  1. A distinctive facet of the cognitive behavioural paradigm is that thoughts
    1) are a result of feelings.
    2) are a direct result of past experiences.
    3) are less important than behaviours.
    4) cause feelings.
A

4) cause feelings.

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8
Q
  1. Interpersonal therapy emphasizes the importance of __________ and how problems in these relationships contribute to psychological symptoms.
    1) past relationships
    2) current relationships
    3) future relationships
    4) both a and b
A

2) current relationships

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9
Q
  1. If a diagnosis helps clinicians make good predictions and informs them of the likely course of the disorder, psychologists would say that the diagnosis has
    1) interrater reliability.
    2) construct validity.
    3) test validity.
    4) internal consistency.
A

4) internal consistency.

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    1) Culture can have a large influence on which symptoms of a given disorder are
    expressed.
    2) For most diagnoses in the DSM-5, it is advised not to consider cultural context.
    3) All symptoms of psychiatric disorders manifest themselves in similar ways across
    cultures.
    4) The DSM-II was the first edition of the DSM to consider cultural and ethnic
    variations in psychopathology.
A

1) Culture can have a large influence on which symptoms of a given disorder are
expressed.

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following are designed to measure behavioural disturbances resulting from brain dysfunction?
    1) Brain imaging techniques
    2) Electrocardiograms
    3) Neuropsychological tests
    4) Neurotransmitter assessment
A

1) Brain imaging techniques

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12
Q
  1. Which of these diagnoses is not included in the DSM-5?
    1) mixed anxiety depressive disorder
    2) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
    3) premenstrual dysphoric disorder
    4) somatic symptom disorder
A

1) mixed anxiety depressive disorder

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13
Q
  1. Dr. Bradley has been conducting a case study of Brenda P., a woman with dissociative identity disorder. Which of the following statements by Dr. Bradley is a misuse of the case study method?
    1) “Brenda, a woman with dissociative identity disorder, was sexually abused as a
    child. Therefore, all individuals with multiple personality disorder must have been abuse victims.”
    2) “Since Brenda was not sexually abused, the theory that all dissociation is caused
    by sexual abuse may not be universally true.”
    3) “Brenda was sexually molested as a child. This leads me to hypothesize that
    perhaps other individuals with dissociative identity disorder were molested as children.”
    4) All of the above are examples of inappropriate uses of the case study.
A

1) “Brenda, a woman with dissociative identity disorder, was sexually abused as a
child. Therefore, all individuals with multiple personality disorder must have been abuse victims.”

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14
Q
  1. Correlational data would allow one to make which of the following statements?
    1) “Depression causes weight gain.”
    2) “Weight gain causes people to become depressed.”
    3) “Depression is associated with higher weight.”
    4) “Lack of social support is the root of both depression and weight gain.”
A

3) “Depression is associated with higher weight.”

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15
Q
  1. “About 2% of adults have obsessive-compulsive disorder.” This is a statement about the __________ of obsessive-compulsive disorder.
    1) incidence
    2) prevalence
    3) risk factor
    4) correlation coefficient
A

2) prevalence

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16
Q
  1. The single subject ABAB design cannot be used to study behaviours that
    1) are not prevalent in the population.
    2) do not return to baseline.
    3) are highly reactive.
    4) have highly heritable components.
A

2) do not return to baseline.

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17
Q
  1. Sarah reported feeling a lack of energy, difficulty sleeping, loss of appetite, difficulty concentrating, and a loss of interest in activities she previously enjoyed. Based on this information, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for Sarah?
    1) Eating disorder
    2) Major depressive disorder
    3) Bipolar disorder
    4) Generalized anxiety disorder
A

2) Major depressive disorder

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following symptoms are indicative of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, according to the DSM-5?
    1) Severe recurrent temper outbursts
    2) Swings in mood from extreme highs to extreme lows
    3) Persistent negative mood
    4) Both temper outbursts and a persistent negative mood
A

4) Both temper outbursts and a persistent negative mood

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19
Q
  1. To be diagnosed with bipolar I disorder, a person
    1) must be currently experiencing manic symptoms.
    2) must have experienced hypomanic symptoms as well as depressive
    symptoms at some point in their lifetime.
    3) must have had at least one episode of mania at some point in their lifetime.
    4) must have experienced at least one depressive episode.
A

3) must have had at least one episode of mania at some point in their lifetime.

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20
Q
  1. In interpersonal psychotherapy, the focus of treatment is on examining
    1) how the past is influencing the present.
    2) cognitive biases in relationships.
    3) current behaviours and how they interfere with relationships.
    4) major interpersonal problems in current relationships.
A

4) major interpersonal problems in current relationships.

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21
Q
  1. Jenny began to have sudden attacks of anxiety and dread and thus began to avoid public situations. Which disorder did Jenny likely have?
    1) Panic disorder
    2) Mood disorder
    3) Specific phobic disorder
    4) Avoidance disorder
A

1) Panic disorder

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22
Q
  1. The difference between anxiety and fear is that
    1) anxiety is a response to immediate danger, while fear is defined as
    apprehension over an anticipated problem.
    2) anxiety is immediate and fear is anticipated.
    3) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined
    as a response to immediate danger.
    4) anxiety is always adaptive, whereas fear is not.
A

3) anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined
as a response to immediate danger.

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23
Q
  1. Matt is fearful of interactions with others and avoids eating in public. Matt most likely has
    1) specific phobia.
    2) panic disorder with agoraphobia.
    3) social anxiety disorder.
    4) paranoia.
A

3) social anxiety disorder.

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following is a prominent behavioural technique for the treatment of GAD?
    1) cognitive restructuring.
    2) imaginal exposure.
    3) relaxation training.
    4) SSRIs.
A

3) relaxation training.

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25
Q
  1. How is body dysmorphic disorder similar to OCD?
    1) both engage in compulsive behaviours
    2) both have obsessive preoccupations
    3) both spend inordinate amounts of time on their obsessions
    4) all of the above
A

4) all of the above

26
Q
  1. Behavioural models consider compulsions to be
    1) classically conditioned responses.
    2) operantly conditioned responses.
    3) a result of suppressed obsessions.
    4) related to deficient locus coeruleus activity.
A

2) operantly conditioned responses.

27
Q
  1. The most widely used psychological treatment for OCD related disorders is
    1) interpersonal psychotherapy.
    2) psychoanalysis.
    3) exposure and response prevention.
    4) operant conditioning.
A

3) exposure and response prevention.

28
Q
  1. The two-factor model of conditioning for PTSD involves classical conditioning and
    1) operant conditioning.
    2) socialisation
    3) a neutral stimulus.
    4) modelling.
A

1) operant conditioning.

29
Q
  1. Dissociative disorders share
    1) obsessive thoughts.
    2) an alteration in consciousness or identity.
    3) an inability to distinguish reality from fantasy.
    4) physical symptoms with no physiological basis.
A

2) an alteration in consciousness or identity.

30
Q
  1. The prognosis for dissociative amnesia usually involves a __________ remission with __________ recovery.
    1) gradual; complete
    2) gradual; partial
    3) sudden; complete
    4) sudden; partial
A

3) sudden; complete

31
Q
  1. The two major theories of DID are
    1) post-traumatic and sociocognitive.
    2) post-traumatic and psychoanalytic.
    3) behavioural and psychoanalytic.
    4) post-traumatic and cognitive-behavioural.
A

1) post-traumatic and sociocognitive.

32
Q
  1. Lucy complained of paralysis in her leg that made it impossible for her to work or do household chores. When in the emergency room, she appeared unconcerned with her ailment and discussed it at great length. She even invited people to come and poke her leg to show that she experienced no sensations. She would most likely be diagnosed with
    1) somatic symptom disorder.
    2) conversion disorder.
    3) malingering.
    4) illness anxiety disorder.
A

3) malingering.

33
Q
  1. Schizophrenia is a disorder characterized by disturbances in
    1) thought.
    2) emotion.
    3) behaviour.
    4) all of the above.
A

4) all of the above.

34
Q
  1. Schizophrenia usually appears in
    1) early childhood.
    2) middle or late childhood.
    3) adolescence or early adulthood.
    4) late adulthood.
A

3) adolescence or early adulthood.

35
Q
  1. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following EXCEPT:
    1) hallucinations.
    2) delusions.
    3) excesses and distortions.
    4) sociality
A

4) sociality

36
Q
  1. The traditional drugs for treating schizophrenia
    1) enable schizophrenics to adjust to hospital life.
    2) commonly produce depressive side-effects.
    3) generally only reduce positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
    4) are effective with less than half of schizophrenics.
A

3) generally only reduce positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

37
Q
  1. The DSM-5 refers to the pathological use of substances as
    1) substance abuse.
    2) substance dependence.
    3) substance use disorder.
    4) none of the above.
A

3) substance use disorder.

38
Q
  1. Amy drinks frequently and requires more alcohol now than she did six months ago to achieve the same effect. She reports that she can out-drink most people. Amy is probably
    1) genetically predisposed to alcoholism.
    2) developing a physiological dependence on alcohol.
    3) acquiring behavioural skills in modulating her drinking.
    4) deluding herself. This is not physically possible.
A

2) developing a physiological dependence on alcohol.

39
Q
  1. Studies on the effects of smoking marijuana on the brain have shown that it is associated with
    1) impaired short-term memory and increased blood flow to brain regions associated with emotion.
    2) impaired long-term memory and decreased blood flow to brain regions associated with emotion.
    3) impaired short-term memory and increased blood flow to brain regions associated with attention.
    4) impaired long-term memory and decreased blood flow to brain regions associated with attention.
A

1) impaired short-term memory and increased blood flow to brain regions associated with emotion.

40
Q
  1. Research on the genetic contribution of drug abuse has shown that
    1) genetic risk factors are stronger for “hard” drugs, such as stimulants and hallucinogens.
    2) genetic risk factors appear to be the same no matter what the drug.
    3) genetic risk is strongest for alcohol.
    4) only marijuana use has been shown to be unrelated to genetic risk.
A

2) genetic risk factors appear to be the same no matter what the drug.

41
Q
  1. Most people with anorexia nervosa
    1) lose their appetite
    2) lose their interest in food
    3) lose both their appetite and interest in food
    4) do not lose their appetite or interest in food
A

4) do not lose their appetite or interest in food

42
Q
  1. Prior to the onset of bulimia, sufferers often
    1) have anorexia nervosa.
    2) are overweight and dieting.
    3) have attempted suicide.
    4) have higher than normal levels of serotonin.
A

2) are overweight and dieting.

43
Q
  1. Recent studies on cognitive-behavioural factors involved in bulimia nervosa have shown that bingeing and purging may function as means of
    1) relieving stress and negative affect.
    2) increasing energy and thus mood.
    3) feeling in control of the situation.
    4) distracting oneself from inner pain.
A

3) feeling in control of the situation.

44
Q
  1. Which of the following has been shown to reliably lead to long-term maintenance of weight gain in treating anorexia?
    1) cognitive-behavioural therapy
    2) family therapy
    3) psychodynamic therapy
    4) none of the above has been shown to reliably lead to long-term
    maintenance of weight gain
A

4) none of the above has been shown to reliably lead to long-term
maintenance of weight gain

45
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a subcategory of paraphilia in the DSM-5?
    1) fetishistic disorder
    2) sexual arousal disorder
    3) transvestic disorder
    4) exhibitionistic disorder
A

2) sexual arousal disorder

46
Q
  1. In the human sexual response cycle, what is the name of the phase in which blood flows to the genitalia and pleasurable sensations build?
    1) desire
    2) excitement
    3) orgasm
    4) anticipatory
A

2) excitement

47
Q
  1. For women with sexual dysfunctions in the context of marital relationship distress, which of the following has been found to improve many aspects of sexual functioning?
    1) SSRI medications
    2) behavioural marital couple’s therapy
    3) anti-anxiety medications
    4) psychoanalysis
A

2) behavioural marital couple’s therapy

48
Q
  1. Externalizing disorders include all of the following EXCEPT
    1) ADHD
    2) noncompliance
    3) conduct disorder
    4) social withdrawal
A

4) social withdrawal

49
Q
  1. As compared to developmentally normal levels of hyperactivity, diagnosable hyperactivity
    1) impairs the child’s functioning.
    2) negatively affects the child’s ability to mature appropriately.
    3) is treatable only with medication.
    4) all of the above.
A

1) impairs the child’s functioning.

50
Q
  1. As part of his treatment for committing incest, Sean was trained to experience empathy for his victims. He was likely receiving
    1) object-relations psychodynamic therapy.
    2) behavioural therapy.
    3) cognitive therapy.
    4) family therapy.
A

3) cognitive therapy.

51
Q
  1. Which of the following factors were found to be predictive of conduct disorder in a large-scale research study on children from New Zealand?
    1) being maltreated as children and low birth weight
    2) presence of low MAOA activity
    3) low birth weight and being male
    4) both maltreatment and low MAOA activity
A

4) both maltreatment and low MAOA activity

52
Q
  1. Research on the role of parenting in the etiology of anxiety disorders in youth suggest
    1) parenting is crucial in determining anxiety in children.
    2) over-controlling parenting almost always results in social phobia in children.
    3) parenting practices play a small role in childhood anxiety.
    4) how parents discipline their children has a strong effect on the development of childhood anxiety.
A

3) parenting practices play a small role in childhood anxiety.

53
Q
  1. Social selectivity refers to
    1) cultivating only one’s most important social relationships.
    2) restricting one’s social interactions only to family members.
    3) seeking out new social interactions.
    4) seeking out solitary social activities.
A

1) cultivating only one’s most important social relationships.

54
Q
  1. In what brain areas are abnormalities found in Alzheimer’s patients?
    1) frontal cortex
    2) sensory cortical areas
    3) hippocampus
    4) both 1 and 3
A

4) both 1 and 3

55
Q
  1. Psychological treatments for individuals with Alzheimer’s
    1) focus on helping the individual admit to and understand their cognitive deficiencies and limitations.
    2) are usually psychodynamic.
    3) focus on helping patients and families deal with the effects of the disease.
    4) can remove their memory deficits.
A

3) focus on helping patients and families deal with the effects of the disease.

56
Q
  1. If you are talking to a person with delirium, it may feel like you are talking
    1) to someone who has suffered amnesia.
    2) to a child.
    3) to someone who is depressed.
    4) to someone who is drunk.
A

4) to someone who is drunk.

57
Q
  1. Which of the following DSM personality disorders is more common in males than in females?
    1) antisocial personality disorder
    2) borderline personality disorder
    3) avoidant personality disorder
    4) obsessive-compulsive personality disorder
A

1) antisocial personality disorder

58
Q
  1. Unusual and eccentric thoughts and behaviour (psychoticism), interpersonal detachment, and suspiciousness are characteristics of the DSM-5’s __________ personality disorder.
    1) schizotypal
    2) narcissistic
    3) avoidant
    4) borderline
A

1) schizotypal

59
Q
  1. What diagnosis would be most appropriate for Anna? She says she would like to meet people but is too afraid of saying something foolish to speak to them. She describes herself as the ultimate social klutz because she never knows what to say or do. As a result, she keeps to herself except for interacting with a few friends she has known since childhood.
    1) schizoid personality disorder
    2) schizotypal personality disorder
    3) avoidant personality disorder
    4) dependent personality disorder
A

3) avoidant personality disorder

60
Q
  1. Individuals with borderline personality disorder are difficult to treat because
    1) their intellectual functioning is too low for them to reach true insights.
    2) they do not feel distressed, despite being so distressing to others.
    3) they have extreme difficulties trusting others, including a therapist.
    4) all of the above.
A

3) they have extreme difficulties trusting others, including a therapist.