14 common drugs Flashcards

Question

Atorvastatin/brand

Answer 1

Hypolipemic

Answer 2

Hyperlipidemia

Answer 3

10-80 mg PO daily

Answer 4

Inhibits rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase

Answer 5

N/D/dyspepsia (discomfort in the upper abdomen) Nasopharyngitis (inflammatory attack of the pharynx and nasal cavity) Arthralgia (joint stiffness)

Answer 6

Hepatic metabolism | excreted mainly in the bile

Answer 7

Antidiabetic

Answer 8

1.25-20 mg po daily, max 20 mg daily

Answer 9

Sulfonylurea enhance insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells. Increase peripheral utilization of glucose, suppress hepatic gluconeogenesis, and possibly increase sensitivity and/or number of peripheral insulin receptors

Answer 10

Nocturnal enuresis Hypoglycemia, nausea, myalgia, skin rash, heartburn Disulfiram reaction, hemolytic anemia

Answer 11

Renal elimination 50%

Answer 12

May have symptoms of hypoglycemia masked by beta blockers (except sweating) Monitor blood glucose 2-4 times per day Alcohol may cause disulfiram reaction Often add-on in therapy with metformin if A1c goals are not met

Answer 13

Hydrodiuril

Answer 14

Hypertension, edema

Answer 15

Edema: 25-100 mg PO daily in single or divided doses HTN: initial 12.5-25 mg PO daily

Answer 16

Thiazides increase sodium and chloride excretion by interfering with their reabsorption in the cortical diluting segment of the nephron

Answer 17

Hypotension, dizziness, headache Constipation, nausea, impotence Hypercalcemia, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypoatremia

Answer 18

Eliminated 50-70% unchanged in urine

Answer 19

Full hypotensive effect may require 2-3 weeks | Avoid alcohol and using NSAIDs

Answer 20

Non-Steroidal Anti-inflammatory

Answer 21

Pain relief, fever, headache

Answer 22

200-400 mg PO q4-6h prn (max 1200 mg/day)

Answer 23

Nonselective inhibitor of COX-1 and COX-2 and reversibily alters platelet function and prolongs bleeding time

Answer 24

GI distress Edema, itching GI bleeding

Answer 25

Hepatic metabolism via CYP2C19 | 45-80% renal

Answer 26

Use with caution in renal dysfunction | NSAIDs associated with increased risk of CV thrombotic events

Answer 27

Antibiotic

Answer 28

Treatment of community-acquired pneumonia, including multidrug resistant strains of S. pneumoniae (MDRSP); nosocomial pneumonia; chronic bronchitis (acute bacterial exacerbation); acute bacterial rhinosinusitis (ABRS); prostatitis (chronic bacterial), urinary tract infection (uncomplicated or complicated); acute pyelonephritis; skin or skin structure infections (uncomplicated or complicated); reduce incidence or disease progression of inhalational anthrax (postexposure); prophylaxis and treatment of plague (pneumonic and septicemic) due to Y. pestis

Answer 29

500-750mg once daily

Answer 30

As the S(-) enantiomer of the fluoroquinolone, ofloxacin, levofloxacin, inhibits DNA-gyrase in susceptible organisms thereby inhibits relaxation of supercoiled DNA and promotes breakage of DNA strands. DNA gyrase (topoisomerase II), is an essential bacterial enzyme that maintains the superhelical structure of DNA and is required for DNA replication and transcription, DNA repair, recombination, and transposition.

Answer 31

nausea headache diarrhea

Answer 32

CrCl 20-50, reduce dose by 50% | CrCl 5-19 mL/min, extend interval by 48h

Answer 33

Not approved in children younger than age of 18. Oral and IV dosing is interchangeable. Increased risk of tendon rupture in >60yr

Answer 34

Antihypertensive

Answer 35

Hypertension, CHF, acute MI

Answer 36

5-10mg PO daily

Answer 37

Competitive inhibitor of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE); prevents conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor; results in lower levels of angiotensin II which causes an increase in plasma renin activity and a reduction in aldosterone secretion; a CNS mechanism may also be involved in hypotensive effect as angiotensin II increases adrenergic outflow from CNS; vasoactive kallikreins may be decreased in conversion to active hormones by ACE inhibitors, thus reducing blood pressure

Answer 38

dizziness hypotension hyperkalemia

Answer 39

Renal: CrCl 10 to 30 mL/minute: Initial: 5 mg once daily, CrCl <10 mL/minute: Initial: 2.5 mg once daily

Answer 40

ACEI induced cough

Answer 41

Antihypertensive

Answer 42

Hypertension | Diabetic nephropathy

Answer 43

50 mg once daily

Answer 44

As a selective and competitive, nonpeptide angiotensin II receptor antagonist, losartan blocks the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone-secreting effects of angiotensin II; losartan interacts reversibly at the AT1 and AT2 receptors of many tissues and has slow dissociation kinetics; its affinity for the AT1 receptor is 1000 times greater than the AT2 receptor. Angiotensin II receptor antagonists may induce a more complete inhibition of the renin-angiotensin system than ACE inhibitors, they do not affect the response to bradykinin, and are less likely to be associated with nonrenin-angiotensin effects (eg, cough and angioedema). Losartan increases urinary flow rate and in addition to being natriuretic and kaliuretic, increases excretion of chloride, magnesium, uric acid, calcium, and phosphate.

Answer 45

Headache Diarrhea Hyperkalemia

Answer 46

Renal: GFR <30 mL/minute/1.73 m2: Use is not recommended. Hepatic: Mild to moderate hepatic impairment: Initial: 25 mg once daily

Answer 47

Glucophage

Answer 48

Antidiabetic

Answer 49

Diabetes mellitus, type 2

Answer 50

500 mg twice daily or 850 mg once daily; titrate in increments of 500 mg weekly or 850 mg every other week

Answer 51

Decreases hepatic glucose production, decreasing intestinal absorption of glucose and improves insulin sensitivity (increases peripheral glucose uptake and utilization)

Answer 52

Diarrhea N&V Flatulence

Answer 53

Renal: contraindicated in eGFR <30; eGFR 30 to 45 may consider 50% dosage reduction

Answer 54

Does not cause hypoglycemia, need good renal function measured by GFR, not SCr anymore

Answer 55

Beta-blacker (antihypertensive)

Answer 56

Angina, heart failure, HTN, MI

Answer 57

25-100 mg PO daily

Answer 58

Selective inhibitor of beta1-adrenergic receptors; competitively blocks beta1-receptors, with little or no effect on beta2-receptors at oral doses <100 mg (in adults); does not exhibit any membrane stabilizing or intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

Answer 59

Dizziness Fatigue Hypotension

Answer 60

Liver disease-use slow titration

Answer 61

Avoid concomitant use of CCBs as use may significantly affect heart rate rhythm

Answer 62

beta-blocker (antihypertensive)

Answer 63

Angina, heart failure, HTN, MI

Answer 64

25-100 mg PO daily

Answer 65

Selective inhibitor of beta1-adrenergic receptors; competitively blocks beta1-receptors, with little or no effect on beta2-receptors at oral doses <100 mg (in adults); does not exhibit any membrane stabilizing or intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

Answer 66

Dizziness Fatigue Hypotension

Answer 67

Liver disease-use slow dose titration

Answer 68

Avoid concomitant use of CCBs as use may significantly affect heart rate rhythm

Answer 69

Hypolipemic

Answer 70

hyperlipidemia, prophylaxis for CVD event risk

Answer 71

5-40mg PO daily (dependent on intensity)

Answer 72

Hydrolyzed to beta-hydroxyacid (potent HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor) --> increases rate of removal of cholesterol from body and reduces production by inhibiting conversion of HMG-CoA to mevalonate (early and rate limiting step in biosynthesis of cholesterol)

Answer 73

Myalgia, rhabdomyolysis Abdominal pain Increased LFTs

Answer 74

Extensive hepatic metabolism | Renal and fecal elimination

Answer 75

AVOID during pregnancy Report sxs of muscle pain/weakness Take in the evening CYP3A4 drug interactions: limit to 20mg w/ amiodarone, amlodipine, ranolazine, limit to 10mg w/ verapamil, diltiazem, dronedarone Do not initiate 80mg - restricted to pts who received that dose chronically for at least 12 months w/o evidence of muscle toxicity"