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yr 1 uni work > 125 > Flashcards

125 Flashcards

1
Q

superior

A

above

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2
Q

inferior

A

below

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3
Q

anterior or ventral

A

front

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4
Q

posterior or dorsal

A

back

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5
Q

close to (midline) anatomical term

A

medial

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6
Q

away from/next to (midline) anatomical term

A

lateral

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7
Q

sagittal

A

side of head (side profile

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8
Q

transverse

A

top of head

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9
Q

coronal

A

back of head

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10
Q

components of CNS

A

brain and spinal cord

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11
Q

components of PNS

A

cranial and peripheral nerves
(peripheral nervous system)

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12
Q

sensory function of nervous system

A

detect external and internal changes

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13
Q

integrative function of the nervous system

A

analyses and makes decisions based on voluntary and involuntary responses

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14
Q

motor functions of the nervous system

A

initiates motor movement and glandular secretions

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15
Q

cerebrum simple anatomy

A

largest part of the brain. It contains the cerebral cortex and subcortical regions

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16
Q

cerebellum

A

located in the posterior region of the brain, it is mainly responsible for balance and coordination

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17
Q

brainstem

A

contains the midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata. It communicates with the PNS to control involuntary processes such as breathing and heart rate.

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18
Q

what separates the 2 hemispheres of the cerebrum

A

connected by a large fibres bundle called the corpus callosum

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19
Q

whats the outer layer of the cerebrum composed of

A

cerebral cortex

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20
Q

4 lobes of the cerebral cortex

A

frontal
parietal
temporal
occipital

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21
Q

cortical lobes- frontal lobe

A

higher cognitive functions
decision making
problem-solving
some features of language and voluntary movement

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22
Q

parietal lobe

A

integrates info from visual pathways
coordinates motor movement and interpretation of sensory info

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23
Q

temporal lobe

A

interpreting speech and hearing, object recognition and emotion

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24
Q

occipital lobe

A

processing primary visual info

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25
Q

where are the subcortical regions located

A

brain regions that lie underneath the cortex

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26
Q

examples of subcortical structures

A

hypothalamus
amygdala
hippocampus
thalamus
basal ganglia

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26
Q

what are the subcortical regions responsible for

A

memory
emotions
motor movement
processing sensory info

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27
Q

what serves as a connection between the brainstem and subcortical regions

A

midbrain

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28
Q

what does the midbrain consist of

A

colliculi- eye movements towards interest objects
tegmentum-coordination of movement, alertness/sleep
cerebral peduncle- control of ocular muscles

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29
Q

what are the 5 main sections of the spinal cord

A

cervical- neck
thoracic- chest
lumbar- lower back
sacral-hip
coccygeal- tail

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30
Q

what does enteric system regulate

A

water and solutes between gut and tissue
PNS- autonomic system

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31
Q

what does somatic system control

A

voluntary
skeletal muscle
sensory info from the body and from the outside world

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32
Q

is it parasympathetic or sympathetic system that controls fight or flight

A

sympathetic- fight-flight
parasympathetic- rest-digest

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33
Q

what pathway carry sensory info from the periphery up to the brain

A

afferent pathway via ascending nerve tracts

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34
Q

where does brain send signals down to peripheral nerves

A

down efferent descending nerve tracts to control motor output

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35
Q

leg jerk response- reflex arc

A

hit- sensory afferents- dorsal column of spinal cord- interneurons in spinal cord- muscles of legs via efferents nerve that originate in ventral horn- efferent fibres communicate with muscles causing them to contract- jerk
NO INPUT FROM BRAIN

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36
Q

4 cells of the CNS

A

neuron
astrocytes
microglia
oligodendrocytes

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37
Q

2 main cell groups in CNS

A

neurons-nerve cells
glia- support cells

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38
Q

4 subdivisions of glial cells

A

microglia
astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
ependymal cells

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39
Q

in neurons how is input from other cells received

A

via finger like dendrites
relay info to the cell body

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40
Q

3 types of neuron

A

bipolar
unipolar
multipolar

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41
Q

bipolar neuron

A

1 main dendrite and axon
e.g. retina, inner ear, olfactory area of brain

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42
Q

unipolar neurons

A

1 process from the cell body, part way down the axon
alwasy sensory enurons - pain, temp, touch

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43
Q

multipolar neurons

A

many dendrites
1 axon
most neurons in CNS

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44
Q

microglia

A

immune cells that survey CNS and respond to sites of infection or damge
exist in wide range of morphologies depending on activation state
surveillant state
activated state

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45
Q

surveillant microglia

A

smaller
multiple processes

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46
Q

activated microglia

A

larger
rounded cell body
shorter processes

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47
Q

what shape are astrocytes

A

small star shaped

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48
Q

what do astrocytes do

A

provide support for the development and homeostatic maintenance of the nervous system and cerebral blood vessels
form a glial scar after sever injury
heterogeneity across different brain regions

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49
Q

oligodendrocytes

A

Schwann cells in PNS
lipid-rich sheath of myelin that wraps around neurons to increase speed of transmission

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50
Q

white matter

A

contain myelin

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51
Q

grey brain matter

A

unmyelinated cell bodies

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52
Q

neurovascular unit

A

blood vssels in brain made up of astrocytes, pericytes, smooth muscle cells, neurons

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53
Q

blood-brain barrier

A

endothelial cells form tight junction proteins
brain creates physical barrier between blood and the brain

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54
Q

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

A

contained within ventricles in subarachnoid spaces
provides buoyancy for brain and cushions it
produced from filtered blood by choroid plexus in ventricles

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55
Q

what forces move ions across membranes

A

chemical- conc differences
electrical- interior cell - so + cations are retained and negative ions expelled

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56
Q

2 broad categories of ion channels that facilitate ion movement

A
  1. gated channels and require stimulus
  2. channels always open and allow free movement
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57
Q

at resting conditions is Na+ higher inside or outside neuron

A

10x higher outside
but k+ is 15x higher inside neuron

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58
Q

potassium movement in neuron

A

constant k+ flow from inside to outside neuron through leaky (open) channels

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59
Q

how is ion gradient maintained in neuron

A

na+/K+ ATPase pump
moves 3 Na+ out the cell
2K+ moved into cell at same time

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60
Q

at rest in neuron is there more of a positive charge inside or outside of cell

A

outside
as a result of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump
this is known as polarisation

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61
Q

resting membrane potential

A

most neurons its -70mV
the difference in voltage across the PM when neuron at rest

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62
Q

electrochemical gradient of sodium

A

when Na+ channels open ions move into cell- chemical
electrical forces pulls ions into cell
both chemical and electrical act in same direction so Na+ moved into cell

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63
Q

reaching equilbirum in Na+ neuron movement

A

na moves into cell and the cell charge becomes more positive
so electrical and chemical gradients decrease
eventually it’ll all be in balance so no net flow through any open channel

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64
Q

equilibrium potential defintion

A

the membrane potential required to exactly counteract the chemical forces acting to move 1 particular ion across the membrane

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65
Q

electrochemical gradient of potassium

A

when k channels open the chemical gradient move ions out the cell
but electrical forces pull them into cell
2 forces acting in different direction
but chemical force> electrical so k moves out neuron

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66
Q

equilibrium of potassium movement of neuron

A

k moves out
cell becomes more negative so electrical gradient becomes stronger
until chemical forces thats moving k out= electrical trying to move it in
so no net flow

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67
Q

how is the equilibrium potential calcualted

A

Nernst equation
61/z log Co/ Ci
z= charge of ion
Co= conc of ion out cell
Ci= conc of ion in cell

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68
Q

If the membrane potential is depolarised beyond a certain critical level (threshold potential = -55mV) then an action potential is triggered in the neuron
t/f

A

true

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69
Q

when do voltage-gated ion channels open

A

when the voltage in the cell reaches a certain value
found in PM of neuron and are sensitive of the cell

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70
Q

Voltage-gated Na+ channels have both an activation gate and an inactivation gate. At rest, the activation gate is closed and the inactivation gate is open
t/f

A

true

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71
Q

Voltage-gated K+ channels have two activation gate, which opens to allow the flow of K+ ions through the channel and closes to stop the flow of K+ ions
t/f

A

only 1 activation gate

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72
Q

what happens when a neuron is initially stimulated

A

ligand-gated ion Na+ channels open
small amounts of Na+ move down conc grad into the neuron and resting potential becomes more psoitive

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73
Q

depolarisation step of action potential

A

membrane reaches critical threshold (-55mV)
voltage-gated activation gates in Na+ channel open quickly
Na+ moves into the neuron
neuron loses negative charge undergoing depolarisation

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74
Q

when inside of neuron becomes highly positive what happens to voltage-gated Na+ channel

A

it is plugged by inactivation gate and flow of Na+ into neuron is stopped

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75
Q

repolarisation

A

voltage-gated K+ channels open slowly
K+ flows down conc out of cell
causes neuron to regain negative charge

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76
Q

hyperpolarisation

A

response to reapid increase in negative charge
voltage-gated k channels close but as this is a slow process some k still moves into cell making it more negative than it needs to be

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77
Q

refractory period

A

during hyperpolarisation period
neuron cant fire another ap
Na+/K+ ATPase pump will restore hyperpolarisation state to -70mV

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78
Q

where are action potentials initiated

A

at base of neuron in the region called axon hillock

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79
Q

what are the small gaps in the myelin called

A

nodes of ranvier
and allow ion movement across axon membrane

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80
Q

saltatory conduction

A

nodes of ranveir
allow ap to jump from node to node very quickly

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81
Q

is information coded by the frequency of AP or the size of the potential

A

the frequency
the number of spikes over a given time rather than size

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82
Q

how do neurons communicate with one another

A

via synapses
electrical synapses use gap junctiosn that connect the cytoplasm between 2 cells
chemical synapses involves release of neurotransmitter
chemcial are more common

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83
Q

what happens when ap reaches end of neuron

A

influx of ca+
fusion of vesicles with pre-synaptic membrane
release neurotransmitter itno synaptic cleft

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84
Q

whats the amount of neurotransmitter in 1 vesivle called

A

quantum

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85
Q

what happens when neurotransmitter enters synaptic cleft

A

diffuse across
binds to receptors on postsynaptic neuron
for excitatory neurotransmitter causes Na+ influx
triggers ap

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86
Q

what are excitatory neurotransmitters

A

if they raise membrane potential towards the critical threshold

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87
Q

what are inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

if they lower the membrane potetnial away from the critical threshold

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88
Q

summation

A

where neuron ‘sums u[’ all the excitatory and inhibitory signals it receives over a period of time

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89
Q

criteria for transmitter substance

A
  1. synthesised in neuron
  2. present at presynaptic terminals in vesicles
  3. exogenous susbtance at reasonable concentration mimics exactly the action of endogenously released neurotransmitter
  4. mechanism for removing transmitter from celft
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90
Q

ionotropic receptors

A

transmitter binding= direct opening of ion channel
ligand-gated ion channels
always stimulatort
fast

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91
Q

metabotropic receptors

A

transmitter binding= indirect activation of G-protein
GPCR
trigger opening or closing of separate ion channel down from signalling cascade
slow effect

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92
Q

ionotropic receptors structure

A

4 or 5 subunits around central pore
receptors can be made up of different combinations of subunits increasing diversity
examples- GABAa, ACh, glycine, 5-HT3 receptors

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93
Q

structure of metabotropic receptors

A

single protein with 7 membrane-spanning regions
7 transmembrane receptors
examples- muscarinic acetylcholine, rhodopsin, all 5-HT receptors except 5-HT3

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94
Q

inotropic receptors how it works when binding to neurotransmitter

A

at rest= channel pore closed
binding of neurotransmitter causes channel to open
ions flow down conc grad
channels will be permeable to anions (na,k)or cations(cl-)

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95
Q

metabotropic receptors when binding to neurotransmitter

A

when it binds activates g-protein
g-protein acts on ion channel causing ion pore to open
g-protein activates second messenger
second messenger can bind to and open an ion channel or initiate a signalling cascade

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96
Q

agonists

A

drugs that mimic the actions of neurotransmitter
binding to receptor= activation

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97
Q

antagonists

A

a drug that block the action of neurotransmitter
binding to receptor= no activation

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98
Q

first neurotransmitter to be discouvered

A

acetylcholine
in 1912

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99
Q

synthesis of acetycholine

A

Acetyl coA + acetylcholine

synthesised by choline acetyl transferase

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100
Q

2 types of acetylcholine

A

nicotinic - neuromuscular, brain, autonomic nerves
muscarinic- smooth muscle, exocrine glands, brain

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101
Q

whats alzheimers

A

onset of dementia
problems with memory
loss of brain weight
enlargement of ventricles
numerous senile plaques and neurofibrillary tangles in the brain

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102
Q

cholinergic death in alzheimers disease

A

acetylcholine is important for memory and attention
cholinergic neurons die in early AD

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103
Q

what drugs are approved for treatment of AD

A

AChE inhibitors
- donepezil-1997
- rivastigmine- 2000
- galantamine- 2001

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104
Q

wahts catecholamines synthesised from

A

tyrosine
which is transported into brain from blood

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105
Q

what enzymes does catabolism of catecholamines

A

monoamine oxidase (MAO) and catechol 0-methyltransferase (COMT)

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106
Q

2 major families of dopamine receptors

A

D1-like= D1 and D5- coupled stimulatory g-proteins
D2-like= D2, D3, D4- coupled to inhibitory g-proteins

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107
Q

what do D1-like dopamine receptors stimulate

A

adenylate cyclase

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108
Q

what do D2-liek dopamine receptors inhibit

A

inhibit adenylate cyclase

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109
Q

parkinsons disease

A

onset age- 60+
affects 1-2% over 65
muscle stiffness
slow movements
tremor at rest

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110
Q

pathology of parkinsons disease

A

degeneration of dopaminergic neurons
in substantia nigra pars compacta

loss of dopamine in the caudate-putamen
>50% dopamine depletion

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111
Q

treatment of Parkinsons disease

A

motor symptoms- L-dopa (converts to dopamine in brain)
COMPT and MAO-B given to inhibit dopamine degradation

peripherally active Dopa decarboxylase inhibitor given to prevent premature conversion of L-dopa to dopamine

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112
Q

what is serotonin synthesised from

A

tryptophan by tryptophan hydroxylase and 5-hydroxytryptophan decarboxylase

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113
Q

what is serotonin broken down into

A

5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid by MAO and aldehyde dehydrogenase

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114
Q

serotonin signalling

A

5-HT can bind to 14 diff receptors- all are g-coupled except for 5-HT3
some excitatory and others are inhibitory
action terminated mainly by reuptake from the synapse via the 5-HT transporter on the presynaptic neuron

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115
Q

SSRI treatment

A

can treat depression, anxiety, OCD, PTSD, etc
example- citalopram(cipramil)
fluoxetine (prozac, oxactin)

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116
Q

amino acid transmitters

A

glutamate and aspartate= excitatory
glycine and GABA= inhibitory

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117
Q

what type of receptor is GABA A

A

ionotropic receptors coupled to cl-

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118
Q

what type of receptor is GABA B

A

metabotropic receptor
coupled to ca and k ions cannels via g-protein and second messenger systems

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119
Q

what modulatory binding sites does GABA A have

A

for benzodiazepines
barbiturates
neurosteroids
ethanol

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120
Q

3 types of glutamate receptors

A

NMDA
non-NMDA
mGlut

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121
Q

NMDA receptor

A

bidn glutamate , glycine, mg, zn and polyamines
form channels that are permeable to cations

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122
Q

non-NMDA receptors(kainate and AMPA)

A

interact only with glutamate and their specific agonists - Na+ and K+> Ca+

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123
Q

mGlut receptors

A

g-protein receptors that trigger a second messenger cascade
8 types

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124
Q

drug to treat alzheimers

A

memantine
it blocks mg2+ binding site on the glutamate NMDA receptors

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125
Q

whats the most common type of neurotransmitter in the hypothalamus

A

peptide neurotransmitter

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126
Q

peptide neurotransmitter synthesis

A

large precursor proteins
transported to synaptic release site- activated by proteolytic cleavage

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127
Q

do peptide neurotransmitters include opioids

A

yes
endorphins
enkephalins
dynorphins

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128
Q

do peptide neurotransmitters have slow or fast postsynaptic effects

A

slow

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129
Q

how long is gi tract

A

approx 4.5metres when living
9metres when dead

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130
Q

4 process (basic) of digestion system

A

digestion
absorption
motility
secretion

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131
Q

4 layers of gi tract inorder centre to outside

A

mucosa- epithelium
submucosa- connective tissue
muscularis-circualar and longitudinal layer
sreosa- connective tissue

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132
Q

nerve plexus

A

from centre to outside layer of gi tract
enteric nervous system

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133
Q

what does the mucosa consist of

A

-mucous membrane- epithelial cells or enterocytes include absorptive, exocrine/endocrine, goblet cells
-lamina propria
-muscularis mucosae

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134
Q

exocrine definition

A

secretion of enzymes into a duct directed at target

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135
Q

endocrine definition

A

secretion of hormones into the bloodstream

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136
Q

how much saliva secreted per day

A

0.75-1.5

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137
Q

what is saliva stimulated by

A

autonomic nervous system

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138
Q

what does saliva contain

A

a-amylase and lingual lipase

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139
Q

functions of saliva

A

lubrication
buffering noxious substances
antibiotic action
taste
cleans teeth
fluoride, calcium uptake into teeth
breaks down food

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140
Q

How long is oesophagus

A

approx 25cm

141
Q

what connects pharynx to stomach

A

oesophagus

142
Q

what type of muscle is upper 1/3 of oesophagus

A

skeletal muscle

143
Q

what type of muscle is lower 2-3 of oesophagus

A

smooth muscle

144
Q

how much can stomach expand

A

from 50ml to 1-2 litres

145
Q

what do gastric glands contain

A

parietal cells and cheif cells

146
Q

what do parietal cells secrete

A

HCL

147
Q

what do chief cells secrete

A

pepsinogen

148
Q

how much HCL is secreted by stomach

A

2 litres per day

149
Q

in the stomach what is required for absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum

A

intrinsic factor= glycoprotein

150
Q

what does rennin coagulate

A

milk

151
Q

what triggers the release of pepsinogen and HCl

A

gastrin and vagus nerve

152
Q

is vagus nerve parasympathetic or sympathetic

A

parasympathetic
involved in rest and digest

153
Q

HCL secretion mechanism in stomach

A

h+ made from co2 and water by carbonic anhydrase
actively transported to lumen in exchange for k+
bicarb ions exchanged for cl- which diffuse into lumen
- HCL

154
Q

activation of pepsinogen in stomach

A

not activated till it encounters HCL
first 44 removed to make pepsin
pepsin then activate more pepsinogen

155
Q

is pepsin an endopeptidase

A

yes it breaks internal peptide bonds of proteins to create smaller fragments

156
Q

what does an exopeptidase do

A

remove 1 amino acid at a time from either end of a polypeptide

157
Q

activation of chymotrypsinogen

A

chymotrypsinogen - trypsin–>
chymotrypsin –chymotrypsin–> a-chymotrypsin (3 chains linked by interchain disulphide bonds )

158
Q

how long is small intestine

A

2.5-3 metres

159
Q

parts of si

A

first 30cm = duodenum
then jejenum and ileum

160
Q

does Duodenum receives chyme from stomach, enzymes from pancreas, and bile from liver & gallbladder

A

yes

161
Q

what part of si is responsible for digestion

A

duodenum

162
Q

what part of si is responsible for absorption of nutrients, water, vitamin, minerals

A

all parts

163
Q

where are crypts of lieberkuhn foudn and waht do they secrete

A

found in SI
secrete bicarb rich fluid to neutralise chyme from stomach

164
Q

parts of the colon

A

cecum
rectum
anal canal

appendix- attached to cecum
crypts of lieberkuhn but no villi

165
Q

area of large intestinal mucosa of an adult in colon

A

2m^2

166
Q

wheres the principle location of commensal microflora

A

colon

167
Q

how is the pancreas

A

20cm long
100g

168
Q

what are digestive enzymes made by in pancreas

A

acinar cells (exocrine cells)
and released into duodenum via secretory duct

169
Q

what are chymotrypsin, trypsin, carboxypeptidase, elastase made as

A

zymogens

170
Q

what do islets of langerhans make

A

hormones which are secreted into the blood
in pancreas
b-cells make insulin
a-cells- make glucagon
s-cells- somatostatin - regulate digestion, absorption and release of other hormones

171
Q

how many amino acids are removed from proinsulin to get insulin

A

4
proinsulin has 86AA

172
Q

type 1 diabetes

A

autoimmune disease
loss of insulin secretion from islets of Langerhans
treated with insulin administration

173
Q

type 2 diabetes

A

associated with obesity, sedentary lifestyle
loss of responsiveness to insulin
reduced insulin secretion

174
Q

what are long chain fatty acids and monoglycerides converted into in the si

A

synthesised into triglycerides
packed into chylomicrons
which enter lacteals and into the lymphatic system

175
Q

how are monoglycerides and AAs absorbed

A

blood capillaries of villi then to liver

176
Q

how are fats absorbed

A

emulsified into fat droplets by bile salts
then susceptible to digestion by pancreatic lipase

177
Q

what does microbiota include

A

bacteria
archaea
protists
fungi
viruses

178
Q

predominant phyla of microbiota

A

bacteriodetes
firmicutes
actinobacteria
proteobacteria

179
Q

does diet influence presence and abundance of microbiota

A

yes

180
Q

where does fibre predominantly digest

A

colon

181
Q

metabolites in microbiota

A

vit k
butyrate
thiamine
folate
biotin
riboflavin
panthothenic acid

182
Q

is fasting induced adipocyte factor activation modulated by microbiota

A

yes
has a role in obesity and metabolic syndrome development

183
Q

where does the thoracic duct drain into

A

left subclavian vein

184
Q

what lymphatic vessel drain from the intestine

A

mesenteric lymph vessels

185
Q

what is transported to liver via mesenteric and hepatic portal vein

A

monosaccharides
AAs
electrolytes
water

186
Q

are bile salts recirculated

A

yes

187
Q

where is the heart located

A

in the mediastinum with the lungs
level of the 2nd rib
roughly central
base pointing towards the right and the apex towards th left

188
Q

pericarditis

A

problems with the pericardium
impact the movement and function of the heart

189
Q

3 main layers of pericardium

A

fibrous pericardium
serous pericardium
epicardium

190
Q

why does the heart sit in a bag - pericardium

A

lubrication- serous
mechanical protection

protects it allow it to move smoothly

191
Q

3 muscular layers of the heart wall

A

epicardium- outer
myocardium
endocardium

192
Q

why do heart valves open and close

A

in response to pressure change as the heart relaxes and contracts

193
Q

where does atrioventricular valves prevent backflow

A

prevent backflow from atria to ventricles

194
Q

where do semilunar valves prevent back flow

A

aorta/pulmonary artery into the ventricles
tricuspid
release of contraction close valves

195
Q

what stops valves acting like a swingdoor in both directions

A

chordae tendinae

196
Q

problems with heart valves

A

incompetent valves- valves dont fully close so regurgitant flow
valvular stenosis- stiffened valves caused by repeated infection- congenital disease or calcium deposits- opening is narrows

197
Q

3 layers of blood vessels

A

-tunica externa
- tunica media
- tunica intima - inner layer

198
Q

tunica media

A

helps move blood along arteries
vasoconstriction and vasodilation
and lumen size affects blood flow and blood pressure

199
Q

continuous capillaries

A

most common
gaps only between endothelial cells- tight junction
CNS, lungs, muscle tissue, skin

200
Q

fenestrated capillaries

A

pore 70-100nm in the capillary wall
choroid plexus, kidneys, endocrine glands, villi, ciliary processes of the eye

201
Q

sinusoid capillaries

A

wider gaps in the vessel walls - lets blood cells through
bone marrow, endocrine glands placenta

202
Q

are veins or arteries under less pressure

A

veins are under less pressure

203
Q

do veins or arteries have less smooth muscles

A

veins has less smooth muscles

204
Q

are veins stretchy

A

yes

205
Q

do large veins have valves

A

yes to prevent blood flowing backwards

206
Q

do capillaries drain into venules

A

yes

207
Q

do veins lose or gain bp on the way to vena cava

A

lose bp, almost 0 by the time it gets to the vena cava

208
Q

where is the blood located when upright and supine

A

in supine
less blood in peripheral veins
more blood in central volume

209
Q

when blood leaves heart what 3 systems is it split into

A
  1. pulmonary circulation (RHS)
  2. systemic circulation (LHS)
  3. coronary circulation (from aorta)
210
Q

RHS pulmonary circulation shape and location

A

crescent-shaped
positioned towards back of heart
blood in through venae cavae and back out through pulmonary artery

211
Q

LHS- systemic circulation

A

at front and apex in heart
more circular
in through pulmonary veins and out through aorta to aortic arch

212
Q

how many blood groups are there

A

43 blood groups

213
Q

4 main blood groups

A

A
AB
B
O

214
Q

Blood plasma will have Antibodies to the surface molecules that your RBCs do not have.
t/f

A

true

215
Q

what happens blood transfusion are done with incompatible blood

A

antibodies bind to the RBCs expressing different antigen
causes clumping of RBCs and antibodies
causes severe volume

216
Q

universal blood group donor

A

type O
make antibodies A and B
cannot receive any other bloo types

217
Q

universal blood group receiver

A

AB
do not make any A or B antibodies
wont agglutinate donor blood
their blood can only be given to AB recipients

218
Q

3 blood type allesl

A

IA, IB, IO

219
Q

mother - baby blood incompatibility

A

RBCs are broken down causing jaundice, anaemia and death if severe
as mothers antibodies linger after birth and destroy baby RBCs causing icnrease in bilirubin

220
Q

cardiac cycle in 1 heart beat
t/f

A

true

221
Q

systole is contraction
t/f

A

true
generally means ventricular contraction

222
Q

diastole is relaxation
t/f

A

true
ventricular relaxation and filling

223
Q

at a heart rate of 75bpm how long does each cardiac cycle last

A

0/8 seconds
diastole for 0.4 secs
atrial systole- 0.1
ventricular systole- 0.3

224
Q

how many heart sounds aer there

A

4
but only 2 loud enough to be heard (auscultation)

225
Q

the first heart sound (LUBB)

A

turbulence caused by closure of the AV valves (when ventricles contract)

226
Q

whats the second heart sound (DUPP)

A

turbulence caused by semilunar valves cloing (when ventricles stop contracting

227
Q

3rd and 4th heat sound

A

from ventricular filling and atrial systole
4th sound audible when ventricles are stiff

228
Q

atrial systole

A

atria contract
squeeze blood into ventricles
AV valves open, pulmonic and aortic closed
slight increase in atrial pressures

229
Q

isovolumetric contraction

A

all valves closed
beginning of systole
increase in intraventricular pressure
heart shape change but no blood ejection
pushes AV valves closed- first sound

230
Q

rapid ejection step in cardiac cycle

A

AV valve closed other open
when intraventricular p> aortic and pulmonary p, valves open and blood ejected
atria continue to fill

no heart sound in healthy patient

231
Q

reduced ejection step of cardiac cycle

A

aortic and pulmonary valve stay open
AV closed still
no blood movement
ventricular muscle relaxation
ventricular p decrease slightly but no blood leaves heart
atria p increasing as its filling

232
Q

isometric relaxation step of heart cycle

A

valves close (heart sound 2)
ventricle vol remains the same as valves are closed (dicrotic wave)
atrial pressure and volume increase from venous return

233
Q

end systolic ejection

A

volume remaining in the ventricles after ejection

234
Q

rapid filling step of heart cycle

A

AV valves open
aortic and pulmonary valves close
ventricular filling- relaxation phase
amount of filling decrease with increasing hr
third sound

235
Q

reduced filling step of heart cycle

A

difficult to distinguish these phases
when filling is nearly finished
ventricles at full stretch so P rises
p in large vessels drops as blood flows into circulation

236
Q

7 steps of cardiac cycle

A
  1. atrial systole
  2. isovolumetric contraction
    3.rapid ejection
    4.reduced ejection
  3. isovolumetric relaxation
    6.rapid filling
  4. reduced filling
237
Q

SV equation

A

stroke volume = end diastolic vol (EDV) - end systolic vol (ESV)

edv= amount of blood collecting in ventricle
esv= amount remaining after contraction

238
Q

how to calculate cardiac output

A

co= stroke volume x heart rate
/ 1000 to get in L

239
Q

is cardiac output affected by the control of heart rate

A

yes

240
Q

what regulates cardiac output

A

-neural control- physical or emotional stress
-ion levels

241
Q

how does neural control affect cardiac output/hr

A

sympathetic nervous system stimulates heart rate (SA node) up to 100-200%
parasympathetic nervous system steadies HR

242
Q

how do ion levels regulate cardiac output/hr

A

calcium- too little= too weak, too much= long contractions
potassium- involved in muscle contraction and nerve conduction

can increase CO to point
CO is not proportional to HR increase

243
Q

frank starling law

A

bigger SV ejected if there is a larger degree of filling at the end of diastole
^ sympathetic input= ^ HR
^ parasympathetic= dec HR

244
Q

preload

A

how stretchy is the heart at max fill

245
Q

afterload

A

pressure against which the heart need to pump to expel blood
the higher the arterial pressure the lower the stroke volume

246
Q

contractility

A

the ability of the muscle to produce a force

the more forcefully the muscle contract the more blood expelled

247
Q

the skeletal muscle pump

A

lack of muscle in veins limits the force of venous return
contraction of skeletal muscle in the tissue surrounding the veins compresses them

248
Q

blood pressure equation

A

bp= cardiac output x total peripheral resistance

249
Q

peripheral resistance

A

the degree of friction encountered by blood
what causes friction
- constriction/narrowing
^bv
viscosity

250
Q

pulse pressure equation

A

PP= systolic BP - diastolic BP

massively increases as arteries become less stretchym

251
Q

mean arterial pressure (MAP)

A

more useful to work out the pressure at which blood is actually delivered to the tissues
MAP= DP + (PP/3)

252
Q

where are baroreceptors found

A

arterial carotids and aortic arch

253
Q

baroreceptors

A

detect pressure changes
small changes increase firing frequency
each receptor is sensitive to different pressure
control bp

254
Q

where are chemoreceptors found

A

peripheral chemoreceptors= carotid bodies in carotid artery. none in veins
central chemoreceptors- medulla

255
Q

what do chemoreceptors do

A

detect changes in PO2, PCO2, pH

256
Q

vasoconstriction

A

contraction of smooth muscle in vessel walls
activation of sympathetic nervous system
narrows diameter of blood vesse;
increase blood flow resistance
increase blood pressure

257
Q

vasodilation

A

relaxation of smooth muscle in vessel walls
widening of diameter
caused by withdrawal of sympathetic nerve activity
decreases resistance of blood vessels
decreases blood pressure

258
Q

reasons to increase blood pressure

A

stress
exercise
orthostatic hypotension- getting up too quick
haemorrhage

259
Q

how to decrease blood pressure

A

low salt diet
decrease stress
therapeutically with ACE inhibitors- interact with RAAS

260
Q

myogenic

A

cells contract spontaneously

261
Q

cardiac pacemakers

A

SAN cells slowly depolarise spontaneously (funny channels)- causes resting membrane potential to decrease - once threshold reached an AP in stimulated
AVN node spontaneously depolarize slowly but usually triggered by SAN

262
Q

neural control of hr

A

1.sensory info from sensors is processed in medulla
2. triggers ANS response
sympathetic NS increases HR and contractability

263
Q

what increase sympathetic stimulation

A

-muscarinic receptor antagonist
- b adrenergic receptor agonist
- circulating catecholamines
- hyperkalaemia
- hyperthermia
- hyperthyroidism

264
Q

things that decrease SA node firing (increase parasympathetic stim)

A

-muscarinic receptor agonist
- b blocker
ischaemia/hypoxia
-hypokalaemia
- sodium and calcium channels
hypothermia

265
Q

regulators of HR

A

hormones
age
fitness
sex
body temp

266
Q

tachycardia

A

increased hr
stress
drugs
heart disease
if persists leads to death

267
Q

bradycardia

A

under 60bpm
low temp

drugs
endurance training
if not athlete poor circulation
indictive of head trauma

268
Q

fibrillation

A

rapis
regular
and unco-ordinated contraction

269
Q

what does an ECG measure

A

an electrical trace of the action potentials in all the heart muscle fibres

270
Q

what does p wave on ECG show

A

depolarisation of atrial muscle

271
Q

what does QRS show on ECG

A

depolarisation of ventricular muscle

272
Q

t wave show on ECG

A

contraction of ventricular muscle

273
Q

whats the highest peak on ECG

A

R

274
Q

whats the lowest peak on ECG

A

S

275
Q

at rest whats the average human breaths per min

A

12 to 15

276
Q

how many lobes are in each lung

A

right has 3 lobes
left lung has 2 lobes

277
Q

how much area to alveoli make for gas exchange

A

70m2

278
Q

conducting zone of respiratory system

A

transfer of air into lungs
nasal cavity
pharynx
layrnx
bronchi
bronchiole
terminal bronchioles

279
Q

respiratory zone in respiratory system

A

gas exchange between blood and air
respiratory bronchioles
alveolar ducts
alveolar sacs
alveoli

280
Q

atmospheric pressure

A

760mmHg

281
Q

alveolar pressure

A

760mmHg

282
Q

intrapleural pressure

A

756mmHg
always pressure is always negative
help the lungs to expand and stay inflated

283
Q

inhalation steps

A

diaphragm contracts
external intercostal muscles contract
chest cavity and lung vol expand
alveolar pressure drops to 758mmHg
so atmospheric pressure is higher
air drawn in down con grad

284
Q

exhalation steps

A

diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract
lungs spring back and chest cavity contracts
contraction increases alveolar pressure to 762mmHg
air flow out lungs own conc grad

285
Q

boyles law

A

volume of gas varies inversely with pressure
e.g. squash it and pressure increases

286
Q

lung compliance

A

how stretchy the lungs are

287
Q

surface tension in lungs

A

surfactant reduces surface tension
without it alveoli would collapse

288
Q

airway resistance

A

airflow = (p alveoli - p atmosphere)/ resistance

resistance increases on exhalation as bronchioles diameter decreases

289
Q

neural control of breathing

A

respiratory centres in medulla oblongata and midbrain control breathing

pontine respiratory group in mid brain
dorsal and ventral respiratory group in medulla

290
Q

dorsal respiratory group

A

active phase- diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract= normal quiet inhalation

inactive phase- diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax= normal quiet ahalation

291
Q

dorsal respiratory group

A

diaphragm contract- forceful breathing

292
Q

ventral respiratory group

A

accessory inhalation muscles contract leading to forceful breathing

293
Q

ventral respiratory grou[ accessory exhalation

A

internal intercostal muscles
scalene pectoralis minor
external oblique
transverse abdomis
rectus abdominis

294
Q

motor cortex influence on breathing

A

info from motro cortex related to level of effort involved in exercise

295
Q

CNS on influences of breathing control

A

ventilation increased or decreased for gasping sobbing etc

296
Q

voluntary control of breathing

A

useful for communication
speaking
limited in extent

297
Q

anatomical dead space in lungs

A

not all air reaches the alveoli but ventilates the trachea , bronchi and bronchioles filling the conducting zone
theres no perfusion of these areas so gas exchange cannot occur

298
Q

tidal volume

A

amount taken in and exhaled on a normal breathin

299
Q

inspiratory reserve volume

A

amoutn taken in after deap breath

300
Q

expiratory reserve volume

A

amount exhaled in a forced exhalation

301
Q

residual volume

A

air not exchanged but stays in lungs to keep inflated

302
Q

inspiratory capacity

A

tidal vol+ inspiratory reserve vol

303
Q

vital capacity

A

Inspiratory Reserve Volume+ Tidal Volume+ Expiratory Reserve Volume

304
Q

total lung capacity

A

lung capacity + residual volume

305
Q

external respiration

A

o2 diffuses from alveoli into pulmonary capillaries
carbon dioxide moves in the opposite direction
occurs across respiratory membrane - alveolar and blood vessel walls

306
Q

internal respiration

A

o2 diffuses from the systemic capillaries into the tissues and co2 in the opposite direction

307
Q

how long is blood in contact with the alveoli

A

0.75 seconds

308
Q

partial pressure definition

A

the pressure of an individual gas
can be measured by multiplying the % of that gas by the total pressure

309
Q

partial pressure of o2

A

o2= 760 x 21%= 159mmHg
o2 makes up 21% of atmosphere

310
Q

what do alveolar contain

A

elastic fibres for movement and stretch
macrophages (dust cells) for filtration

311
Q

alveoli are lined by type 1 and type 2 alveolar epithelial cells
t/f

A

true

312
Q

what do type 2 alveolar epithelial cells release

A

lipid-rich surfactant
lowers surface tension
an increase in SA on lung inflation would ordinarily increase surface tension and cause lung collapse- surfactants prevents this

313
Q

respiratory distress syndrome

A

surfactant produced from 26weeks . so premature babies are vulnerable to collapsed lungs
cortisol treatment from mother can help stimulate surfactant production
infants treated with o2 to resolve

314
Q

respiratory membrane structure

A

type 1 alveolar cells
alveolar basement membrane
interstitial space- elastic fibres
capillary basement membrane
capillary endothelium

315
Q

factors affecting gas exchange

A

surface area
diffusion distance
diffusion gradient- ficks law

316
Q

diffusion distance in healthy lungs

A

0.4 to 2nm
can be 0.6um

317
Q

If alveolar PO2 is low or the diffusion resistance is high, capillary PO2 may not reach equilibrium with alveolar PO2
t/f

A

true
i.e not enough difference between 2 to allow diffusion

318
Q

ficks law

A

means that diffusion of gas is slow if the diffusion thickness increases
R= D x A x triangle p/t

r= rate of diffusion
d= diffusion constant for gas
a- surface area
p= difference in pp
t= thickness of respiratory membrane

319
Q

diffusion in terms of ficks law

A

diffusion is proportional to sa and conc difference

its inversely proportional to diffusion distance

diffusion rate will decrease if area of diffusion decreases and/or the diffusion distance increases

320
Q

ventilation definition

A

amount of air reaching the alveoli/min

321
Q

perfusion definition

A

amount of blood reaching the alveoli/min

322
Q

what does V/P ration determine

A

determines blood O2 and CO2 concentration
mismatch leads to respiratory failure

323
Q

why does apex of lung have higher V/Q ratio

A

theres more ventialtion here

324
Q

why does base of lungs have lower V/Q

A

gravity means more blood at base so higher perfusion

325
Q

when is V/Q 0

A

if there is perfusion but no ventilation

326
Q

average V/Q ratio for entire lung

A

0.8
>0/8 at apex

327
Q

what is perfusion affected by

A

cardiac output
pulmonary vascular resistance

328
Q

decreased V/Q

A
  • decreased ventilation in lung
  • no effect on blood flow
    -low arterial PO2
  • associated with increased PCO2
  • chronic bronchitis, asthma, acute oedema
329
Q

increased V/Q

A
  • increases PO2 and dead -space in lungs (high ventilation)
    -decrease in arterial o2 sat
  • in emphysema where lots of ventilation but small area for blood exchange
330
Q

internal envirnonemnt

A

the environment required for life and metabolism
includes
temp
pH
gas levels
it is in the blood plasma and interstitial fluid

331
Q

why does the internal environment have to be kept stable

A

to maintain the correct conditions for cellular functions
e.g. prevent cellular and protein damage- damage to proteins is usually irreversible effecting enzymes, cellsurface receptors and transporters resulting in cell death

332
Q

different forms of haemoglobin

A

fetal
adult A
adult A2

333
Q

do males or females have more more haemoglobin

A

males
linked to menstruation and iron levels

334
Q

how many mls of o2 can 1g Hb carry

A

1.34mls o2

335
Q

alveoli PO2 and affinity

A

104mmHg
almost 100% saturated
high affinity

336
Q

in systemic veins whats teh pp and affinity

A

49mmHg
Hb around 77% saturated
low affinity for oxygen

337
Q

when PCO2 is high what happens to Hb affinity for 02

A

o2 affinity falls
curve shifts right

338
Q

if blood pH is low which way does curve shift

A

right

339
Q

how is co2 carried out of blood

A

8% dissolved in blood
20% binds to amines in Hb to form carbaminohaemoglobin
72% (the rest) reacts with water in the cytoplasm of the RBC

340
Q

how is pH of arterial blood maintained

A

buffers
H+ loss in urine by kidney
breathing out co2

341
Q

pH of arterial blood

A

7.35-7.45

342
Q

why does the blood have a narrow range of pH

A

it can change structures like DNA
damage enzymes
changes the amount of o2 carried by bllod

343
Q

bicarboante buffer system defnition

A

reversible chemical reaction that can absorb or release hydrogen ions in response to changes in system

H + HCO3- –> H2CO3
when pH decreases it combines with bicarb to form carbonic acid to raise pH levels

344
Q

Increased metabolism means less carbonic acid
t/f

A

false
it means more carbonic acid

345
Q

More carbonic acid means more breakdown into Hydrogen and Bicarbonate (decrease in pH)
t/f

A

true

346
Q

chemical control of breathing

A

increased h+, chemoreceptors
respiratory control centre (medulla)
respiratory muscles
change in frequency and depth of breathing

347
Q

what stops overinflation of lungs

A

Hering-Bruer inflation reflex
during extreme exercise
but normal for infant breathing

348
Q

hering-bruer infaltion reflex

A

when activted lung stretch
slow adapting stretch receptors fire
high receptors activity inhibits further inflation and expiration begins

349
Q

what receptos in muscles sense movemnt

A

proprioceptors

350
Q

where are irritant receptors located

A

airways and lungs
stimulate coughing and sneezing

351
Q
A

yr 1 uni work (13 decks)

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