Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CardioPulm > 12.2 A > Flashcards

12.2 A Flashcards

1
Q

How is angina pectoris best described?

A

as discomfort in the chest or related areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Angina pectoris is typically located where?

A

retrosternal but it may radiate to jaw, neck, shoulders, back, or arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Angina pectoris is typically relieved with what?

A

rest or nitroglycerine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is stable angina pectoris?

A

there has been no change in frequency, duration, precipitating factors, etc. in the past 60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

More than half of those with CAD have experienced what other two issues?

A

angina pectoris and/or MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The mainstay of treatment for CAD is what?

A

lipid lowering therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The best lipid lowering therapy for CAD is what?

A

a statin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are PCSK9 inhibitors?

A

a monoclonal antibody that inhbits LDL receptor degradation, thus increasing LDL extraction from the blood and lowering blood cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is alirocumab?

A

a PCSK9 inhibitor that reduces cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How effective are PCSK9 inhibitors?

A

shown to significantly reduce LDL levels in one year but outcome studies are still underway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Statins have what benefit over PCSK9 inhibitors?

A

in addition to lowering LDL, they lower triglycerides and raise HDL levels to a modest degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the effects of niacin on lipid levels?

A

lowers LDL and cholesterol while raising HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are fibrates, bile acid resins, and absorption inhibitors?

A

lipid lowering agents to be used as supplements to another lipid lowering treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the side effects of statins?

A
  • myalgia/muscle complaints most common
  • potentially serious myopathy
  • elevated liver function tests and the potential for hepatotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

PCSK9 inhibitors have what side effects?

A

nasopharyngitis, injection site reactions, joint pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Fibrates have what side effects?

A

myopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Niacin has what side effects?

A

flushing and heptatoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the four statin benefit groups?

A
  • known ASCVD
  • elevated LDL
  • diabetics
  • adults with risk of ASCVD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Framingham Heart Study demonstrated what?

A

linked obesity to increased risk of heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the three common acute coronary syndromes?

A

unstable angina

  • non-ST segment elevation MI (NSTEMI)
  • ST segment elevation MI (STEMI)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some possible medical therapies for CAD other than statins?

A
  • aspirin
  • beta blockers
  • ACE inhibitors
  • angiotensin receptor blockers
  • thienopyridines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How can one modify their risk of CAD?

A
  • smoking cessation
  • dietary modification
  • exercise
  • cardiac rehab
  • BP control
  • diabetic control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Beta blockers are contraindicated by what?

A

asthma, severe COPD, bradycardia, advanced heart block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Beta blockers most often have what side effect?

A

fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Clopidogrel, prasugrel, and ticagrelor are what?

A

alternatives for patients allergic to aspirin

26
Q

ACE inhibitors are particularly beneficial for what class of post-MI patients?

A

those with LV systolic dysfunction (a limited ejection fraction)

27
Q

How are ACE inhibitors disease modifying?

A

they prevent adverse cardiac remodeling

28
Q

What are the side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A

cough and more rarely, angioedema

29
Q

What is the benefit of giving nitrates? The drawback?

A

they reduce angina but are not disease modifying

30
Q

STEMIs can be treated in what two ways?

A

PCI or fibrinolysis

31
Q

NSTEMIs can be treated in what two ways?

A

conservatively with medical management or with PCI of the culprit vessel and medical management

32
Q

Fibrinolytics is indicated for what?

A

STEMIs and acute ischemic stroke

33
Q

Alteplase, reteplase, and tenecteplase are examples of what?

A

fibrinolytics

34
Q

How do fibrinolytics work?

A

by converting proenzyme plasminogen to plasmin and relieving clots

35
Q

What is the major risk of fibrinolytics?

A

intracranial bleeding

36
Q

What is the primary anticoagulant used to treat acute coronary syndromes?

A

heparin

37
Q

When is heparin given for ACS?

A
  • those with high risk of embolization after STEMI

- thrombus propagation prevention with NSTEMI

38
Q

What must be done when treating someone with heparin?

A

monitor their platelet counts daily

39
Q

What is a distal protection PCI?

A

used to prevent embolic material from going downstream

40
Q

What is intracoronary thrombectomy PCI?

A

use of a catheter to suck out the thrombus

41
Q

What are some surgical options for those with CAD?

A
  • coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)

- valve repair/replacement

42
Q

CABG patches are always used to treat unstable angina or NSTEMI when what is true?

A

they have left main disease

43
Q

For multivessel CAD, the best treatment is what?

A

CABG patch

44
Q

The most common causes of heart failure are what?

A
  • CAD/ischemic heart disease
  • hypertension
  • valve dysfunction
45
Q

What are the available disease modifying agents for heart failure?

A
  • beta blockers
  • ACE inhibitors/ARBs
  • aldosterone antagonists
  • hydralazine/isosorbide dinitrate combo
46
Q

What are some symptomatic treatments available for heart failure?

A
  • vasodilators
  • loop diuretics
  • nitrates
  • digoxin
47
Q

What is furosemide?

A

a loop diuretic used for symptomatic relief of heart failure

48
Q

What is enalapril?

A

an ACE inhibitor used to treat heart failure

49
Q

What is captopril?

A

an ACE inhibitor used to treat heart failure

50
Q

What are valsartan and candesartan?

A

angiotensin receptor blcokers

51
Q

Aldosterone blockades for heart failure are contraindicated for what?

A

those with renal disease or elevated sodium potassium because they elevate potassium

52
Q

What are loop diuretics?

A
  • improve renal performance to remove excess salt and water retention
  • symptomatic relief of heart failure
53
Q

Bradydysrhythmias are treated with what?

A

a pacemaker

54
Q

What is a dual chamber pacemaker?

A

a pacemaker with leads in both the right atrium and ventricle

55
Q

What is cardiac resynchronization therapy?

A
  • aka biventricular pacing

- intended to restore synchronous right and left ventricular conduction

56
Q

Cardiac resynchronization therapy is indicated for what patients?

A
  • significant heart failure symptoms despite optimal medical therapy
  • ejection fraction <35%
  • delayed intraventricular conduction, particularly a left bundle branch block
57
Q

Where does the lead go for the left ventricle in cardiac resynchronization therapy?

A

in the coronary vein because it would pose a clotting risk if it were in the left ventricle

58
Q

ACE inhibitors affect what determinant of ventricular function?

A

afterload

59
Q

Diuretics and nitrates affect what determinant of ventricular function?

A

preload

60
Q

What are ICDs?

A

implantable cardioverter defibrillators

61
Q

What are the primary prevention indications for ICDs?

A
  • persistently low ejection fraction despite medical therapy

- hypertrophic cardiomyopathy with high risk of sudden cardiac death

62
Q

ICDs are indicated for what secondary prevention following what?

A
  • resuscitated sudden cardiac arrest not associated with acute MI
  • hemodynamically significant sustained vtach or vfib

CardioPulm (31 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions