12 - Communicable Diseases Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What parts of the plant does Ring Rot damage?

A

Leaves, tubers and fruit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What causes a communicable disease?

A

A pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 4 main types of pathogen?

A
  1. Bacteria 2. Viruses 3. Protoctista 4. Fungi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does a vector do?

A

Carry pathogens from one organism to the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How are communicable diseases in plants spread?

A

Directly plant-to-plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What proportion of bacteria cause communicable disease?

A

Only a small proportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two main ways bacteria are classified?

A
  1. By shape 2. By cell wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What shape are bacilli?

A

Rod-shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is chain of bacilli bacteria called?

A

Strepto-species type i.e. Streptobacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a cluster of cocci bacteria called?

A

Staphylo-species type i.e. staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What shape is a vibrios?

A

Comma shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a corkscrew-shaped bacterium called?

A

Spirochaetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What shape is a coccus?

A

Spherical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the two types of bacterial cell wall?

A

Gram-positive and gram-negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What colour do gram-positive bacteria go with gram staining?

A

Purple-blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What colour do gram-negative bacteria go with gram staining?

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some features of a gram-positive cell wall (excluding colour with gram staining)

A

Thicker but less tough, more susceptible to antibiotics which damage the cell wall, more peptidoglycan, lower lipid content, more prominent mesosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What makes a gram-positive cell wall go purple-blue with gram staining?

A

The peptidoglycan in their cell wall retains crystal violet stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some features of a gram-negitive cell wall (excluding colour with gram staining)?

A

Thinner but tougher, higher lipid content due to outer cell membrane, less susceptible to antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an example of a bacterium with a gram-positive cell wall?

A

MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an example of a bacterium with a gram-negative cell wall?

A

E.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a bacterial cell wall mostly made up of?

A

Peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the structure of peptidoglycan?

A

Massive disaccharide polymers cross-linked by short chains of identical amino acid monomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the basic structure of any virus?

A

Some genetic material (either DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protective protein coat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the mechanism of infection of a virus?

A

They attach to the cell and inject their genetic material, which takes over the biochemistry of the host cell to make more viruses by inserting itself into the host DNA, until so many are made that the host cell is lysed (bursts) and the new viruses are released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What 2 things make viruses very successful pathogens?

A

They reproduce rapidly and evolve by developing adaptations to their host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What proportion of naturally occurring viruses are pathogenic?

A

All of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How many other types of organism do viruses infect?

A

Every other type of organism, including other viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

A virus which attacks a bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is a virophage? Give an example

A

A virus which infects other viruses, such as the Sputnik virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Are protoctista eukaryotic or prokaryotic?

A

Eukaryotic, with a wide variety of feeding methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What proportion of protoctista are pathogenic?

A

Only a small percentage, most are harmless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are fungi a major problem for?

A

Some plants- they tend not to be a major problem for animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Are fungi eukaryotic or prokaryotic?

A

Eukaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Are protoctista unicellular or multicellular?

A

Unicellular, although they can group into colonies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Are fungi unicellular or multicellular?

A

Usually multicellular, with the exception of yeasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do fungi feed?

A

Many are saprophytes, but the pathogenic ones are parasites and eat living organisms. They can’t photosynthesise, so digest food outside of their cells before absorbing the nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do saprophytes feed on?

A

Dead and decaying matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What part of a plant do many plant fungal diseases affect?

A

The leaves, stopping the plant photosynthesising and killing it rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do fungi reproduce?

A

They produce millions of spores, which can spread huge distances and spread their disease quickly among crops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What organelles does yeast have?

A

Nucleus, mitochondria, cell membrane and a permanent vacuole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Apart from yeast organelles, what organelles may a more complex fungus have?

A

A cell wall (and vesicles) and food storage granules of starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the two main pathogenic modes of action?

A
  1. Damaging host tissue directly 2. Producing toxins which damage host tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the mechanism of infection of fungi?

A

They digest and destroy living cells. This, combined with the response of the body to the damage caused by the fungus, causes the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the mechanism of action of protoctista which damage host tissue directly?

A

They take over cells and lyse them as a new generation emerge, but do not take over the genetic material of the cell like a virus; instead, they digest and use the cell contents as they reproduce

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Apart from bacteria, what type of pathogen can produce cytotoxins?

A

Fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Are bacterial toxins produced deliberately to damage the host?

A

No, they are a by-product of the natural function of the bacterial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the mechanism of action of most pathogenic bacteria?

A

They produce toxins which poison/damage the host cells in some way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are 3 ways bacterial toxins can damage cells?

A
  1. Breaking down cell membranes 2. Damaging/deactivating enzymes 3. Interfering with the host DNA so the cell can’t replicate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What organisms does tuberculosis affect?

A

Humans, cows, pigs, badgers and deer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What type of pathogen is tuberculosis caused by?

A

Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

People suffering from what other disease are more likely to suffer from tuberculosis?

A

HIV/AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How is TB cured and prevented?

A

Cured with antibiotics, prevented by vaccination or better living standards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How is TB spread in humans?

A

Droplet infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the mechanism of TB?

A

It damages and destroys lung tissue and suppresses the immune system so that the body is less able to fight off other diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How is bacterial meningitis spread?

A

By droplet infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How is bacterial meningitis cured and prevented?

A

Curable with antibiotics if administered early enough, vaccines can protect against some forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the mechanism and symptoms of bacterial meningitis?

A

Infection of the meninges (protective membranes on brain surface) which can spread to the rest of the body and cause fatal septicaemia. Symptoms vary depending on type of bacteria, but all share a blotchy red/purple non-blanching rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Who are the main groups affected by bacterial meningitis?

A

Very young babies and 15-19 year olds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the mechanism of the HIV virus?

A

It attacks T helper cells, which gradually destroys the immune system and leaves sufferers vulnerable to secondary infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What type of virus is HIV/AIDS?

A

A retrovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How does a retrovirus work?

A

A virus that is composed not of DNA but of RNA. Retroviruses have an enzyme, called reverse transcriptase, that gives them the unique property of transcribing their RNA into DNA after entering a cell. The retroviral DNA can then integrate into the chromosomal DNA of the host cell, to be expressed there.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What animals does bacterial meningitis affect?

A

Humans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What animals does HIV/AIDS affect?

A

Humans and some other primates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How is HIV spread?

A

Passed between people via infected bodily fluids i.e. via unprotected sex, shared needles, contaminated blood and mother to baby through either pregnancy or breastfeeding. FGM also increases its spread if equipment is reused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How is HIV cured?

A

No vaccine or cure but antiretroviral drugs can slow its progress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What animals does influenza affect?

A

Mammals and birds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the mechanism of influenza?

A

Infects ciliated epithelial cells in the gas exchange system, killing them and leaving the airways vulnerable to secondary infections such as bacterial pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the 3 types of influenza and which is most virulent?

A

A,B,C, with A being most virulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Why is a vaccine made each year for flu?

A

Because flu viruses undergo small, regular mutations, so their surface antigens are constantly being reshuffled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Is the a cure for flu?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is zoonosis and give an example of something that does it?

A

Where a disease can spread from animals to humans. An example would be influenza (swine flu or bird flu)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What causes malaria?

A

Several species of protoctista from the genus Plasmodium, with the most common being Plasmodium Falciparum, spread by the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the mechanism of malaria?

A

Infects red blood cells, liver, brain. Disease recurs, making people weak and vulnerable to secondary infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the cure for malaria?

A

No vaccine and limited cures such as quinine, but preventative measures such as vector control through mosquito nets etc. can be very effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are 2 reasons malaria can be difficult to treat?

A
  1. Protoctista ‘hides’ inside red blood cells 2. Caused by several different species so surface antigens may be different
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What causes ringworm?

A

Fungi, with different fungi affecting different species.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is a cure for ringworm or Athlete’s Foot?

A

Antifungal creams

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the symptoms of ringworm?

A

Grey-white, crusty, infectious circular area of skin which aren’t damaging but are unsightly and itchy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What causes Athlete’s Foot?

A

Tinia Pedia, a form of human ringworm fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Where does the Athlete’s Foot fungus typically grow?

A

The warm, moist skin between toes, which it digests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the symptoms of Athlete’s Foot?

A

Cracking and scaling which is itchy and may become sore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What animals does ringworm affect?

A

Mammals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What plants does Ring Rot affect?

A

Potatoes, tomatoes and egg plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the cure for Ring Rot?

A

There is none

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What happens to a field once it has been infected by Ring Rot?

A

It cannot be used to grow potatoes, tomatoes or egg plants for at least 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What type of pathogen causes Ring Rot?

A

A bacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does TMV infect?

A

Tobacco plants and 150 other species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How is TMV prevented and cured?

A

Resistant crop strains can prevent it but there is no cure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the mechanism of TMV?

A

Damages leaves, flowers and fruit, stunting growth and reducing yield, and can leads to almost total crop loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is Potato late blight caused by?

A

A fungus-like protoctista called an oomycete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How is Potato late blight prevented and cured?

A

No cure but can be prevented via use of resistant strains, careful management and chemical treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the mechanism of Potato late blight?

A

Hyphae penetrate host cells and destroy leaves, tubers and fruit, leading to millions of pounds of crop damage per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What type of pathogen causes Black Sigatoka?

A

A fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What type of plant does Black Sigatoka affect?

A

Bananas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What part of the plant does Black Sigatoka affect?

A

The leaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the mechanism of Black Sigatoka?

A

Hyphae penetrate and digest cells, turning leaves black. Can cause 50% reduction in yield of infected plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How is Black Sigatoka cured and prevented?

A

No cure but resistant strains being developed and good husbandry and fungicide treatment can control the spread of the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the two main types of transmission of communicable diseases between animals?

A

Direct and indirect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What are the three main types of direct transmission in animals?

A
  1. Inoculation 2. Direct contact 3. Ingestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What happens in ingestion in the direct transmission of animal pathogens?

A

Contaminated food of drink are ingested or pathogens are transferred from the hands to the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are two examples of diseases spread by ingestion?

A
  1. Amoebic dysentery 2. Diarrhoeal diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are 3 ways pathogens can be spread via inoculation?

A
  1. Animal bite i.e. rabies 2. Break in the skin i.e. unprotected sex 3. Puncture wound or shared needles i.e. septicaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are 3 ways pathogens can be spread via direct contact?

A
  1. Direct skin-to-skin contact i.e. ringworm, athlete’s foot 2. Kissing or any contact with another person’s bodily fluids i.e. many STDs or bacterial meningitis 3. Microorganisms from the faeces transmitted on the hands i.e. many diarrhoeal diseases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the 3 main types of indirect transmission of pathogens between animals?

A
  1. Formites 2. Vectors 3. Droplet infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is a formite infection?

A

Where an inanimate object such as socks, bedding or cosmetics can transfer pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are 3 types of pathogen spread by formite infection?

A
  1. Gas gangrene 2. Athlete’s foot 3. Staphylococcus infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What occurs during a droplet infection?

A

Minute droplets of saliva or mucus are expelled from the mouth during talking, coughing or sneezing; if the droplets contain pathogens, anyone who inhales them may contract the illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are two types of disease which can be spread by droplet infection?

A

TB or influenza

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are the most common types of vector to spread diseases between animals?

A

Animals such as malaria-carrying mosquitoes, dogs, foxes and bats carrying rabies, fleas carrying the plague

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is a non-animal example of a vector (to spread diseases between animals)?

A

Water, which can transmit diarrhoeal diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What disease can be transmitted between sheep and humans?

A

Brucellosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

How can the risk of zoonotic infection be reduced?

A

Washing hands after any contact with animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are some factors which can increase the risk of transmission of diseases between animals? (7)

A
  1. Poor nutrition 2. Overcrowded working and living conditions 3. A compromised immune system 4. Climate change, which can introduce new vectors and diseases to areas 5. In humans, poor disposal of waste provide a breeding grounds for vectors 6. Culture and infrastructure- in many countries, traditional practices can increase transmission 7. Socioeconomic factors such as a lack of trained health workers and insufficient public warning of outbreaks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Can plant pathogens be transmitted directly?

A

Yes, if a part of a healthy plant comes into direct contact with a part of an infected plant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are some plant pathogens which can be transmitted directly?

A

Ring rot, TMV, black sigatoka, potato late blight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the two main types of indirect transmission of pathogens in plants?

A
  1. Soil contamination 2. Vectors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

How are plant pathogens transmitted via soil contamination?

A

Infected plants often leave pathogens or spores from fungi/protoctista in the soil, which can infect the next crop. Some pathogens or their spores can also survive the composting process, so the contaminated compost can infect plants it is spread on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the 4 main types of vectors which spread plant pathogens?

A
  1. Wind 2. Water- spores swim in the film of surface water on leaves, and both spores and pathogens can be carried by raindrops 3. Animals- Insects and birds can carry pathogens and spores, and aphids can inoculate directly 4. Humans- Hands, clothing, fomites, farming practices and the transport of crops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are some factors affecting the spread of communicable diseases between plants?

A
  1. Planting varieties of crops which are susceptible to disease 2. Overcrowding increasing the likelihood of contact 3. Poor mineral nutrition reducing plants’ resistance 4. Damp, warm conditions increasing the survival and spread of pathogens and spore 5. Climate change- increased rainfall and wind, new animal vectors, although drier conditions may reduce spread of disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What are 3 things which act as physical barriers to pathogens in plants?

A
  1. Waxy cuticle of leaves 2. Bark on trees 3. Cellulose cell wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What is different about plants’ and animals’ responses to infection?

A

Animals attempt to heal damaged tissue, but plants just seal it off and sacrifice it

123
Q

What are 3 cellular responses to infection in plants?

A
  1. Producing defensive chemicals 2. Physically strengthening cell walls 3. Sending alarm signals to unaffected cells to trigger their defences
124
Q

What 2 things can receptors in plant cells respond to upon infection?

A
  1. Molecules from the pathogen 2. Chemicals produced when the plant cell wall is attacked by pathogenic enzymes
125
Q

What is stimulated when receptors in a plant cell detect an infection?

A

The release of signalling molecules, which appear to switch on genes in the nucleus, in turn causing the 3 cellular responses to infection

126
Q

What two polysaccharides are made to strengthen plant cell walls upon infection?

A

Callose and lignin

127
Q

What is the structure of callose?

A

Polysaccharide made up of beta glucose with 1-3 and 1-6 carbon linkages

128
Q

What does callose do when a plant cell is infected?

A
  1. Block sieve plates in the phloem, sealing off the infected part 2. Is deposited in the plasmodesmata between healthy cells and their neighbours 3. Within minutes of attack, synthesised and deposited between cell membrane and cell wall of cells neighbouring infected one. 4. More callose and lignin then added, strengthening the wall even further
129
Q

What are some examples of plant chemical defences against pathogens? (6)

A
  1. Insect repellants 2. Anti-fungals 3. Insecticides 4. Antibacterial compounds (including antibiotics) 5. Anti-oomycetes 6. General toxins
130
Q

What is an example of a general toxin made by plant cells as a chemical defence against pathogens?

A

Chemicals which can be broken down to make cyanide compounds

131
Q

What are some examples of insect repellents made by plants?

A

Citronella from lemon grass or pine resin

132
Q

What are some examples of insecticides made by plants?

A

Caffeine or pyrethrins, which are made by chrysanthemums and is an insect neurotoxin

133
Q

What are some example of some antibacterial compounds made by plant cells?

A
  1. Phenols 2. Gossypol 3. Defensins, plant proteins which disrupt bacterial and fungal cell membranes
134
Q

What is gossypol?

A

A chemical made by cotton which has antibacterial and antifungal properties

135
Q

What are phenols used for in plants?

A

As an antiseptic and antifungal agent

136
Q

What are some examples of antifungal chemicals made by plants?

A
  1. Phenols 2. Gossypol 3. Caffeine 4. Saponins- chemicals found in many plant cell membranes which interfere with fungal cell membranes 5. Chitinases- enzymes to break down chitin in fungal cell walls
137
Q

What is caffeine toxic to?

A

Insects and fungi

138
Q

What is an example of an anti-oomycete made by plants?

A

Glucanases, which are enzymes which can break down glucans, polymers found in the cell walls of many oomycetes

139
Q

What are the two mammalian lines of defence against pathogens?

A
  1. Primary non-specific defences 2. Specific immune response
140
Q

What is the outermost layer of the skin called?

A

The epidermis

141
Q

What does the skin produce to inhibit pathogenic growth?

A

Oily sebum

142
Q

What are the 3 ways skin serves as a defence against pathogens?

A
  1. Oily sebum 2. Physical barrier 3. Skin flora of microorganisms
143
Q

How does the flora of healthy microorganisms on the skin help it serve as a barrier to pathogens?

A

These out-compete pathogens for nutrients and space

144
Q

What is the structure of the part of the skin which serves as a barrier to pathogens and how is it produced?

A

The epidermis has several layers, mostly made of cells called keratinocytes. As these move through the epidermis they dry out and the cytoplasm is replaced by keratin, with this layer acting as a barrier.

145
Q

What are some examples of primary non-specific defences against disease in mammals which aim to keep pathogens out? (7)

A
  1. Skin 2. Mucous membranes 3. Digestive system 4. Tears 5. Urine 6. Expulsive reflexes 7. Blood clotting
146
Q

What are some examples of primary non-specific defences against disease in mammals which work to get rid of pathogens?

A
  1. Inflammation 2. Fever 3. Phagocytes
147
Q

What are some examples of places that mucous membranes involved in the defence of the body against pathogens are found?

A

Airways, reproductive system, lungs, digestive system, gut, genitals, anus, ears and nose.

148
Q

What are the two main types of cell which mucous membranes contain?

A

Goblet cells and ciliated epithelial cells

149
Q

How do goblet cells help keep out pathogens?

A

They secrete sticky mucus, which traps pathogens and contains phagocytes and also lysosomes, which contain enzymes called lysozymes which can kill bacteria and fungi by destroying their cell walls

150
Q

How do ciliated epithelial cells help keep out pathogens?

A

They waft mucus containing pathogens to places where it can be destroyed or expelled; for example, in the airways they waft it to the top of the trachea, where it can move into the oesophagus for expulsion

151
Q

How does stomach acid act as a barrier to pathogens?

A

It is very acidic at pH 1-2, so can denature pathogens’ enzymes

152
Q

How do tears and urine act as a barrier to pathogens?

A

They both contain lysosomes, and tears have ions to lower their water potential and potentially crenate pathogens

153
Q

What are 4 examples of expulsive reflexes and what do they all do?

A

Coughing, sneezing, vomiting and diarrhoea all eject pathogen-laden fluids from the body

154
Q

What are the two most important chemicals released by platelets in a blood clot and what do they do?

A
  1. Serotonin- Makes smooth muscle in blood vessel walls contract, reducing bloodflow 2. Thromboplastin- Triggers the blood clot cascade of reactions
155
Q

What do platelets attach to in a blood clot?

A

The skin or damaged cells which release substances that attract platelets

156
Q

What happens in wound repair after a blood clot has formed?

A
  1. Cut dries to form a scab 2. Epidermal cells below scab reproduce to seal off wound permanently 3. Damaged blood vessels regrow 4. Collagen fibres deposited to give new tissue strength 5. Once new epidermis reaches normal thickness, scab sloughs off
157
Q

What chemicals cause a fever?

A

Cytokines, which stimulate the hypothalamus to ‘reset’ the body thermometer to a higher temperature

158
Q

How does fever work to get rid of pathogens?

A

Pathogens can’t reproduce as well at a higher temperature and the specific immune response works faster at a higher temperature

159
Q

What is inflammation characterised by?

A

Redness, swelling, pain, heat and possibly a full body rash if the infection is widespread

160
Q

What two chemicals are released by activated mast cells in damaged tissue?

A

Histamines and cytokines

161
Q

What do cytokines do in inflammation?

A

Attract white blood cells to the site of the wound to dispose of pathogens by phagocytosis

162
Q

What is oedema?

A

Swelling caused by a large accumulation of tissue fluid

163
Q

What do histamines do in inflammation?

A

Cause smooth muscle in the walls of blood vessels to relax, which: 1. Causes the blood vessel to dilate, raising local temperature to disadvantage pathogens and causing heat and redness 2. Makes the blood vessel walls more leaky, causing oedema and pain

164
Q

What are the two main types of phagocyte?

A

Neutrophils and Macrophages

165
Q

Where are neutrophils and macrophages made?

A

Bone marrow

166
Q

What type of nucleus does a neutrophil have?

A

Multi-lobed

167
Q

Where are neutrophils found?

A

Blood, tissue fluid and epithelial surfaces

168
Q

Are neutrophils long or short-lived?

A

Short-lived

169
Q

What is pus made up of?

A

Dead phagocytes and pathogens

170
Q

Are macrophages smaller or larger than neutrophils?

A

Larger

171
Q

What do macrophages travel in the blood as?

A

Monocytes

172
Q

Where do macrophages develop and settle?

A

The lymph nodes

173
Q

How long does is usually take a human neutrophil to engulf and destroy a bacterium?

A

Under 10 minutes

174
Q

What is a phagosome-lysosome complex called?

A

Phagolysosome

175
Q

Why do macrophages take longer than neutrophils to digest a pathogen?

A

They produce a MHC from a pathogenic antigen and become an antigen-presenting cell

176
Q

What is an APC?

A

An antigen-presenting cell, which is a macrophage with at least one MHC

177
Q

What are the stages of phagocytosis?

A
  1. Phagocyte attracted to pathogen by chemicals the pathogen produces 2. Phagocytes recognise non-human proteins on the pathogen, and a glycoprotein on the cell-surface membrane of the phagocyte binds to a pathogenic antigen 3. Pathogen is engulfed into a vesicle called a phagosome 4. Phagosome combines with lysosome to form phagolysosome, with enzymes destroying the pathogen 5. If the cell is a macrophage, pathogenic antigens can be combined with proteins to form an MHC, which is presented on the cell surface to stimulate other immune cells
178
Q

What chemicals do phagocytes containing a pathogen produce?

A

Cytokines

179
Q

What do opsonins do?

A

They ‘tag’ pathogens to make them more easily recognisable by phagocytes, which have opsonin-binding sites on their cell surface membrane

180
Q

What are two examples of opsonins?

A

Immunoglobulin G and Immunoglobulin M

181
Q

What type of biological molecule is an antibody?

A

Polypeptide/protein

182
Q

What are 3 places a T or B lymphocyte can come across an antigen?

A
  1. A pathogen in bodily fluids 2. MHC on a macrophage 3. Infected cell
183
Q

Where are T lymphocytes activated?

A

Thymus

184
Q

Where are B and T lymphocytes produced?

A

Bone marrow

185
Q

How long does the specific immune response take to respond to a new pathogen?

A

Up to 14 days

186
Q

What are the two chain types in an antibody?

A

Heavy chain and Light chain

187
Q

What is the part of an antibody which is the same across all antibodies called?

A

Constant region

188
Q

What is the part of an antibody which changes from antibody to antibody called?

A

Variable region

189
Q

What are the polypeptide chains in an antibody joined by?

A

Disulfide bridges

190
Q

How many polypeptide chains make up an antibody?

A

4 (2 heavy, 2 light)

191
Q

Which parts of an antibody form antigen-binding sites?

A

The variable regions

192
Q

What is the purpose of the hinge region of an antibody?

A

Allows flexibility when the antibody binds to the antigen

193
Q

What is the purpose of the constant region of an antibody?

A

Allows binding to receptors on immune system cells such as phagocytes

194
Q

What are the 3 ways antibodies can help clear an infection?

A
  1. Agglutinating Pathogens 2. Neutralising toxins 3. Preventing the pathogen binding to human cells
195
Q

How many antigens can an antibody bind to at once?

A

2

196
Q

Why are antigen-antibody complexes easily engulfed and digested by phagocytes?

A

The antibodies act as opsonins

197
Q

How do antibodies neutralise toxins?

A

They are bound to any other antigen, and the antibody-toxin complex is phagocytosed

198
Q

How does the agglutination of pathogens by antibodies help clear the body of infection?

A

Because antibodies have two binding sites, they can bind to antigens on two different pathogens at once, causing them to clump together and allowing lots of pathogens to be phagocytosed at once

199
Q

What are antibodies which agglutinate pathogens called?

A

Agglutinins

200
Q

How do antibodies prevent pathogens binding to human cells?

A

When binding to antigens on the pathogen, they can block the cell surface receptors which pathogens require to bind to host cells, so the cells cannot be attached to or infected

201
Q

Where do B lymphocytes mature?

A

The bone marrow

202
Q

What are the 4 main types of T lymphocytes?

A
  1. T regulator 2. T helper 3. T killer 4. T memory
203
Q

Which 2 harmful chemicals do T killer cells use?

A

Hydrogen peroxide and perforin

204
Q

How does perforin kill pathogens?

A

It makes holes in their cell surface membrane so that it is freely permeable

205
Q

What do T lymphocytes respond to in cell-mediated immunity?

A

A cell of the organism which has been changed in some way, such as a cell infected virally, one presenting antigens or one which has undergone a random genetic mutation, or cells from transplanted tissue

206
Q

What is the purpose of a T killer cell?

A

Kill pathogens using harmful chemicals

207
Q

What are the 3 types of B lymphocyte?

A
  1. Plasma cell 2. B effector cell 3. B memory cell
208
Q

What is the purpose of a B effector cell?

A

Differentiate into the required plasma cell

209
Q

What is the purpose of a plasma cell?

A

Produce antibodies specific to the pathogen

210
Q

How many antibodies can a plasma cell produce when active?

A

~2000 antibodies per second

211
Q

What is the lifespan of a plasma cell?

A

A few days

212
Q

What is the purpose of a B memory cell?

A

Live a very long time an remember a particular antigen so that the body can mount a quick response to it if necessary

213
Q

What is the purpose of a T memory cell?

A

Live a very long time and remember a pathogen, then produce lots of T killer cell clones if it is ever encountered again

214
Q

What chemicals are important in the function of T regulator cell?

A

Interleukins

215
Q

What is the purpose of a T regulator cell?

A

Stop the immune system once an infection is over, prevent the body setting up an autoimmune response and ensuring that it recognises self antigens

216
Q

What type of receptor on the surfaces of T helper cells bind to MHCs on APCs?

A

CD4

217
Q

What are interleukins a type of?

A

Cytokine

218
Q

What do T helper cells produce?

A

Interleukins

219
Q

What do the interleukins produced by T helper cells do?

A

Stimulate the activity of B cells, which in turn stimulates the production of antibodies, stimulates production of other types of T cell by mitosis, and attracts and stimulates macrophages to ingest pathogens with antibody-antigen complexes

220
Q

What is cell mediated immunity especially important against?

A

Viruses and early cancers

221
Q

What type of cell can T helper cells differentiate into?

A

T memory cells

222
Q

How long does it take for antibodies to start to be produced after an infection?

A

Around 5 days

223
Q

What happens in clonal selection?

A

The undifferentiated T or B lymphocyte has a receptor complementary to the pathogen’s antigen (either in an MHC in cell mediated immunity or on a pathogen in humoral immunity). It binds to the antigen using this, and the lymphocyte then divides rapidly by mitosis

224
Q

What does the body respond to in humoral immunity?

A

Antigens found outside of cells (for example on pathogens) or on APCs

225
Q

What is clonal expansion?

A

Where a B cell activated by interleukins divide to give clones of plasma cells and B memory cells

226
Q

What is the primary immune response?

A

The response to a previously unseen pathogen, where it can take days or weeks for the correct antibody to be produced

227
Q

What is the secondary immune response?

A

Where B and T memory cells respond rapidly to a known pathogen and quickly deal with the infection

228
Q

What type of antibodies does humoral immunity produce?

A

Ones which are soluble in blood and tissue fluid, and not attached to cells

229
Q

What are 3 examples of autoimmune diseases?

A
  1. Lupus 2. Type 1 diabetes 3. Rheumatoid arthritis
230
Q

What part of the body does Type 1 diabetes affect?

A

Insulin-secreting cells of the pancreas

231
Q

What are some symptoms of Type 1 diabetes?

A

Extreme thirst, weight loss, blurred vision, fatigue, weakness

232
Q

What are some treatment methods for Type 1 diabetes?

A

Insulin injections, pancreas transplant, immunosuppressant drugs

233
Q

Are Lupus or Rheumatoid arthritis curable?

A

No, you can only manage their symptoms

234
Q

What parts of the body are affected by Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

The joints, especially those in the hands, wrists, ankles and feet

235
Q

What are some symptoms of Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Tender, swollen, warm joints, joint stiffness, fatigue, fever, weight loss

236
Q

What are some treatment options for Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Steroids, pain relief, immunosuppressants, anti-inflammatory drugs

237
Q

What parts of the body are affected by lupus?

A

Often the skin and joints but can affect any organ in the body including the kidneys, liver, lungs and brain

238
Q

What are some symptoms of Lupus?

A

Fatigue, aching joints, skin rash, fever, hair loss, seizures, sores on the mouth and/or nose

239
Q

What are some treatment options for Lupus?

A

Steroids, anti-inflammatories, immunosuppressants, various other such as transplant of the infected organ

240
Q

What is an autoimmune disease?

A

One in which the immune system stops recognising its own cells and starts attacking healthy tissue

241
Q

What is a disadvantage of using immunosuppressant drugs to treat autoimmune disease?

A

This deprives the body of its natural defence against communicable disease

242
Q

What causes autoimmune disease?

A

It is not fully understood by science but there is a genetic tendency in some families, sometimes T regulator cells don’t work properly and sometimes the body reacts badly to a normally mild pathogen

243
Q

How many recognised types of autoimmune disease are there?

A

Around 80 which can cause chronic inflammation or the complete destruction or breakdown of healthy tissue

244
Q

What are the 4 main types of immunity?

A
  1. Natural 2. Artificial 3. Passive 4. Active
245
Q

What is active immunity?

A

Immunity provided by activation of the immune system

246
Q

What are 5 examples of different antigenic material used in vaccines and diseases each would be used for?

A
  1. Whole, live microorganisms (smallpox) 2. A dead pathogen (cholera and typhoid) 3. A harmless or attenuated (reduced virulence) virus (Measles) 4. A preparation of antigens (Hepatitis B) 5. Some harmless toxin (tetanus)
247
Q

What is passive immunity?

A

Provided by antibodies which have not been manufactured by stimulating the recipient’s immune system

248
Q

What is natural immunity?

A

Achieved as the result of the entry of a pathogen and its antigenic material, which stimulates an immune response

249
Q

What is artificial immunity?

A

Gained by deliberate exposure to antibodies or antigens

250
Q

Give an example of natural passive immunity

A

Antibodies provided via the placenta or breast milk

251
Q

Give an example of artificial passive immunity

A

Immunity provided by injection of antibodies made by another individual

252
Q

Give an example of natural active immunity

A

Immunity provided by antibodies made in the immune system as a result of infection

253
Q

Give an example of artificial active immunity

A

Immunity provided by antibodies made in the immune system as a result of a vaccine

254
Q

How old do you have to be before your body starts making antibiodies?

A

At least a couple of months old

255
Q

What is colostrum and why is it special?

A

The first milk a mammalian mother makes, special because it is very high in antibodies

256
Q

What does the infant gut do to antibodies found in the colostrum?

A

Allows them to pass into the bloodstream without being absorbed

257
Q

What is notable about the type of antibodies in colostrum?

A

They are likely to be relevant to pathogens found in the environment, where the mother encountered them

258
Q

How long does natural passive immunity last? (Specifically in new borns)

A

Until the baby begins making its own antibodies

259
Q

Where are the tetanus antibodies used in vaccines extracted from?

A

The blood of horses

260
Q

How does vaccination work?

A
  1. Small amounts of safe antigen (the vaccine) are injected into the blood 2. The body’s primary immune response is triggered and it works as if the antigens were a real pathogen 3. If the pathogen ever does enter the body, memory cells left over from the first injection will cause the secondary immune response to rapidly kill all pathogens and prevent symptoms of an infection
261
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

When a communicable disease spreads rapidly to a lot of people on a local or national level

262
Q

What is a pandemic?

A

When a communicable disease spreads rapidly to a lot of people on an international or intercontinental level

263
Q

When is ring vaccination used?

A

When a new case of a disease is reported

264
Q

What is ring vaccination used for today apart from in treating human diseases?

A

To control the spread of livestock diseases

265
Q

What is ring vaccination?

A

Where you vaccinate all people in the immediate vicinity of new cases of a disease, which could be in the surrounding houses, a whole village/town, or in a hospital ward

266
Q

What is herd immunity?

A

Using a vaccine to provide immunity to all or almost all of a population at risk- once enough people are vaccinated (which varies depending on the disease), the disease can no longer spread

267
Q

What are two examples of prevalent diseases which we so far do not have a vaccine for?

A

Malaria and HIV/AIDS

268
Q

Why is Malaria so hard to make a vaccine for?

A

The plasmodium parasite spends a lot of time in erythrocytes so is protected from the immune system by self antigens, and once in the body the surface antigens of the parasite can reshuffle

269
Q

Why is HIV/AIDS so hard to make a vaccine for?

A

It enters the macrophages and T helper cells, so disables the immune system itself

270
Q

What are some examples of medicines which treat symptoms?

A

Anti-acid drugs for indigestion, anti-inflammatories, painkillers

271
Q

What are some examples of medicines which cure diseases?

A

Chemotherapy drugs for some cancers, antibiotics, antifungals

272
Q

What was the first widely used antibiotic and where is it derived from?

A

Penicillin, derived from a fungal mould

273
Q

When was Penicillin first discovered and by whom?

A

1928 by Alexander Fleming

274
Q

What are the two broad types of antibiotics?

A

Bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics

275
Q

What do bactericidal antibiotics do?

A

Kill bacteria, either by interfering with the cell wall or with the cell contents

276
Q

What do bacteriostatic antibiotics do?

A

Stop bacteria from multiplying by interfering with either bacterial protein production or DNA replication

277
Q

What medicine is extracted from foxgloves and what is it used to treat?

A

Digitoxin, a powerful heart drug used to treat atrial fibrillation and heart disease

278
Q

Where is vancomycin extracted from and what is it used for?

A

Extracted from soil fungus, used as an antibiotic

279
Q

What is prialt and where is it extracted from?

A

A painkiller 1000 times more powerful than morphine, extracted from a cone snail

280
Q

What drug can be extracted from the bark of a willow tree and what is it used for?

A

Aspirin (in which the active ingredient is salicylic acid), used as a painkiller, anti-inflammatory, anti-coagulant and anti-pyretic (to reduce fever)

281
Q

What two drugs can be extracted from a yew tree and what are they used for?

A

Docetaxel and paclitaxel, which are used to treat some forms of breast cancer

282
Q

What is a negative effect of loss of biodiversity on medicine?

A

Many medicines are naturally derived, so we may be losing out on undiscovered medicines if undiscovered species are wiped out

283
Q

What are some modern methods of discovering new medicines?

A

Using computers to build 3D models of pathogens, antigens and drugs for analysis, using computers to search through huge libraries of chemicals for useful ones, analysis of pathogenic or cancerous cell genomes

284
Q

What is pharmacogenetics?

A

The science of interweaving knowledge of molecular drug actions with a knowledge of a person’s genetic material

285
Q

What are some ways in which medicine will likely change in the future?

A

Increase in personalised medicine based on pharmacogenetics, use of synthetic biology to develop and produce new drugs, use of nanotechnology to deliver drugs more precisely

286
Q

What does synthetic biology enable us to do?

A

Genetically engineer bacteria or even mammals to produce medicines cheaply, quickly and efficiently

287
Q

What is selective toxicity in terms of antibiotics?

A

Where antibiotics interfere with bacterial metabolism without affecting the host cells

288
Q

How do penicillin and cephalosporins work?

A

They damage the bacterial cell wall, causing the bacterium to be more easily damaged by the immune reaction

289
Q

How do polymixines work?

A

They make holes in the bacterial cell membrane, affecting it’s permeability

290
Q

How do tertracyclines and streptomycin work?

A

They inhibit bacterial protein synthesis

291
Q

How do sulfonamides work?

A

They interfere with bacterial metabolic reactions

292
Q

What are two notable examples of antibiotic-resistant bacteria?

A

MRSA and C.Difficile

293
Q

What is MRSA?

A

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus, a bacterium carried by up to 30% of the population on the skin or in the nose, which causes boils, abscesses and potentially fatal septicaemia, and which is resistant to methicillin

294
Q

What is C.Difficile?

A

Clostridium Difficile, a bacterium in the guts of around 5% of the population which produces toxins that damage the lining of the intestines, leading to diarrhoea, bleeding and sometimes death.

295
Q

When does C.Difficile become a problem for someone?

A

When commonly used antibiotics kill off gut bacteria but it survives due to resistance, allowing it to reproduce and take hold rapidly

296
Q

What was the first new antibiotic found in the last 30 years?

A

Teixobactin

297
Q

What is the Longitude Award?

A

A £10 million reward for developing an accurate, cost-effective and easy-to-use test for bacterial infection

298
Q

What are some long-term methods of reducing the number of antibiotic-resistant bacteria?

A
  1. Minimising the use of antibiotics 2. Making sure that courses of antibiotics are completed 3. Good hygiene in hospitals, care homes and in general
299
Q

What are some ways in which the problem of antibiotic resistance is being combated?

A

New antibiotics are being searched for and developed, adding antibiotics to animal feed to prevent infection banned in the UK

300
Q

What is the cascade of blood clot reactions?

A

Platelets arrive at the damaged tissue and release thromboplastin. This , Calcium ions and prothrombin catalyses into thrombin. Thrombin then catalyses fibrinogen into fibrin which then forms a clot.

301
Q

What is a spiral shape bacteria called?

A

Spirillum

302
Q

What are all the different types of bacteria

A

Bacilli (rod), chain of bacilli (streptobacilli), coccus (spherical), pair of cocci, chain of cocci (streptococci), cluster of cocci (staphylococci), vibrio (comma shaped), spirillium (spiral), spirochaete (corkscrew)

303
Q

How do cytokine molecules stimulate specific groups of B lymphocytes?

A

Cytokines have specific shape complementary to the receptor on the cell surface membrane B lymphocyte. This stimulates clonal expansion.

304
Q

Define Parasite

A

Lives in host. Lives off host digesting cell organelles gaining nutrition from this at the expense of the host.