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Module 1B > 12-13 (1) DNA & Protein Synthesis; Regulation of Gene Expression & Mutations > Flashcards

12-13 (1) DNA & Protein Synthesis; Regulation of Gene Expression & Mutations Flashcards

1
Q

Polypeptide or proteins are translated from mRNA by a translation machinery called

A

Ribosome

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2
Q

Difference between 30s subunit and 50s subunit

A

30s fits mRNA. 50s has catalytic functions

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3
Q

Diffrence betrween ribosomes and codons

A

Ribosomes translate the mRNA by reading nucleotides as codon while codons are a sequence of three nucleotidesin mRNA that corresponds to a specific amino acid making the polypeptide

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4
Q

How do Quinolones treat bacterial infections

A

Quinolones bind to DNA gyrase inhibitng DNA replication necessary of cell division and bacteria eventually die off

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5
Q

Expression of the genetic information is quantitatively increased by the presence of a specific regulatory element

A

Positive regulation

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6
Q

Specific regulatory element whose presence quantitatively increases expression of genetic information

A

Activator/inducer

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7
Q

Expression of the genetic information is diminished by specific regulatory elements

A

Negative regulation

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8
Q

Specific regulatory element that diminishes expression of the genetic information

A

Repressor

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9
Q

True or False: Regulation of gene expression occurs only at one step of gene expression

A

False. Regulation occurs at different steps

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10
Q

Gene expression is controlled mainly at ____ level

A

Transcription

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11
Q

Examples of RNA molecules needed for the formation of a polypeptide chain

A

mRNA, tRNA, rRNA

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12
Q

Forms a structural protein or an enzyme

A

Polypeptide

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13
Q

True or False: Some proteins may also be involved in the control of gene expression

A

TRUE

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14
Q

Prokaryotic cells use ___ in regulating expression of genes

A

Operons

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15
Q

Eukaryotic cells use a variety of mechanisms to decrease or increase the expression of a gene due to ____

A

Complexity

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16
Q

Most common form of regulating gene expression

A

Changing the rate of transcription

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17
Q

True or False: Transcription can only be upregulated

A

FALSE

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18
Q

Gene that needs an inducer/activator

A

Inducible

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19
Q

Housekeeping genes

A

Constitutive

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20
Q

Genes that are expressed at a constant rate

A

Constitutive

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21
Q

Five important components of a gene

A

Exons, introns, transcription start site, (core and upstream) promoter, enhancer

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22
Q

Segments of the eukaryotic gene that code for a polypeptide

A

Exons

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23
Q

Separated by intervening sequences known as introns

A

Exons

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24
Q

Intervening sequences that separate exons

A

Introns

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25
Q

Do not code for useful polypeptides

A

Introns

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26
Q

Sections that are removed during RNA processing

A

Introns

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27
Q

During what part of RNA processing are introns removed?

A

RNA splicing

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28
Q

Removal of introns bring ___ together

A

Exons

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29
Q

Site where initiation of transcription takes place

A

Transcription start site

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30
Q

Site where RNA polymerase binds and begins the process of transcription

A

Transcription start site

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31
Q

Binds to the transcription start site to begin the process of transcription

A

RNA polymerase

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32
Q

Contains a consensus sequence

A

Core promoter

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33
Q

Sequence that will remain consistent or the same in all chains of a eukaryotic organism

A

Consensus sequence (in core promoter)

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34
Q

Can be observed in all cell types and in all tissue types

A

Core promoter

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35
Q

Has the consensus sequence TATA in all cell type

A

TATA box

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36
Q

Consensus sequence of TATA box

A

TATA

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37
Q

Binding site for all essential transcription factors and regulatory proteins

A

Core promoter

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38
Q

Complex formed at the core promoter that is essential for transcription to take place

A

Large transcription factor-protein complex

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39
Q

Function of the large transcription factor-protein complex on the TATA box

A

Recruit binding of other proteins

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40
Q

Contains the TATA binding protein that recognizes and binds to the TATA box

A

Transcription factor IID

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41
Q

Assists TATA binding protein to interact with RNA polymerase

A

Transcription factor IIB

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42
Q

Allows the binding of the other proteins that can either activate or inhibit transcription

A

Upstream promoter

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43
Q

True or False: The number, type, and sequence of the upstream promoter is the same in all organisms

A

FALSE

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44
Q

Examples of upstream promoters

A

CCAAT, GC-rich region that binds general transcription factors

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45
Q

The enhancer may be up to ___ bp away from the gene

A

1000

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46
Q

True or False: The enhancer can only be located upstream or downstream of a gene

A

False. The enhancer may also be located within an intron of a gene

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47
Q

Loops or bends around the DNA after binding to the enhancer

A

Special transcription factor

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48
Q

Specific sequences of nucleotides found in the gene that serve as a binding site for transcription factors and regulatory proteins

A

Silencers

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49
Q

Two types of regulatory proteins

A

Activator proteins, repressor proteins

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50
Q

Regulatory proteins that bind to the enhancers

A

Activator proteins

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51
Q

Regulatory proteins that bind to silencers

A

Repressor proteins

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52
Q

Two categories of regulators based on location

A

Cis-acting regulators, trans-acting regulators

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53
Q

DNA sequences to which transcriptions factors and activators bind

A

Cis-acting regulators

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54
Q

Regulators that exert only on nearby genes

A

Cis-acting regulators

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55
Q

Include all regulatory protein that bind to cis-acting regulators

A

Trans-acting regulators

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56
Q

Genes that produce general transcription factors are under what category of regulators?

A

Trans-acting regulators

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57
Q

Response element (binding site) of SP-1

A

GC-rich

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58
Q

Response element (binding site) of NF-1

A

CCAATT box

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59
Q

Response element (binding site) of steroid receptor

A

HRE

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60
Q

Response element (binding site) of cAMP response element (CREB) protein

A

CRE response element

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61
Q

A cluster of genes that are transcribed together under a single promoter

A

Operon

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62
Q

True or False: The lac operon is turned on by default

A

FALSE

63
Q

The lac operon is inducible upon presence of ___

A

Lactose

64
Q

Components of lac operon

A

Regulatory gene (lac i), promoter site (P), operator site (O), three structural genes (lacZ, lacY, lacA)

65
Q

Produces the repressor protein in lac operon

A

Regulatory gene (lac i)

66
Q

Where lac repressor binds to block RNA polymerase from binding to promoter site and thus prevent transcription

A

Operator site (O)

67
Q

Three structural genes of lac operon

A

lacZ, lacY, lacA

68
Q

Structural gene that hydrolyzes lactose into glucose and galactose

A

lacZ

69
Q

Structural gene for transport of lactose across the cell membrane

A

lacY

70
Q

Structural gene for β-galactosidase

A

lacZ

71
Q

Structural gene for permease

A

lacY

72
Q

Structural gene for thiogalactoside transacetylase

A

lacA

73
Q

True or False: Bacteria usually depends on lactose as a primary energy source

A

FALSE

74
Q

Lac operon uses ___ as energy source upon absence of glucose

A

Lactose

75
Q

In the absence of lactose and presence of glucose, there is ___ by lac repressor

A

Negative regulation

76
Q

The Lac repressor binds to the ___ to block RNA polymerase access of the structural genes

A

O site

77
Q

True or False: In the absence of lactose and presence of glucose, there is active transcription and translation.

A

FALSE

78
Q

Positive control by induction of expression happens in the ___ of lactose and ___ of glucose (absence/presence)

A

Presence, absence

79
Q

Allows transport of lactose through the cell membrane

A

Permase

80
Q

Cleaves lactose into glucose and galactose

A

β-galactosidase

81
Q

Formed by combining glucose and galactose through α1-6 linkage

A

Allolactose

82
Q

Linkage that combines glucose and galactose to form allolactose

A

α1-6 linkage

83
Q

In positive control by induction of expression, allolactose serves as ___ and binds the repressor protein

A

Inducer

84
Q

Positive control by catabolite repression happens in the ___ of lactose and ___ of glucose (absence/presence)

A

Presence, presence

85
Q

Glucose inhibits the high rate of transcription by lowering the concentration of ____

A

cAMP

86
Q

When glucose is exhausted, cAMP concentration ____

A

Increases

87
Q

cAMP binds to ___, forming a complex that binds to the ___ in the promoter

A

CAP-binding protein, CAP-binding site

88
Q

Genes for the enzymes of tryptophan biosynthetic pathway

A

Tryptophan operon

89
Q

True or False: The tryptophan operon is turned off by the presence of a repressor (repressible gene)

A

TRUE

90
Q

In the tryptophan operon, what is the inactive repressor produced by the regulatory gene?

A

Apo-repressor

91
Q

Proteins necessary for tryptophan synthesis are produced by the ___ of the tryptophan operon

A

5 structural genes

92
Q

True or False: The Tryptophan operon is turned off during the absence of Tryptophan

A

FALSE

93
Q

True or False: When the tryptophan operon is on, the Apo-repressor cannot bind the operator site

A

TRUE

94
Q

Transcription is ___ when there is an excess in tryptophan

A

Repressed

95
Q

Tryptophan acts as a ___, activating the Apo-repressor (inactive repressor)

A

Co-repressor

96
Q

Premature termination of transcription

A

Attenuation

97
Q

Regulation by attenutation depends on ___ and ___

A

Coupled transcription, translation

98
Q

True or False: Regulation by attenuation never occur in eukaryotes

A

TRUE

99
Q

Contains genes for histidine synthesis and produces histidine enzymes for the biosynthetic pathway of histidine when histidine is not available in the medium

A

His operon

100
Q

True or False: When histidine is available, the His operon is turned on.

A

FALSE

101
Q

One way to control the His operon

A

Attenuation

102
Q

Transcription is constitutively initiated at the ___ of mRNA

A

5’ UTR

103
Q

As soon as the ____ appears at the 5’ UTR of the mRNA, ribosome binds to translate the 5’ UTR (leader sequence) into a non-functional protein known as the ____.

A

Shine-Dalgarno, leader peptide

104
Q

True or False: If histidine is abundant, the ribosome easily finds His tRNA and the leader peptide is formed

A

TRUE

105
Q

Secondary structure formed in His operon

A

Hairpin loop

106
Q

In the His operon, what stops transcription before it reaches the structural genes?

A

RNA polymerase

107
Q

True or False: In the absence of histidine, the ribosome stalls at histidine codon because it cannot easily find His tRNA.

A

TRUE

108
Q

What provides a barrier for the formation of the transcriptional apparatus?

A

Nucleosome Core

109
Q

True or False: Chromosomes of eukaryotes require remodeling

A

TRUE

110
Q

Chromatin or Nucleosome remodeling is important to activate the ___

A

Gene

111
Q

True or False: Chromatin or Nucleosome requires the use of energy

A

TRUE

112
Q

A type of histone modification that transfer the acetyl group from acetyl coA to lysine residues

A

Covalent Modification

113
Q

What is the main enzyme responsible for covalent modification?

A

Histone acetyltransferases (HATs)

114
Q

Covalent modification of histones reduces _____ interaction between histone and DNA

A

Electrostatic

115
Q

Repressors and co-repressors can contain ______ which inactivates the gene

A

Histone deacetylases

116
Q

True or False: Does chemical modification of DNA change the sequences of the base pairs?

A

FALSE

117
Q

Methylation of cytosine in CG pairs result in?

A

Silencing of the Gene

118
Q

A highly compacted region during interphase and found in regions near the centromere

A

Heterochromatin

119
Q

Methylation on the CPG island of the FMR1 gene result in the condition called?

A

Fragile X syndrome

120
Q

Cytosine is methylated to _____ which inactivates the gene

A

5-methylcytosine

121
Q

True or False: DNA methylation usually occurs in CpG islands

A

TRUE

122
Q

CpG islands can usually be found near

A

Promoters

123
Q

Complete and partial deletion of genes is called?

A

Gene Loss

124
Q

Gene loss results in

A

Non-production of a functional protein

125
Q

Gene amplifcation is the process of?

A

Repeated cycles of replication of genetic material

126
Q

True or False: Gene modification usually occurs in physiological conditions

A

FALSE

127
Q

Newly synthesized DNA which is excised into unstable chromosome to form

A

Double Minutes

128
Q

DNA sequences that control gene activity

A

Enhancers and Silcencers

129
Q

True or False: Enhancers and Silencers are found near the promoter?

A

FALSE

130
Q

Proteins which bind to enhancers and silencers?

A

Activators and Repressors

131
Q

Activator proteins that bind to response elements

A

Transcription Factors

132
Q

What are the 2 recognizable domains of Transcription Factors?

A

DNA-bindign Domain and Activation Domain

133
Q

What are the different DNA binding motifs

A

Helix-Turn-Helix, Zinc Fingers, Basic Domains, and Beta-scaffol factors

134
Q

Steriod receptor is an example of a DNA binding protein which binds to ______ and functions as a _______ under the protein classification _____

A

HRE, Steroid Response, Zinc Finger

135
Q

What are the two general transcription factors?

A

SP-1 and NF-1

136
Q

TFIID is a kind of general transcription factor which binds to?

A

TATA box

137
Q

In gluconeogenesis, the presence of glucagone and cortisol stimulates what gene?

A

PEPCK gene

138
Q

True or False: Cortisol needs a receptor which increases cAMP levels in the cell?

A

FALSE

139
Q

What is the difference of cortisol and glucagon in activating the PEPCK gene?

A

Cortisol diffuses directly into the cell and binds to the Glucocorticoid Response Element (GRE), while glucagon interacts indirectly through the use of secondary messengers after signal transuction

140
Q

A permanent and heritable change in the DNA base seqeunce is called a _____

A

Mutation

141
Q

Whare are the two classification of Mutations

A

Phenotypic effects and Type in Molecular Change

142
Q

A type of mutation which is also known as null mutation?

A

Loss-of-Function

143
Q

A type of mutation which produces a product with increased activity or a new function?

A

Gain-of-Function

144
Q

A type of mutation where only one base of the DNA is altered that may result in the translation of a protein with abnormal amino acid sequences?

A

Point Mutations

145
Q

Point mutations involves what?

A

Purine and Pyrimidine bases

146
Q

Point mutation wherein a purine is replaced by another purine, or a pyrmidine to another pyrimidine

A

Transition

147
Q

Point mutation wherein a purine is replaced by a pyrimidine

A

Transversion

148
Q

Single-base substitutions are classified into?

A

Silent Mutation, Missense Mutation, and Nonsense Mutation

149
Q

A type of single base substitution which results in the premature termination of transilation?

A

Nonsense Mutation

150
Q

Silent Mutations are called silent because?

A

They cause no detectable effect

151
Q

What type of single base substitution result in the translation of a different amino acid

A

Missense Mutation

152
Q

Addition or deletion of 1 or more nucletorides are called?

A

Frameshift Mutation

153
Q

True or False: Frameshift mutations result in the production of an entirely different protein after transcription and transliation

A

TRUE

Module 1B (7 decks)

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