Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

XLS Initial > XLS non-red limitations > Flashcards

XLS non-red limitations Flashcards

1
Q

45-minute IFR reserve fuel

A

1037 Lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hot Spare Fuel

A

3800 Lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Emergency Fuel

A

900 Lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Incliment Wx Fuel

A

4000 Lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Minimum dry runway length and width

A

3800’/50’
(Required for release only - Pilots may land if LPA computed distance is less than the landing distance available. )
(For wet runway takeoff with thrust reverser credit used to calculate takeoff distance - minimum width is 75’)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Runway Ops review required if:

A

Dry: Less than 4500’
Wet/Contaminated: Less than 5000’
DAAP: Less than 5000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If runway is shorter than 3999’ do not:

A

Takeoff or land when:

  • Elevation >3000’
  • Contaminated or wet runway
  • Tailwind exists

Takeoff with anti-ice on.

land when runway width is less than 75’ and crosswind component exceeds 10 Kts.

Execute circle to land when ceiling less than 1000’ and visibility less than 3 sm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The following equipment must be operational for flights in RVSM airspace:

A

1 Autopilot
1 AAD
1 ATC altitude reporting transponder
Static port heaters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing altitude

A

14000’

AOM 5.16 for high altitude ops at airfields at or above 8000’ MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mmo

A

.75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Vmo

A

305

260 below 8000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum tire ground speed

A

165

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vmca flaps 7

A

90 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vmca flaps 15

A

90 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vmcl Flaps 35

A

92 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vmcg flaps 7/15

A

81 Kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Max pressurization differential

A

9.7 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Normal pressurization differential

A

0-9.6 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Pressure relieve valve opening pressure

A

9.5 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lap children may be held in seats:

A

3,4,10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Crewmember O2 masks not approved for use above:

A

40,000’ cabin altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Passenger O2 masks not approved for use above:

A

25,000’ cabin altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Max number of passengers

A

7 + 3 lap children (Limit due to O2 masks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

After any APU shutdown, do not attempt restart until __ seconds after APU is at __% rpm.

A

30 seconds

0%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Do not attempt to start APU after what failure?

A

Dual generator failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Do not operate APU in the following situations:

A
  • When aircraft is unattended
  • During ground de/anti-icing procedures
  • If APU test has failed
27
Q

Maximum APU operating altitude

A

30,000’

28
Q

Do not use autopilot or yaw damper for ________

A

Takeoff or landing

29
Q

Do not manually override autopilot during _____

A

Normal flight

30
Q

Do not use autopilot for any of the following:

A
  • Any comparison monitor is activated

- Either PFD is in ATT reversion

31
Q

Battery limits for engine start:

A

Three start attempts per hour
Three generator assisted cross starts are equivalent to one engine battery start. Starting the engines using generator cross-start from the APU counts at 1/3 of one normal battery start.

32
Q

Battery limit for APU start:

A

9 APU start attempts per hour

33
Q

Maximum GPU load

A

1000A

34
Q

Maximum engine generator load on ground

A

250A up to 4 minutes

35
Q

Maximum engine generator load in flight

A

300A

36
Q

Maximum APU generator load on ground

A

200A

37
Q

Maximum APU generator load in flight

A

230A

38
Q

Lav door must be latched open for ______

A

Taxi, Takeoff, Landing.

39
Q

Pressure refueling limit:

A

10-55 PSI

40
Q

Max defueling pressure:

A

-10 PSI

41
Q

Icing conditions exist on the ground when operating on contaminated surfaces and the following conditions are present:

A 
SAT is 10C or below
Visible moisture (clouds, precip, <1sm vis)
42
Q

Icing conditions exist in flight when the following are present:

A

RAT is 10C or below

Visible moisture.

43
Q

Operate engine and airframe anti-icing systems in icing conditions, select the following:

WING/ENGINE - ___
TAIL - ____

A
  • On

- AUTO at 10C or less

44
Q

Flight in _____, ______, or severe conditions of mixed or clear ice is prohibited.

A

FZRA (Freezing Rain)

FZDZ (Freezing drizzle)

45
Q

Select ENG-ON at least ________ minutes prior to entering icing conditions.

A

3-5

46
Q

Set flaps __ for takeoff when type II, III, or IV fluid has been applied.

A

7

47
Q

To prevent cracking of the boot, do not operate the tail deice under any of the following conditions:

A

Airspeed 150 Kts or greater and RAT -35C of lower

Airspeed less than 150 Kts and RAT -40C or lower

48
Q

Do not taxi until ______________is completed

A

altitude and heading ground alignment

49
Q

Authorized RNAV/RNP for ODP/DP/STAR

A

RNAV 1/RNP 1 (1 nm)

50
Q

Authorized RNAV for class I En Route

A 
B-RNAV (5 nm)
RNAV 2 (2nm) - Q routes/T routes
51
Q

When using VNAV for guidance altitude constraints must be displayed on the _____

A

FMS legs page

52
Q

Do not use VNAV when altimeter is adjusted to display ________ rather than sea level

A

QFE (Height above ground)

53
Q

Do not use the FMS for final approach guidance for ______

A

ILS, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, or SDF approaches.

54
Q

Straight in Vref at Maximum landing weight with anti-ice on is

A

117 Kts.

55
Q

Do note use the FMS as primary means of navigation in ______, or __ mode.

A

Degrade or DR.

56
Q

Ground idle N2 minimum %

A

49.3%

57
Q

Flight idle N2 minimum %

A

53.2%

58
Q

Takeoff thrust N1 and N2

A

N1 - 100%

N2 - 102.8

59
Q

Transient N1 and N2 limits

A

N1 - 102 / 20 seconds
N2 - 104 / 20 seconds
N2 - 106.2 / 5 Seconds

60
Q

Minimum oil pressure for starting

A

-40

61
Q

Reverse thrust must be idle below ____ at landing roll or during static operation

A

60 Kts

62
Q

thrust reverser deployment is limited to ____ minutes in any ____ minute period

A

3/10

63
Q

When APU is operating do not use reverse thrust for longer than ____

A

30 seconds.

XLS Initial (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions