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113-162 Flashcards

1
Q

Contrast the presentation of chronic pancreatitis with PUD

A

Chronic pancreatitis is associated with diarrhea and prior pancreatitis. Also, PUD is typically relieved by antacids

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2
Q

What is the most common cause of epididymitis in older males?

A

E coli (not-sexually transmitted)

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3
Q

Where does chloroquine-resistant falciparum malaria live?

A

Subsaharan Africa and the Indian subcontinent

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4
Q

How is toxoplasmosis treated?

A

Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

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5
Q

Is aspiration the most common etiology of pneumonia in nursing home patients? If not, is it for any specific group of patients?

A

No, only for people with underlying neurologic disorders

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6
Q

How does ABO mismatching present?

A

Rapid hemolysis, including flank pain and jaundice

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7
Q

How is actinomycosis treated?

A

IV Penicillin, if complicated debridement can be used but it will almost never get better without antibiotics

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8
Q

What comes to mind in an HIV patient with diffuse interstitial pneumonia as well as diarrhea?

A

CMV; PCP is rarely associated with diarrhea

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9
Q

How do you treat chronic HBV if there are increasing transaminases or HBsAg?

A

Interferon on lamivudine

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10
Q

Do you always water restrict in diabetes insipidus? If not, in what situation do you not water restrict?

A

Not if hypovolemic

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11
Q

What do you do for a child with microcytic, hypochromic anemia

A

Give empiric iron treatment before definitive dx

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12
Q

After you establish the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis, what is the next step in workup?

A

CT chest (ie, if edrophonium challenge is positive or if anti-AChR is positive, no need to do the other)

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13
Q

How do bone mets cause hypercalcemia?

A

They do NOT cause direct bone resorption, but rather stimulate osteoclasts to cause bone resorption. However, the most common underlying etiology of hypercalcemia is due to PTH-rP production

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14
Q

How can hydrocephalus from intracranial neonatal hemorrhage be distinguished from Dandy Walker or Arnold Chiari?

A

If due to intracranial neonatal hemorrhage, there will be dilation of the entire ventricular system particularly the subarachnoid space. D-W and A-C will show obstructive hydrocephalus

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15
Q

Does smoking cessation lower BP?

A

No

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16
Q

When do you stop doing biannual PAPs in patients with CIN II-CIN III?

A

After they’ve already had 3 normal tests

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17
Q

What is the #1 maternal risk factor associated with IUGR?

A

Smoking (not HTN)

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18
Q

What is the most likely long-tern complication of vesicoureteral reflux?

A

Renal scarring

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19
Q

Describe cervical mucus at different phases of the menstrual cycle

A

Ovulatory phase: Thin, clear, and profuse
Early luteal: Thick and scant
Mid-late luteal: Thick and more copious

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20
Q

How does systemic sclerosis cause pulmonary complaints?

A

Most commonly interstitial fibrosis

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21
Q

How do you distinguish rheumatoid arthritis from viral arthritis?

A

RA has morning stiffness > 1hr (viral 6 weeks of symptoms are required to establish the diagnosis)

22
Q

How does sepsis increase mixed venous O2 concentration?

A

Hyperdynamic circulation and impaired distribution of cardiac output leading to suboptimal oxygen extraction

23
Q

What is the preferred imaging modality for osteomyelitis?

A

MRI; bone scan is very sensitive but not as specific

24
Q

What is the first imaging modality to evaluate a patient with back pain and alarm symptoms?

A

X-ray

25
Q

Contrast the ocular findings with viral conjunctivitis and trachoma

A

Viral conjunctivitis: Red eye with copious discharge

Trachoma: follicles and inflammatory changes

26
Q

Cord cavitation is seen in what spinal cord disorder?

A

Syringomyelia

27
Q

Is pneumomediastinum seen in Mallory-Weiss tears or in esophageal perforations?

A

Esophageal perforations

28
Q

What are clinical features that distinguish AIDP from tick-borne paralysis?

A

Very similar, except tick-borne paralysis is associated with normal sensorium as well as no albuminocytologic dissociation

29
Q

Exam findings in serous otitis media?

A

Dull TM, hypomobile by pneumatic otoscopy

30
Q

Do patients who are immune to HBV need HBIg after exposure?

A

No

31
Q

How can Yersinia gastroenteritis and E. coli gastroenteritis be distinguished?

A

Yersinia is associated with fever

32
Q

Do CF patients have a higher risk of gastroenteritis?

A

No

33
Q

Does RCC cause renal failure?

A

No

34
Q

In an atopic person who presents with acute dyspnea and dysphagia, what is the likely diagnosis?

A

Upper airway (and esophageal) obstruction due to laryngeal edema

35
Q

What is the most common cardiac anomaly in patients with Edwards syndrome?

A

VSD

36
Q

Is permanent joint deformity common with SLE?

A

No

37
Q

What (mechanistic) class of drugs are most useful for antiemetics in patients undergoing chemotherapy?

A

Serotonin antagonists

38
Q

What is a concern in a patient with IBD who presents with acute abdominal pain, really bad leukocytosis and hypotension? What is the first step?

A

Toxic megacolon; abdominal X ray

39
Q

A patient presents with acute shoulder pain, resists external rotation of glenohumeral joint. What is the injured nerve?

A

Axillary

40
Q

How does Hereditary Hemorrhagic Telangiectasia increase the hematocrit?

A

Reactive to hypoxemia caused by AV shunting

41
Q

Turner’s syndrome increases the risk of what disease that old women usually get?

A

Osteoporosis

42
Q

What will the liver stain with in alpha-1 antitrypsin disorder?

A

PAS

43
Q

What is reaction formation?

A

Transformation of unwanted thoughts or feelings into their opposites.

44
Q

How do you manage a simple renal cyst?

A

Reassurance, no followup

45
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is caused by bactrim and what is the mechanism?

A

Hyperkalemia by blocking the ENaC

46
Q

What is the mechanism of ARDS after drowning?

A

Aspiration

47
Q

How does the NBME want you to manage moderate to severe postsurgical pain?

A

PCA

48
Q

How do you diagnose AIDP if LP is not an answer choice?

A

EMG

49
Q

What is the preferred imaging modality for mastoiditis?

A

CT scan

50
Q

How do you distinguish social phobia from panic disorder with agoraphobia?

A

In social phobia, the fear of going out precedes any panic attacks
In panic disorder, the panic attacks come first, and the agoraphobia is ultimately secondary to fear of having a panic attack in public

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