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1-50 Flashcards

1
Q

What psychiatric disorder is most highly comorbid with panic disorder?

A

Depression

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2
Q

What is the first step in managing any stroke patient?

A

CT scan without contrast

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3
Q

When in the course of the disease does diabetic neuropathy affect motor functionality?

A

Late

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4
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is a poor prognostic indicator in CHF?

A

Hyponatremia

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5
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for ARDS?

A

PCWP < 18 ( > 18 indicates cardiogenic edema), PaO2/FiO2 ratio <200

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6
Q

Drug of choice for early localized Lyme disease in pregnancy?

A

Amoxicillin

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7
Q

What is the most common complication of TPN?

A

Line-associated infection

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8
Q

Compare and contrast CSF findings between TB and HSV meningitis

A

Both have lymphocytic predominance, elevated protein, and very high RBC. TB has low glucose, but HSV has normal glucose

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9
Q

At what CD4 count is HAART given?

A

<350

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10
Q

What is a difference between Korsakoff syndrome and the DTs?

A

There are no seizures in Korsakoff’s syndrome

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11
Q

How does Conn’s syndrome cause muscle weakness?

A

Elevated aldosterone causes volume expansion and hypokalemia

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12
Q

How do you treat Conn’s syndrome?

A

Spironolactone

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13
Q

How do you prevent gallstone formation after surgery?

A

Ursodiol

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14
Q

How do you distinguish whether or not a RUL SPN is from TB or from cancer?

A

More likely TB if night sweats, cavitary lesion, irregular infiltrate surrounding it

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15
Q

How do you treat CLL?

A

Rituximab

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16
Q

How do you treat BPPV?

A

Head movement exercises

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17
Q

What is a clinical feature that distinguishes celiac disease from parasitic diarrhea?

A

Celiac should only produce symptoms associated with meals

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18
Q

How do you distinguish BV from candidiasis?

A

BV has no inflammation, so there shouldn’t be dyspareunia. Also pH is typically elevated

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19
Q

How many missing alpha globin genes do you typically need to have symptoms?

A

2

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20
Q

How do you distinguish a frontal cortical lesion from a pontine lesion?

A

Pontine lesions may involve peripheral VII; therefore, there may be deficits involving the upper facial motor functionality (eg closing eyes). This should not be seen in frontal strokes

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21
Q

How can cath distinguish MR from a VSD?

A

There should be no incremental increase in oxygenation from the RA to the RV if the patient has MR, but there should be if they have a VSD

22
Q

How can cath distinguish hypovolemia from VSD?

A

Both have decreased CO, but in a PE, right heart pressures are elevated.

23
Q

How do you distinguish RA flares from septic arthritis clinically?

A

RA flares are typically polyarticular, whereas septic arthritis flares are monoarticular.

24
Q

Compare and contrast the presentations of hypothyroidism and Cushing’s syndrome

A

While both present with weight gain and menstrual abnormalities, hypothyroid patients have no acne and have slowed DTRs, whereas Cushing’s causes acne and brisk DTRs.

25
Q

What distinguishes factitious disorder from malingering?

A

Secondary gain

26
Q

How do you distinguish herpes stomatitis from viral pharyngitis?

A

If there is lymphadenopathy and fever in addition to vesicles, HSV stomatitis is likely. If only vesicles, probably just pharyngitis

27
Q

When do you amputate a diabetic toe?

A

Only when debridement fails and there is evidence of gangrene

28
Q

After fluid resuscitation in DKA, how do you determine the next step?

A

If K is low-normal or low, start K before insulin. If not, can start insulin prior to giving K

29
Q

How do you work up a trauma-associated widened mediastinum?

A

Either TEE or CT; aortography is not done anymore

30
Q

How do you distinguish pheochromocytomas from hyperthyroidism?

A

While both cause weight loss, palpitations, hypertension, pheos cause more episodic symptoms and do not cause lid lag.

31
Q

What two migraine medications cannot be given together and why?

A

Triptans and ergot alkaloids, because they can cause vasospasm

32
Q

What are the clinical features of a cataract?

A

Blurring of vision at night as well as a glare

33
Q

What CBC abnormalities does smoking cause?

A

Erythrocytosis; thrombocytosis is not typically seen

34
Q

What kind of pathology does central cyanosis (ie, involving the lips and tongue) imply?

A

Congenital heart anomalies.

35
Q

Distinguish measles and Roseola infantum

A

Both can cause high fevers; however, in Measles, the pharyngeal involvement is “Koplik spots”, the rash begins on the face and spreads down, and there are associated viral URI symptoms (cough and coryza). In roseola, the rash begins on the trunk and spreads to the face.

36
Q

What kind of arrhythmias typically cause sudden syncope?

A

Ventricular arrhythmias

37
Q

What are the signs of theophylline toxicity?

A

Headache, insomina, seizures, nausea and vomiting, as well as cardiotoxicity

38
Q

How do you treat carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

100% O2 via facemask

39
Q

How do you diagnose chronic HBV?

A

Liver biopsy; liver serology isn’t that useful

40
Q

What anatomic nerve level is affected by Cauda Equina syndrome?

A

Spinal nerve roots

41
Q

Contrast evaluation of acute viral hepatitis with chronic viral hepatitis

A

For acute hepatitis, trasnsaminases are useful in assessing severity, but in chronic hepatitis, liver biopsy is more useful.

42
Q

When do you do a C-section in abruptio?

A

When there are signs that the mother is deteriorating (eg continued bleeding, hypotension, tachycardia) or signs of fetal distress

43
Q

How do you distinguish an MCA stroke from an internal capsule stroke?

A

Both can cause dense hemiparesis, but MCA strokes should also affect speech functionality

44
Q

What do you do if an unvaccinated individual is stuck with blood from an individual with known hepatitis B?

A

Administer HB vaccine as well as HBIg

45
Q

How does ethylene glycol poisoning present and what is the treatment?

A

Renal calculi (secondary to renal obstruction, causing calcium deposition and stone formation), as well as acute renal failure and AG acidosis. Treat with fomepizole.

46
Q

What are the blood sugar goals in gestational diabetes?

A

75-90 fasting. You treat if persistently in 120s-150s with insulin

47
Q

When do you use beta blockers vs octreotide in management of esophageal varices?

A

Beta blockers are useful in the management of small, nonbleeding varices, whereas octreotide is useful in managing active variceal hemorrhage

48
Q

How do you treat uric acid stones?

A

Alkalinize the pH with potassium citrate

49
Q

What is the screening test for acromegaly?

A

Serum IGF-1

50
Q

Describe the presentation of spondylolisthesis

A

Forward slip of a vertebra; causes back pain as well as a “step off” in neurological function at a discrete spinal cord level

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