1101 Cont. Flashcards

1
Q

Which type of LCD monitors have the best contrast?

TN, VA, or IPS?

A

VA

TN have the worst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which type of LCD monitors have the worst brightness?

TN, VA, or IPS?

A

TN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which type of LCD monitors have the widest viewing angle?

TN, VA, or IPS?

A

IPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which type of LCD monitors have the most colors?

TN, VA, or IPS?

A

IPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which type of LCD monitors have the worst response time?

TN, VA, or IPS?

A

VA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which type of LCD monitors have the deepest blacks?

TN, VA, or IPS?

A

VA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which monitor type outputs less light?

LCD or OLED

A

OLED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

PRL

A

Preferred Roaming List

The list of service providers stored in a cellphone that the phone can use when it’s roaming outside its home area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is Telnet encrypted or unencrypted?

A

Unencrypted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Does SMTP…

  1. Send Mail
  2. Retrieve Mail
  3. Send and Retrieve Mail
A

Send Mail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

RDP

A

Remote Desktop Protocol

An input/output presentation protocol from Microsoft that governs the keyboard, mouse and screen formatting between clients and servers in a thin client environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which type of internet connection is faster?

Cable or DSL

A

Cable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which type of internet connection is cheaper?

Cable or DSL

A

DSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which type of internet connection uses your phone line?

Cable or DSL

A

DSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

ONT

Optical Network Terminal

A

Equipment from the telephone company that terminates its optical fibers at the customer’s premises. Using electricity from the customer’s AC source, the ONT converts the incoming optical signals into electrical signals for telephone, TV and Internet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SPF

SPF is an extension to SMTP.

A

Sender Policy Framework

An email authentication system that verifies that the message came from an authorized mail server. SPF is designed to detect messages from spammers and phishers who falsify the sender’s IP address in the email header. SPF is an extension to the SMTP mail protocol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

DKIM

A

An email authentication method that computes a digital signature which is added to the message header.

DKIM = DomainKeys Identified Mail

The receiving mail server obtains the sender’s public key from the DNS system to validate the signature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

DMARC

Domain-based (BLANK) (BLANK), Reporting, and Conformance

A

An email security protocal that verifies email senders by building on the DNS, DKIM, and SPF protocols.

DMARC = Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Proxy Server

A

A computer system or router that functions as a relay between client and server. It helps prevent an attacker from invading a private network and is one of several tools used to build a firewall.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

SCADA

A

Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition

Collects data from sensors in local and remote locations and sends them to central computers to control local machinery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Subnet Mask

A

The technique used by the TCP/IP communications protocol that identifies which network segment a packet belongs to. The subnet mask is a binary pattern, and the default mask found in countless small local networks indicates that all the machines are in the same network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is required for manual configuration of network adapter settings?

A

IP address, Subnet mask, Default gateway, and DNS server address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many bits is an IPv6 address?

A

128 bits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

DBC

A

Direct-buried cable

A kind of communications or transmissions electrical cable which is especially designed to be buried under the ground without any other cover, sheath, or duct to protect it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

SAS

A

Serial Attached SCSI

A standard hardware interface for storage drives widely used in datacenters where large numbers of drives are required. SAS drives are generally faster than SATA drives and more reliable, but are also more costly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of cable are these?

RG-6, RG-58, RG-59

A

Coaxial Cable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the Bandwidth of a Cat 5e cable?

A

100 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the Bandwidth of a Cat 6 cable?

In MHz

A

250 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the Bandwidth of a Cat 6a cable?

In MHz

A

500 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the Bandwidth of a Cat 7 cable?

In MHz

A

600 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the Bandwidth of a Cat 7a cable?

A

1000 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the Bandwidth of a Cat 8 cable?

A

2000 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How many peripherals can be connected in a daisy chain from a Thunderbolt port?

A

Up to 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which Thunderbolt generation switched from Mini DisplayPort to USB-C?

A

Gen 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What type of signal does DisplayPort support?

Digital or Analog?
Audio, Video, or Both?

A

Digital Video and Audio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is an F Connector or F-Type Connector?

A

Coaxial cable connector commonly used for “over the air” terrestrial television, cable television and universally for satellite television and cable modems.

The screw-in plug on the back of the gateway and cable box.

37
Q

Which is faster?

SRAM or DRAM

38
Q

Which is cheaper?

SRAM or DRAM

39
Q

Which is used in your computers main memory?

SRAM or DRAM

40
Q

Which 3 types of storage drives are hot-swappable?

A

USB, SATA, and eSATA

41
Q

A standard hardware interface for solid state drives (SSDs) that uses the PCI Express (PCIe) bus.

A

NVMe

Non-Volatile Memory Express

42
Q

What does “xD” refer to?

A

EXtreme Digital Picture Card

An earlier flash memory card used in digital cameras. Introduced in 2002 by Fuji and Olympus, the xD cards were the smallest flash memory cards on the market until the Mini SD card was announced in 2003. xD Cards provided low-power, high-speed data transfer up to 5 Mbytes/sec in capacities to 512MB.

43
Q

What are the 2 SSD form factors?

A

M.2 and mSATA

44
Q

What are the 3 types of M.2 key slots?

A

B key, M key, and B+M key

45
Q

TPM

A security chip that is built into PCs.

A

Trusted Platform Module

Introduced in 2009, TPM provides a secure boot operation and checks the system’s integrity. It also provides hardware-based encryption by generating a private key that is stored in the chip and cannot be divulged to hackers.

46
Q

What is a PSU’s output measured in?

  1. Amps
  2. Volts
  3. Watts
  4. Ohms
47
Q

Secure Boot

A

Booting a computer with the knowledge that the first instructions executed have not been maliciously altered.

Storing the initial boot loader instructions in a read only memory (ROM) chip is one way to ensure a secure boot.

48
Q

Page Description Language

What are the two major languages?

A

A high-level language for describing the layout of a page to be displayed or printed. The two major languages are Adobe’s PostScript and HP’s PCL, which are device independent and built into most printers.

49
Q

ADF

A

Automatic Document Feeder

ADFs are found on copy machines and multifunction devices.

A paper stacker that feeds one sheet of paper at a time into the unit.

50
Q

A set of printer replacement parts is called a…?

A

Maintenance Kit

51
Q

A system program that provides a virtual machine environment is a…?

A

Hypervisor

The term came from the IBM mainframe world, which first introduced the virtual machine (virtualization) concept in the form of VM, initially as software only and later enhanced with hardware circuits.

52
Q

What are two examples of countermeasures against VM escape?

A

Sandboxing and Patch Management

53
Q

Cellular Generations

1G

A

Analog voice calls with poor audio quality and reliability.

54
Q

Cellular Generations

2G

A

Digital voice calls, SMS and MMS (texting,) and basic data services like email.

55
Q

Cellular Generations

3G

A

Mobile broadband internet, web browsing, downloading, streaming. Introduction of smartphones and apps. Still in use today when 4G signals fail.

56
Q

Cellular Generations

4G + LTE

A

Faster broadband speeds, uses internet protocol with LTE, HD video, video conferencing, cloud computing.

57
Q

Cellular Generations

5G

A

Even faster broadband speeds. Still being rolled out.

58
Q

PoE

A

Power Over Ethernet

Distributing power over an Ethernet network. Because the power and signal are on the same cable, PoE enables remote network devices such as ceiling-mounted access points, surveillance cameras and LED lighting to be installed far away from AC power sources.

59
Q

IEEE Standard

Ethernet

60
Q

IEEE Standard

Wi-Fi

61
Q

IEEE Standard

WPAN (Wireless Personal Area Network)

Example: Bluetooth

A group of wireless personal area network (WPAN) standards from the IEEE for low-power devices in both industrial and consumer applications.

62
Q

SDN

A

Software-Defined Networking

An approach to designing and operating large-scale networks that is based on programming the forwarding decisions in routers and switches via software from a central server. Software-defined networking (SDN) differs from traditional networking, which requires configuring each device separately and which relies on protocols that cannot be altered.

The primary applications of SDN have been in wide area network (WAN) traffic engineering, datacenter network virtualization and monitoring. SDN gives network administrators the flexibility to customize their networks based on traffic requirements.

63
Q

Domain Name System records

A

Address

A

Forward DNS - IPv4

Associate subdomain to 32-bit IP

The Address (A) record associates a domain name or subdomain with an IP address, which is the primary purpose of the DNS system. The @ sign identifies “this domain;” for example, A @ nnn.nnn.nnn.nnn means this is the IP of this domain.

64
Q

Domain Name System records

AAAA

A

Forward DNS - IPv6
(1st IPv6 record)

Associate subdomain to 128-bit IP

65
Q

Domain Name System records

A6

A

Forward DNS - IPv6
(Future IPv6 record)

Associate subdomain to 128-bit IP

66
Q

Domain Name System records

PTR

Pointer

A

Reverse DNS

Associate IP address to a subdomain

The Pointer (PTR) record provides data for reverse DNS, which is used for logging the domain name and verification purposes. Also called “inverse DNS,” the PTR record is an option.

67
Q

Domain Name System records

CNAME

A

Domain Aliases

Associate an alias to a domain

The Canonical Name (CNAME) record is an alias that points to other names. It is commonly used to map subdomains to the domain without having to enter the IP address again. For example, CNAME mail @ associates the mail subdomain to the this domain.

68
Q

Domain Name System records

DNAME

A

Subdomain Aliases

Associate an alias to a subdomain

69
Q

Domain Name System records

NS

A

Associate a domain to a DNS server

NS = Name Server

Two Name Server (NS) records identify the authoritative DNS servers for the domain. Required for redundancy, the secondary name server queries the primary server for changes.

70
Q

Domain Name System records

MX

A

Mail Server

Associate mail to a mail server

The Mail Exchange (MX) record identifies the server to which email is directed. It also contains a priority field so that mail can be directed to multiple servers in a prescribed order.

71
Q

Domain Name System records

TXT

A

Documentation

A TXT record can be used for any documentation or identification purpose. It is also used to provide information to the SPF email authentication system.

72
Q

Domain Name System records

SOA

Start of Authority

A

Name of Primary Nameserver

The Start of Authority (SOA) record contains the name of the primary DNS server, which must correspond to an NS record in the file.

73
Q

What is the most common type of DSL Internet access?

  1. HDSL
  2. ADSL
  3. VDSL
  4. VDSL2
  5. SDSL
  6. SHDSL
A

ADSL

Asymmetric - Fast Down, Slow Up

Provides a faster speed from the Internet to the user than the query to the Internet. For example, a request to view a website is a tiny amount of data, but the returning Web pages and graphics are a huge amount of data by comparison.

74
Q

Which form of internet has better reliability?

Satellite or Terrestrial

Why?

A

Terrestrial

Terrestrial internet is more reliable than satellite internet because it’s not affected by environmental factors like space debris or weather.

75
Q

Which form of internet has better speed?

Satellite or Terrestrial

A

Terrestrial

Terrestrial internet is generally faster than satellite internet. For example, the highest maximum speed offered by a satellite ISP is 500 Mbps, while terrestrial ISPs can offer speeds of up to 5000 Mbps.

76
Q

Which form of internet has lower latency?

Satellite or Terrestrial

A

Terrestrial

Satellite internet has higher latency than terrestrial internet. This can be a factor in online gaming, where split-second decisions are important.

77
Q

Which form of internet has lower cost?

Satellite or Terrestrial

A

Terrestrial

Satellite internet is generally more expensive than terrestrial internet. Satellite internet costs can vary based on data allowance and internet speeds. Satellite internet services also require specific equipment, like a satellite dish and modem, which can be leased or purchased.

78
Q

Why might someone choose Satellite internet over Terrestrial internet?

A

Availability

Satellite internet can be the only option in rural areas where there isn’t the infrastructure for terrestrial internet.

79
Q

Fill in the Blanks

The original “integrated drive electronics” (IDE) technology that transferred data from the hard disk over a [BLANK] data channel to the motherboard. After [BLANK] drives were introduced, the [BLANK] term was coined to refer to the [BLANK] drives.

A
  1. Parallel
  2. SATA
  3. PATA
  4. Parallel

Although SATA drives also use integrated drive electronics, they are not referred to as IDE drives.

80
Q

What is the Data Transfer Rate of this SATA version?

1.0 (aka I)

81
Q

What is the Data Transfer Rate of this SATA version?

2.0 (aka II)

82
Q

What is the Data Transfer Rate of this SATA version?

3.0 (aka III)

83
Q

What is the Data Transfer Rate of this SATA version?

3.2 (aka Express)

In Gbps

84
Q

What differentiates SATA version 3.2 from version 3.3?

A

SMR (Shingled Magnetic Recording)

A hard disk recording method that overlaps the recording tracks to increase capacity up to approximately 25%. The tracks overlap each other in parallel like roof shingles; hence, the term. Seagate has been shipping SMR drives since 2013, and SATA 3.3 added support for SMR in 2016.

85
Q

What is the maximum number of devices that can be attached to a…

SCSI bus

A

16 Devices

86
Q

What is the maximum number of devices that can be attached to a…

SATA cable

87
Q

What is the maximum number of devices that can be attached to a…

PATA cable

A

4 Devices

2 with IDE, 4 with EIDE

88
Q

NetBIOS

A

The original networking protocol for DOS and Windows PCs.

NetBIOS packets did not contain a network address and were not easily routable between networks. As a result, the interface to NetBIOS and the transport part of NetBIOS were later separated so that NetBIOS applications could use routable protocols such as TCP/IP and SPX/IPX. The programming interface (API) retained the NetBIOS name, while the transport protocol was renamed NetBEUI.

89
Q

Which came first?

SATA or PATA

A

PATA

Originally just known as ATA (Advanced Technology Attachment), it wasn’t until the SATA standard was introduced that it became known as PATA.