1101 Book Test Qs Flashcards

1
Q

A coworker is having a problem with their laptop and has asked you to fix it. When an external keyboard is plugged in, the laptop works just fine, but without it strange characters appear on the screen when typing. Which of the following are likely causes? (Choose two.)

A. The driver is corrupted and needs to be updated/replaced.
B. The ribbon cable is partially disconnected and needs to be reseated.
C. The laptop needs to be replaced.
D. There is debris under the keys.

A

A. The driver is corrupted and needs to be updated/replaced.
B. The ribbon cable is partially disconnected and needs to be reseated.

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2
Q

You need to replace a failed hard drive in a user’s laptop, and it’s a model you are unfamiliar with. You look at the bottom of the laptop and see no obvious entrance points. Which component will you most likely need to remove to access the hard drive bay?

A. Plastics/frames
B. Battery
C. System board
D. Keyboard

A

D. Keyboard

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3
Q

One of your coworkers has purchased an external Bluetooth trackpad to use with their tablet. They’ve turned to you, the company IT person, to install and configure it for them. What actions will you need to take? (Choose two.)

A. Plug the device into a USB port.
B. Install drivers.
C. Put the device in Pairing mode and open Bluetooth settings on the tablet, then tap the trackpad.
D. Go to Settings to configure speed and scrolling features.

A

C. Put the device in Pairing mode and open Bluetooth settings on the tablet, then tap the trackpad.
D. Go to Settings to configure speed and scrolling features.

Bluetooth is wireless, so you wouldn’t need to plug it in to a USB port.

Drivers are usually installed automatically.

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4
Q

A user needs ports for external devices in addition to what their laptop is capable of connecting. The user would like these devices to have connectivity with each other whether or not the laptop is there. Which of the following will provide that option?

A. Docking station
B. Port replicator
C. KVM switch
D. Docking port

A

B. Port replicator

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5
Q

You will be traveling to another country for work and will have a 10-hour airplane flight. You need to work on your laptop while on the flight, but your battery won’t last that long. What should you buy to allow you to use the auxiliary power outlets on the airplane?

A. AC adapter
B. DC adapter
C. Power inverter
D. Docking station

A

B. DC adapter

Airplanes typically provide DC power outlets, and a DC adapter allows your laptop to use that power directly.

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6
Q

You have enabled the GPS service in your tablet. What is the minimum number of GPS satellites your tablet needs to be in contact with to determine its location?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

A

C. Three

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7
Q

What is the name of the OS used by the Apple Watch, which was designed specifically for the watch?

A. iOS
B. OSX mobile
C. watchOS
D. Tizen

A

C. watchOS

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8
Q

Your new laptop has 4 GB system RAM and an integrated video card. The default setting specifies 512 MB of video memory. How much RAM is available for the processor to use?

A. 4 GB.
B. 3.5 GB.
C. 3 GB.
D. It’s variable.

A

B. 3.5 GB.

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9
Q

You are upgrading a laptop with a Mini PCIe card. What type of connector does Mini PCle use?

A. 52-pin
B. 68-pin
C. 144-pin
D. 200-pin

A

A. 52-pin

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10
Q

What is the likely type of Wi-Fi antenna connector you will find as an external connector on a laptop?

A. SMA-female-RP
B. N-male
C. SMA-male-RP
D. N-female

A

A. SMA-female-RP

Reverse Polarity SubMiniature version A, female

The most likely type of Wi-Fi antenna connector on a laptop is SMA-female-RP, because:
* It is standard for external Wi-Fi antennas
* It prevents compatibility with standard RF SMA connectors
* It is used in consumer Wi-Fi adapters, routers, and laptops with external antennas

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11
Q

What type of update is done to mobile devices over the air?

A. PRI and PRL
B. IMEI
C. Screen resolution
D. IMSI

A

A. PRI and PRL

PRI stands for Product Release Instructions and contains radio settings, like ID numbers, network codes, and country codes, that allow a phone to connect to the correct mobile provider’s network.

A Preferred Roaming List (PRL) is a database in a CDMA device that contains information used during system selection and acquisition, prioritizing networks for roaming based on agreements between carriers.

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12
Q

Which number that is a part of the GSM system is hard-coded into the phone and identifies your physical phone hardware to the cellular tower?

A. PRI
B. IMSI
C. IMEI
D. MAC

A

C. IMEI

GSM = Global System for Mobile Communications

An IMEI (International Mobile Equipment Identity) is a unique 15-digit serial number assigned to each mobile phone, used to identify and track devices, particularly for security purposes like blocking stolen phones from networks.

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13
Q

Which unique mobile number identifies you as a user and is coded into the SIM card if you’re on a GSM network, or otherwise linked to your account, allowing you to transition from one phone to another?

A. PRI
B. IMSI
C. IMEI
D. MAC

A

B. IMSI

GSM = Global System for Mobile Communications

IMSI stands for International Mobile Subscriber Identity, a unique 15-digit number that identifies a mobile phone subscriber within a mobile network. It’s stored on the SIM card and used for authentication and identification during network registration.

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14
Q

What Windows app is used to synchronize data between a user’s mobile devices like phones and their desktop computers?

A. MSync
B. ActiveSync
C. SyncTime
D. Timewarp

A

B. ActiveSync

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15
Q

What technology lets you minimize how often a user must log in for multiple services?

A. SSO
B. SMTP
C. Synchronization
D. Nonrepudiation

A

A. SSO

Single Sign-On

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16
Q

You’re at home binging on a popular Internet movie service and suddenly notice that the spinning wheel is showing up often, taking more time to download the movie than normal. What is likely the problem?

A. Your router needs to be reset.
B. You have reached your data cap.
C. Your laptop is overheating.
D. The service is overwhelmed with requests.

A

B. You have reached your data cap.

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17
Q

Which cellular communication technology is known as Long-Term Evolution (LTE)?

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
D. 5G

A

B. 3G

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18
Q

Tech support has recommended that you update the OS on your iPad to resolve a problem you’re having with it. What OS will you be updating?

A. iPadOS
B. watchOS
C. iOS
D. OS X mobile

A

A. iPadOS

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19
Q

The Wi-fi connection between your laptop and network has failed. Upon examining Device Manager you notice that the network card is not listed. You’ve reseated the card and it still isn’t found in Device Manager, so you’ve decided to replace it. Which of the following card types will you likely need to purchase?

A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. M.2
D. PCMCIA

A

C. M.2

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20
Q

You are using your laptop on the company network. In your web browser, you type www.google.com and press Enter. The computer will not find Google. You open the browser on your phone, and using your cellular connection, you can open Google without a problem. Your laptop finds internal servers and can print without any issues. What is the most likely reason you can’t open Google?

A. DNS server problem
B. DHCP server problem
C. Missing subnet mask
D. Duplicate IP address

A

A. DNS server problem

Companies tend to use their own private DNS servers for security and performance. Your laptop is using the company network, and therefore, the company DNS server. If there was a problem with the company’s DNS server, your laptop would be unable to access the internet using domain names, but your phone (using a cellular connection which wouldn’t connect to the company’s DNS server) would have no problems.

If the DHCP server were down, you likely wouldn’t have an IP address, subnet mask, or gateway, meaning you wouldn’t be able to access anything on the network. Since you can access internal resources, DHCP is not the issue.

A missing or incorrect subnet mask would prevent communication with other network segments. Since you can access internal resources, your subnet mask is properly configured.

If you had a duplicate IP, you would likely experience network conflicts, random disconnections, or no connectivity at all. Since you can access internal resources but not external ones, an IP conflict is unlikely.

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21
Q

Which of the following network connectivity devices operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Cable
D. Router

A

B. Switch

A network hub operates at Layer 1 (the Physical Layer) of the OSI model, simply transmitting data received at one port to all other ports without any intelligence or filtering.

Cables, as physical transmission mediums for data, belong to the Physical Layer (Layer 1) of the OSI model.

In the OSI model, routers operate at Layer 3, the Network Layer, facilitating communication between different networks by using IP addresses to route data packets.

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22
Q

Which TCP/IP protocol is used to provide shared access to files and printers on the network?

A. FTP
B. SSH
C. SMB
D. SMTP

A

C. SMB

Server Message Block

SMB is a network protocol used for sharing files, printers, and other resources between computers on a network. It’s a client-server protocol where clients request services and servers respond.

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23
Q

What port does the Telnet protocol use?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25

A

C. 23

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24
Q

What port does the SSH protocol use?

A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25

A

B. 22

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25
Q

Which network connectivity device does not forward broadcast messages, thereby creating multiple broadcast domains?

A. Bridge
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Router

A

D. Router

A broadcast message is a data packet sent to all devices on a network (or a specific network segment).

Routers are designed to route traffic between different networks and do not forward broadcast messages. A broadcast message sent on one network segment does not get forwarded to another segment by a router, which effectively creates separate broadcast domains. By separating broadcast domains, routers help reduce unnecessary network traffic and prevent broadcasts from impacting other parts of the network.

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26
Q

Your company just expanded and is leasing additional space in an adjacent office building. You need to extend the network to the new building. Fortunately, there is a conduit between the two. You estimate that the cable you need to run will be about 300 meters long. What type of cable should you use?

A. CAT-5e
B. CAT-7
C. CAT-8
D. MMF

A

D. MMF

Multimode Fiber

For Ethernet networking, MMF supports up to 550 meters at 1 Gbps or 300–400 meters at 10 Gbps.

CAT-5e, CAT-7, and CAT-8 Ethernet cables have distance limitations well below 300 meters.

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27
Q

Which networking device is capable of reading IP addresses and forwarding packets based on the destination IP address?

A. Hub
B. Switch
C. NIC
D. Router

A

D. Router

A router is a device that connects two or more packet-switched networks or subnetworks. It serves two primary functions: managing traffic between these networks by forwarding data packets to their intended IP addresses, and allowing multiple devices to use the same Internet connection.

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28
Q

When troubleshooting a network connectivity issue, you discover that the local computer has an IPv4 address of 169.254.2.2. What do you immediately know about this local computer?

A. It is working fine.
B. It has an invalid IP address.
C. It can’t find a DHCP server.
D. It Isn’t on the network.

A

C. It can’t find a DHCP server.

The IP address 169.254.2.2 falls within the APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) range, which is 169.254.0.0 to 169.254.255.255.

APIPA addresses are automatically assigned by Windows and other operating systems when a computer fails to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.

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29
Q

What port is associated with the LDAP protocol?

A. 22
B. 139
C. 389
D. 3389

A

C. 389

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30
Q

You are configuring network hosts with static IP addresses. You have chosen to use a Class B network address. What is the default subnet mask that you should configure on the hosts?

A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.255

A

B. 255.255.0.0

The default subnet mask for Class B networks is 255.255.0.0, or written in shorthand, /16. The default subnet mask for Class A networks is 255.0.0.0, or written in shorthand, /8. For Class C it is 255.255.255.0, or written in shorthand, /24. 255.255.255.255 is an IPv4 broadcast address. As a subnet mask it is represented as /32 (in shorthand) in the classless interdomain routing (CIDR) notation.

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31
Q

Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 445?

A. FTP
B. SSH
C. SMB
D. SNMP

A

C. SMB

Server Message Block

A network communication protocol that enables shared access to files, printers, and other resources on a network.

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32
Q

For IPv6, which of the following statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Each IPv6 interface can have only one address.
B. Each IPv6 interface is required to have a link-local address.
C. IPv6 addresses are incompatible with IPv4 networks.
D. IPv6 does not use broadcasts.

A

B. Each IPv6 interface is required to have a link-local address.
1. In IPv6, every network interface must have a link-local address, which is used for local network communication.
2. Link-local addresses start with FE80::/10 and are automatically assigned, even if no other IPv6 address is configured.
3. These addresses are not routable beyond the local network segment.

D. IPv6 does not use broadcasts.
1. Unlike IPv4, which relies heavily on broadcasts (e.g., ARP requests), IPv6 eliminates broadcasts to reduce unnecessary network traffic.
2. Instead, IPv6 uses multicast and anycast for more efficient communication.
3. For example, Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) replaces ARP using multicast rather than broadcast.

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33
Q

Which network connectivity device is seldom used in modern networks, except to extend a network?

A. Hub
B. Router
C. Bridge
D. Switch

A

A. Hub

A Hub does not filter traffic or create separate collision domains, unlike a Switch, making it inefficient for modern networks. This leads to high collision rates, especially as the number of connected devices increases. As a result, switches have replaced hubs in most networks.

Hubs may still be used in niche scenarios, such as:
* Temporarily extending a network when no switch is available.
* Network monitoring (via packet sniffing), since hubs forward all traffic to all ports.
* Legacy equipment compatibility, where old devices still require hub-based connectivity.

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34
Q

There is a TCP/IP protocol that should only be used locally because it has virtually no security. It may be used as a part of a preboot execution environment (PXE) or with thin clients booting from a network drive. It uses very little memory and is good for transferring boot files or configuration data between computers on a LAN, and it is connectionless. Which file transfer protocol is this?

A. TFTP
B. FTP
C. FTPS
D. SMTP

A

A. TFTP

Trivial File Transfer Protocol

B. FTP (File Transfer Protocol)
Requires authentication and runs over TCP (port 21).
More robust than TFTP but not used for PXE or thin clients.

C. FTPS (FTP Secure)
Uses encryption (SSL/TLS) for secure file transfers.
Not lightweight and not used for PXE or basic LAN file transfers.

D. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)
Used for sending emails, not file transfers.
Runs over TCP port 25, 465, or 587, making it completely irrelevant to PXE or LAN-based file transfers.

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35
Q

Which networking device has multiple ports, each of which is its own collision domain, and examines the header of the incoming packet to determine which port the packet gets sent to?

A. Hub
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router

A

C. Switch

Multiple Collision Domains: Each port on a switch creates a separate collision domain, reducing network congestion. Unlike hubs, which share a single collision domain, switches allow full-duplex communication between devices.

Packet Header Examination: A switch examines the Ethernet frame’s MAC address to determine where to forward the packet. It uses a MAC address table (also called a CAM table) to efficiently route packets only to the intended recipient.

Traffic Efficiency: Switches eliminate unnecessary traffic by forwarding packets only to the correct port instead of broadcasting to all devices.

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36
Q

What marks the boundary of an IPv4 broadcast domain?

A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Modem

A

C. Router

An IPv4 broadcast domain consists of all devices that can receive a broadcast message sent to the network’s broadcast address. Routers do not forward broadcast traffic from one network segment to another, effectively marking the boundary of a broadcast domain. This helps contain network congestion, as excessive broadcasts can degrade performance in larger networks.

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37
Q

You are installing an 802.11n Wi-Fi network with five wireless access points. The access points are set up so their ranges overlap each other. To avoid communications issues, what principle should you follow when configuring them?

A. Configure all access points to use the same channel.
B. Configure all access points to use adjacent channels.
C. Configure all access points to use nonoverlapping channels.
D. Channel configuration will not cause communications issues.

A

C. Configure all access points to use nonoverlapping channels.

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38
Q

You have been asked to install a Wi-Fi network in a building that is approximately 100 meters long and 25 meters wide. Because of cost considerations, you will be using 802.11ac. At a minimum, how many wireless access points will you need?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Six

A

B. Three

802.11ac operates primarily on the 5 GHz band and a single access point (AP) on 5 GHz typically covers around 30 meters indoors, depending on obstacles like walls, floors, and interference.

The building is 100 meters long, meaning a single 5 GHz AP cannot cover the entire length. Three APs, evenly spaced every ~33 meters, would provide proper coverage while ensuring sufficient overlap for seamless connectivity. The 25-meter width is manageable with one AP per segment, assuming minimal interference.

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39
Q

You are configuring a wireless 802.11ax router. The office manager insists that you configure the router such that traffic from her computer receives higher priority on the network than other users’ traffic. Which setting do you need to configure to enable this?

A. QoS
B. UPnP
C. Screened subnet
D. Port forwarding

A

A. QoS

QoS (Quality of Service) refers to a set of technologies and mechanisms used to manage and prioritize network traffic, ensuring critical applications and services receive preferential treatment to optimize performance and reliability.

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40
Q

Your network is currently running a mix of 802.11b and 802.11g devices. At the end of the year, you have extra budget to upgrade some, but not all, of the wireless infrastructure. You want to upgrade to the newest technology possible but still maintain backward compatibility. Which standard should you choose?

A. 802.11g
B. 802.11ac
C. 802.11ax
D. 802.11r

A

C. 802.11ax

802.11b and 802.11g both only use 2.4 GHz. 802.11ax is the newest option that supports 2.4 GHz.

802.11g isn’t the newest tech.
802.11ac only uses 5 GHz, not 2.4 GHz.
802.11r is a roaming standard, not a Wi-Fi generation.

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41
Q

Which of the following shorthand notations corresponds to the CIDR subnet mask 255.255.224.0?

A. /19
B. /20
C. /21
D. /22

A

A. /19

To find the subnet mask number, convert the decimal representation of the subnet mask to a binary representation and then count each “1” in the subnet mask. The total is the subnet mask number.

255.255.224.0 in binary is 11111111.11111111.11100000.00000000
8 + 8 + 3 + 0 = 19

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42
Q

You are configuring hosts on a network running IPv4. Which elements are required for the computer to connect to the network?

A. IP address
B. IP address and subnet mask
C. IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway
D. IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server address

A

B. IP address and subnet mask

The IP Address uniquely identifies the device on the network. The Subnet Mask defines which portion of the IP address represents the network and which part represents the host. This allows the computer to determine if another device is on the same subnet.

A. IP address
Incorrect because, without a subnet mask, the device wouldn’t know which network it belongs to or how to reach other local devices.

C. IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway
Not required for local communication. A default gateway is needed only when communicating outside the local network (e.g., accessing the internet or another subnet).

D. IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server address
Incorrect because a DNS server is not required to connect to the local network. DNS is only needed to resolve domain names (e.g., google.com) to IP addresses for internet browsing.

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43
Q

You work at a tech support company and a customer called reporting that they received an error, something about a duplicate IP address. Why are they getting this message? (Choose two.)

A. All hosts on a network must have a unique IP address.
B. A PC is manually configured with an IP that is in the DHCP scope.
C. A PC is manually configured with an IP that is not in the DHCP scope.
D. None of the PCs have been manually configured.

A

A. All hosts on a network must have a unique IP address.
B. A PC is manually configured with an IP that is in the DHCP scope.

A DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) scope is a range of IP addresses that a DHCP server is configured to lease to client devices on a network, enabling automatic IP address assignment and other network configuration parameters.

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44
Q

Which obsolete Wi-Fi encryption standard uses a static key, which is commonly 10, 26, or 58 characters long?

A. WPA3
B. WPA2
C. TKIP
D. WEP

A

D. WEP

WEP stands for Wired Equivalent Privacy, a security protocol for wireless networks that was part of the original IEEE 802.11 standard, aiming to provide a level of security comparable to wired networks.

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45
Q

Because of a recent security breach, your IT team shut down several ports on the external firewall. Now, users can’t get to websites by using their URLs, but they can get there by using IP addresses. What port(s) does the IT team need to open back up to enable Internet access via URLs?

A. 20/21
B. 53
C. 67/68
D. 80

A

B. 53

Port 53 is DNS (Domain Name System)

DNS translates domain names (google.com) into IP addresses.

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46
Q

Which of the following features does not require a managed network switch?

A. Priority of traffic
B. VLAN configuration
C. Port mirroring
D. Direct packets out the proper port

A

D. Direct packets out the proper port

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47
Q

Which of the following protocols uses port 137 and 139?

A. DNS
B. SSH
C. SMB
D. NetBT

A

D. NetBT

NetBT, or NetBIOS over TCP/IP, is a network protocol that allows legacy applications using the NetBIOS API to communicate on modern TCP/IP networks. It’s essential for integrating older systems and applications that rely on NetBIOS with current TCP/IP networks.

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48
Q

When setting up a small office, home office (SOHO) network, how do the end-user devices know what IP address they need to use to connect with the network?

A. The network switch broadcasts configuration settings.
B. Devices utilize service location protocol.
C. The NIC is set with a static address or DHCP-served.
D. End users configure IP addresses as needed.

A

C. The NIC is set with a static address or DHCP-served.

A. The network switch broadcasts configuration settings.
Incorrect because switches operate at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) and do not assign IP addresses. They only manage network traffic based on MAC addresses.

B. Devices utilize Service Location Protocol (SLP).
Incorrect because SLP is used for service discovery (e.g., finding printers or shared resources) but not for IP address assignment.

D. End users configure IP addresses as needed.
Incorrect because, while possible, most home and small office networks rely on DHCP to automatically assign IP addresses, rather than requiring users to manually set them.

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49
Q

What Is the most likely way for a homeowner’s IoT devices to connect to their wireless network?

A. DNS
B. AD
C. SSO
D. DHCP

A

D. DHCP

DHCP = Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

DHCP automatically assigns IP addresses to devices on a network, so homeowners don’t have to manually configure network settings for each IoT device.

A. DNS (Domain Name System) – Translates domain names (e.g., google.com) into IP addresses. While important for internet browsing, it does not manage device connections to a wireless network.

B. AD (Active Directory) – A Microsoft enterprise-level directory service used for managing users and devices in large organizations. Homeowners don’t typically use AD for IoT devices.

C. SSO (Single Sign-On) – A method for user authentication, allowing access to multiple services with one login. While SSO can be used for cloud-based IoT platforms, it is not related to how devices connect to a wireless network.

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50
Q

What is the primary difference between an IDS and an IPS?

A. IDS works both on a host and a network.
B. IDS will not actively alert on suspect activity.
C. IPS works in pairs.
D. IPS will actively react to suspect activity.

A

D. IPS will actively react to suspect activity.

An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitors network traffic for malicious activity and alerts administrators, while an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) actively blocks detected threats, acting as a more proactive security measure.

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51
Q

Managing security on your growing network has become difficult, so you ask your peers what they are doing to manage their networks. They recommend a device that will allow you to manage your security in one place. What have they recommended?

A. IDS
B. IPS
C. UTM
D. UTP

A

C. UTM

A UTM (Unified Threat Management) appliance combines multiple security functions (like firewall, antivirus, and VPN) into a single device for network protection.

A. IDS (Intrusion Detection System) – Detects threats but does not actively block them or manage network security in a centralized way.

B. IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) – Can block threats, but it is focused only on intrusion prevention, not overall security management.

D. UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) – This refers to a type of network cabling, which is completely unrelated to security management.

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52
Q

A switch is overheating, and the SNMP agent is sending an SNMP trap to an SNMP manager. Which of the following are true? (Choose two.)

A. It is a managed switch.
B. It is an unmanaged switch.
C. It is communicating on port 161.
D. It is communicating on port 162.

A

A. It is a managed switch.
D. It is communicating on port 162.

A Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) trap is unrequested information being sent from an SNMP agent, in this case running on a managed switch. SNMP traps are sent via port 162.

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53
Q

One of your network users must work remotely from their office on an extremely confidential project. Their team is concerned about security so they call you, the IT department head, to see what can be done. What will you set up between this network user and the company server so that the communications are secure?

A. VPN
B. SDN
C. VLAN
D. SRAM

A

A. VPN

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54
Q

Which of the following components is not typically found in a wireless LAN (WLAN)?

A. WLAN router
B. WLAN gateway
C. WLAN server
D. WLAN client

A

C. WLAN server

A. WLAN router – Essential for a WLAN; it connects wireless devices to the network and manages traffic.

B. WLAN gateway – A device that connects a WLAN to another network, such as the internet. This could be part of a router or a separate device.

D. WLAN client – Any device that connects to a WLAN (e.g., laptops, smartphones, tablets). Clients are essential components of a WLAN.

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55
Q

You need to configure dynamic IP addressing on your network to cut down IP management time. How will you do this? (Choose two.)

A. Enable DHCP settings on the router.
B. Configure each NIC to a specific IP address.
C. Configure each NIC to obtain an IP address automatically.
D. Configure each NIC to obtain DNS server addresses automatically.

A

A. Enable DHCP settings on the router.
C. Configure each NIC to obtain an IP address automatically.

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56
Q

Your network admin needs to add a computer to an IPv6 subnet. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is on the same subnet as 2601:0:0:0f:1a:308c:2acb:fee2?

A. 2601::0f:308c:47:4321
B. 2601::0f:ab:cd:123:4a
C. fe80:ab:bc:0f:1a:308c:2abc:fee5
D. 2601:0:0:0x::2acb:ac01

A

B. 2601::0f:ab:cd:123:4a

IPv6 addresses that share the same first 4 hextets are on the same subnet.

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57
Q

Dylan is troubleshooting his IPv4 network. The network’s subnet mask is 255.255.192.0. Which of the following IP addresses is not on the same network as the others?

A. 130.200.65.5
B. 130.200.130.1
C. 130.200.100.4
D. 130.200.125.5

A

B. 130.200.130.1

255.255.192.0 = 11111111.11111111.11000000.00000000
The third octet has two 1s, which means the network is broken into four subnets (00, 01, 10, and 11)(2^x where x = the number of 1s.) 00000000 = 0, 01000000 = 64, 10000000 = 128, and 11000000 = 192.
IP addresses within each range would be 0 to 63, 64 to 127, 128 to 191, and 192 to 255. The first and last IP in each range would not be used because they would represent the subnet itself and the broadcast numbers.

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58
Q

Which of the following is true of an ONT? (Choose two.)

A. It stands for optical network terminator.
B. It converts fiber-optic light signals to electrical (Ethernet) signals.
C. It is user installed.
D. It requires external power to work properly.

A

B. It converts fiber-optic light signals to electrical (Ethernet) signals.
D. It requires external power to work properly.

An Optical Network Terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa.

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59
Q

What is the host number in an IP address of 192.168.2.200 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0?

A. 192.168
B. 192.168.2
C. 2.200
D. 200

A

D. 200

When an IP address and subnet mask are converted to the binary numbers that the computer sees, wherever there is a 1 in the subnet mask, that tells the computer that the corresponding bit in the IP address is part of the network number. Wherever there is a 0 in the subnet mask, the corresponding bit in the IP address is part of the host number. The address in the question, 192.168.2.200/24, is a Class C private address, where, in the subnet mask, the first three octets (24 bits) are all 1s, and the last octet (8 bits) are 0s. So, the first three decimal numbers of the IP address, which is expressed in dotted decimal notation, are the network number, (192.168.2) and the last octet (.200) is the host (individual computer) address. Network numbers will always go from left to right with no breaks between.

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60
Q

What is the interface ID of the IP address 2001::1a3:f1a:308:833?

A. 2001:0:0:0:
B. 2001
C. 1a3:f1a:308:833
D. 833

A

C. 1a3:f1a:308:833

The last four groups in an IPv6 address are the interface ID. The interface ID is therefore 1a3:f1a:308:833.

The first three sections identify the network, and the fourth identifies the subnet. In this example, 2001:0:0 is the site prefix and 0 is the subnet ID. IPv6 addresses do not need a subnet mask like IPv4 addresses do.

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61
Q

What two terms are used to identify an Internet provider that may connect to the Internet using T1 or T3 lines, or fiber optic, for example, and uses point-to-point millimeter-wave or microwave links between its towers for its backbone or to extend its service area, and point-to-multipoint wireless to provide Internet access to its customers?

A. WISP
B. ISP
C. Long-range fixed wireless
D. Demarcation point

A

A. WISP
C. Long-range fixed wireless

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62
Q

Of the following fiber connectors, which are used for duplex (two strands instead of one)? (Choose two.)

A. ST
B. SC
C. FC
D. LC

A

B. SC
D. LC

ST = Straight Tip
SC = Square Connector or Standard Connector
FC = Ferrule Connector or Fiber Channel
LC = Lucent Connector

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63
Q

What twisted pair connectors are commonly used with telephone wire?

A. RJ-45
B. RJ-11
C. FC
D. Coaxial

A

B. RJ-11

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64
Q

You need to install a memory upgrade in a laptop computer. The computer’s documentation says that the laptop uses DDR4 SODIMMs. How many pins will be on the SODIMM?

A. 262
B. 200
C. 204
D. 260

A

D. 260

DDR1 has 200 pins
DDR2 has 200 pins
DDR3 has 204 pins
DDR4 has 260 pins
DDR5 has 262 pins

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65
Q

Which laptop expansion port was designed as an industry standard to replace VGA and DVI ports and is backward compatible with both standards?

A. DisplayPort
B. VideoPort
C. Thunderbolt
D. HDMI

A

A. DisplayPort

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66
Q

You have a MacBook Pro computer with a Thunderbolt 4 port. What is the maximum throughput of a device plugged into this port?

A. 5 Gbps
B. 10 Gbps
C. 20 Gbps
D. 40 Gbps

A

D. 40 Gbps

Thunderbolt 1: 2 channels, 10 Gbps each (20 Gbit/s in total)
Thunderbolt 2: 20 Gbps in total
Thunderbolt 3: 40 Gbps bidirectional
Thunderbolt 4: 40 Gbps bidirectional
Thunderbolt 5: 80 Gbps bidirectional

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67
Q

Which motherboard form factor measures 4.7” x 4.7”?

A. Mini-ITX
B. Nano-ITX
C. Pico-ITX
D. Mobile-ITX

A

B. Nano-ITX

Mini > Nano > Pico > Mobile

Mini-ITX = 6.7 x 6.7 inches (17 x 17 cm)
Nano-ITX = 4.7 × 4.7 in (12 × 12 cm)
Pico-ITX = 3.9 × 2.8 in (10 × 7.2 cm)
Mobile-ITX = 2.4 x 2.4 inches (6 x 6 cm)

68
Q

You need to share printers on your network with multiple client operating systems, such as Windows, macOS, and Linux. Which of the following services will best meet your needs?

A. Bonjour
B. AirPrint
C. TCP printing
D. Virtual printing

A

C. TCP printing

TCP printing is a universal printing protocol that works across multiple operating systems, including Windows, macOS, and Linux.

Bonjour and AirPrint are only supported by macOS and iOS, not Windows or Linux.

Virtual printing refers to software-based printing like printing to PDF.

69
Q

Which one of the following connector types are you most likely to find on the end of a Cat 6a cable?

A. RJ-11
B. RJ-45
C. BNC
D. SATA

70
Q

You are working on repairing a defective laser printer. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the imaging drum in a laser printer?

A. It can hold a high negative charge only when it’s not exposed to light.
B. It can hold a high negative charge only when it’s exposed to light.
C. It can hold a high negative charge regardless of light exposure.
D. It is not required to hold a charge.

A

A. It can hold a high negative charge only when it’s not exposed to light.

71
Q

What hardware device is used to store encryption keys, making them safer because they are never directly loaded into a server’s memory?

A. HSM
B. BIOS
C. ITX
D. TPM

A

A. HSM

An HSM (Hardware Security Module) is a tamper-resistant hardware device that securely stores and manages cryptographic keys, ensuring the protection of sensitive data and facilitating secure cryptographic operations.

72
Q

What protocol is often used when scanning documents from a large multifunction device and sending them to the corporate server?

A. TPM
B. HSM
C. SNMP
D. SMB

A

D. SMB

SMB stands for Server Message Block, a network file sharing and data fabric protocol used for accessing files, directories, printers, and other resources on a network.

73
Q

Which of the following connectors transmit analog signals? (Choose two.)

A. VGA
B. RJ-45
C. RJ-11
D. HDMI

A

A. VGA
C. RJ-11

VGA (Video Graphics Array) is an analog video interface.
RJ-11 connectors transmit analog data, specifically for voice signals and sometimes for data signals over telephone lines.

74
Q

You need to replace the magnetic hard drive in your manager’s laptop. They want a high-speed, high-capacity drive. What are the most common issues associated with their request? (Choose two.)

A. Increased battery usage
B. Increased heat production
C. Decreased component life span
D. Decreased space for other peripherals

A

A. Increased battery usage
B. Increased heat production

75
Q

A designer from the corporate office is visiting your field office. The user tries to print from their MacBook Pro to a networked printer, but it does not work. Local users in the office are able to print to the device using their Windows computers. What would most likely solve the problem?

A. Select the Enable Mac Printing option in the print server configuration settings.
B. Select the Enable Bonjour option in the print server configuration settings.
C. Install a macOS printer driver on the print server.
D. Stop and restart the print spooler service.

A

C. Install a macOS printer driver on the print server.

76
Q

You need to perform preventive maintenance on an impact printer. What are two areas you should examine that you would not need to on most inkjet printers? (Choose two.)

A. Ink cartridges
B. Output tray
C. Printhead
D. Tractor feed mechanism

A

C. Printhead
D. Tractor feed mechanism

77
Q

Which expansion bus technology uses lanes, which are switched point-to-point signal paths between two components?

A. PCI
B. PCI-X
C. PCIe
D. Mini-PCI

78
Q

Your motherboard has 3 PCle x16 v 4.0 slots and the motherboard does not support up-plugging for PCle adapter cards. Which of the following statements is true?

A. You can’t put an x8 card into an x16 slot.
B. You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, but it will run at x1 speed.
C. You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, and it will run at x8 speed.
D. You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, and it will run at x16 speed.

A

B. You can put an x8 card into an x16 slot, but it will run at x1 speed.

79
Q

You need to configure Hyper-V on one of your windows-based desktop computers with an Intel processor. Which of the following must be true? (Choose three.)

A. The CPU must have SLAT.
B. The CPU must have Intel VR.
C. The processor must be 64-bit
D. You need to enable virtualization in the BIOS/UEFI.

A

A. The CPU must have SLAT.
C. The processor must be 64-bit
D. You need to enable virtualization in the BIOS/UEFI.

SLAT (Second Level Address Translation) is a hardware feature required for efficient virtualization. For Intel processors, this feature is referred to as Intel VT-x with EPT (Extended Page Tables). SLAT is essential for Hyper-V to function properly and provide better performance for virtual machines.

Hyper-V requires a 64-bit processor for running virtual machines. The underlying architecture must be capable of handling the larger address spaces and the complexity of virtualization.

Virtualization technology (Intel VT-x for Intel processors) is often disabled by default in the BIOS/UEFI. In order to use Hyper-V, you must enable virtualization in the BIOS or UEFI settings.

80
Q

In the laser printer imaging process, which step immediately follows the exposing step?

A. Charging
B. Fusing
C. Developing
D. Transferring

A

C. Developing

81
Q

In a laser printer, what is the function of the transfer corona assembly?

A. It transfers a positive charge to the paper.
B. It transfers a positive charge to the imaging drum.
C. It transfers the toner from the imaging drum to the paper.
D. It transfers the image from the laser to the imaging drum.

A

A. It transfers a positive charge to the paper.

82
Q

A technician has installed a printer driver on a Windows client computer. What is the best next step the technician can take to ensure that the printer is installed properly?

A. Ping the printer’s IP address.
B. Check the printer status and ensure that it says “ Ready.”
C. Stop and restart the spooler service.
D. Print a test page.

A

D. Print a test page.

83
Q

Which component within a laser printer converts AC current into usable energy for the charging corona and transfer corona?

A. LVPS
B. HVPS
C. ACPS
D. Transfer Corona Assembly

A

B. HVPS

The HVPS (High Voltage Power Supply) is the component that converts AC current into high voltage DC, which is used by the charging corona and the transfer corona.

The LVPS (Low Voltage Power Supply) provides low-voltage DC power to the printer’s logic circuits, motors, and other components that require low voltage, but not the high voltage needed by the charging and transfer corona.

The ACPS (AC Power Supply) isn’t a component in a laser printer

The Transfer Corona Assembly is the actual part of the printer that applies the high voltage to the paper during the transfer process, but it is not responsible for converting AC current into usable energy.

84
Q

You have been asked to purchase new RAM for three workstations. The workstations call for DDR4 3600 chips. What throughput will these modules support?

A. 450 Mbps
B. 1,800 Mbps
C. 3,600 Mbps
D. 28,800 Mbps

A

D. 28,800 Mbps

The number designation of 3600 in DDR4 3600 indicates bus speed of 3,600 MHz. To find the throughput, multiply the bus speed by 8. DDR4 3600 therefore is the same as PC4 28,800 with a peak transfer rate of 28,800 Mbps. (3,600,000 cycles per second x 8 = 28,800,000 bits per second. Divide by 1000 to get Mbps = 28,800).

85
Q

A technician needs to purchase new RAM for a motherboard. The motherboard specifications call for 5,200 MHz DDR5 RAM. Which RAM modules should the technician use?

A. PC 5200
B. PC 41600
C. PC5 41600
D. PC5 5200

A

C. PC5 41600

Multiply the 5,200 bus speed by 8 to get the bits per second that can be transferred in and out of the RAM module. The PC5 designation means that it is DDR5, and the 41,600 means that it can (theoretically) transfer 41,600 Mbps (megabits per second).

86
Q

You notice that a fan on a power supply has stopped turning and you will need to replace it. Which of the following statements best describes the function of a typical power supply fan?

A. It cools the power supply by blowing in air from outside the case.
B. It cools the power supply by blowing hot air out the back of the power supply.
C. It cools the computer by blowing in air from outside the case, through the power supply, and into the computer.
D. It cools the computer by pulling hot air from inside the case, through the power supply, and blowing it out the back of the power supply, which in turn draws cooler air in through vents in the case.

A

D. It cools the computer by pulling hot air from inside the case, through the power supply, and blowing it out the back of the power supply, which in turn draws cooler air in through vents in the case.

87
Q

What is the maximum data rate for a USB 3.0 connection?

A. 12 Mbps
B. 480 Mbps
C. 5 Gbps
D. 10 Gbps

88
Q

Which of the following optical disk standards provides the highest capacity?

A. DVD-R SS,SL
B. DVD-R DS,SL
C. DVD-R SS,DL
D. DVD-R SS,TL

A

B. DVD-R DS,SL

All are digital video disk (DVD) technologies. A single-sided, single-layer (SS,SL) DVD provides about 4.7 GB of storage. A dual-sided (DS) disk will double that capacity to 9.4 GB. Adding a second layer, or dual-layer (DL), adds more capacity, but the technology does not double the capacity of a single layer. A single-sided, dual-layer (SS, DL) disk has capacity of about 8.5 GB. There is no DVD-R SS, TL, but a DVD+R DS, DL holds nearly 17 GB of data. The -R refers to the encoding scheme. There is also a +R format. There are also number designations to identify how many sides and layers a DVD has. DVD-9 is single side, dual layer. DVD-10 is dual side, single layer. DVD-18 is dual side, dual layer.

89
Q

You are discussing data storage needs with a client who is a videographer and media producer. They need to store dozens of large files and need immediate access to them for editing. What is the most appropriate storage technology for them to use?

A. NAS
B. SSD
C. SD
D. BD-R

90
Q

A technician needs to perform maintenance on an inkjet’s dirty paper pickup rollers. What should they use to clean them?

A. Rubbing alcohol
B. Mild soap and water
C. A dry, lint-free cloth
D. Compressed air

A

B. Mild soap and water

91
Q

Your manager is excited because they just purchased a fast USB 3.2 Gen 2x2 external hard drive for their work team. They want to set it in the middle of the cubicles and let everyone have access to it. Some of the cubicles are about 15 feet away from each other. What is the recommended maximum cable length for this type of device?

A. 3 meters
B. 5 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 15 meters

A

A. 3 meters

92
Q

You have a desktop computer with three PCI expansion slots. What will happen when you mix cards of different speeds on the same motherboard?

A. The cards will operate at their original speeds.
B. None of the cards will function.
C. The cards will all operate at the faster speed.
D. The cards will all operate at the slower speed.

A

D. The cards will all operate at the slower speed.

93
Q

Which of the following statements accurately explains what happens during the exposing step in the laser printer imaging process?

A. A laser reduces areas of the drum from a strong negative charge to a slight positive charge.
B. A laser reduces areas of the drum from a strong negative charge to a slight negative charge.
C. A laser increases areas of the drum from a slight negative charge to a strong negative charge.
D. A laser increases areas of the drum from a slight positive charge to a strong positive charge.

A

B. A laser reduces areas of the drum from a strong negative charge to a slight negative charge.

94
Q

Which component in a laser printer is responsible for converting AC current into usable energy for the logic circuitry and motors? (Choose two.)

A. LVPS
B. HVPS
C. DCPS
D. ACPS

A

A. LVPS
C. DCPS

LVPS (Low Voltage Power Supply) and DCPS (Direct Current Power Supply) convert AC power into DC power that is used to supply the logic circuitry, motors, and other components in the printer.

HVPS (High Voltage Power Supply) supplies high voltage to the laser printer’s imaging drum, transfer corona, and fusing unit.

ACPS (AC Power Supply) is not a component in a laser printer.

95
Q

The Acme company has a laser printer in its Chicago office that has been used for three months. A technician needs to ship the printer to the Detroit office for use there. What, if any, preparations should be made for the toner cartridge?

A. No preparations are needed for the toner cartridge before shipping.
B. Insert a toner blocker into the toner cartridge before shipping.
C. Seal the toner cartridge with tape before shipping.
D. Remove the toner cartridge from the printer before shipping.

A

D. Remove the toner cartridge from the printer before shipping.

96
Q

You need to create several UTP cables from a roll of bulk cable. Your company uses the T568B standard. What is the correct order for wires in the connectors?

A. White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown
B. White/orange, orange, white/green, green, white/blue, blue, white/brown, brown
C. White/orange, green, white/green, blue, white/blue, orange, white/brown, brown
D. Orange, white/orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

A

A. White/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown

97
Q

You are installing network cable that will support digital cable television signals. What type of cable should you install?

A. RG-6
B. RG-8
C. RG-58 A/U
D. RG-59

98
Q

You need to replace a faulty 250-foot section of RG-6 cable, but all you have available is RG-59. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The replacement cable will not work because the distance exceeds RG-59 specifications.
B. The replacement cable will not work because RG-6 and RG-59 use different connectors.
C. The replacement cable will not work because RG-6 and RG-59 have different impedance.
D. If the replacement cable works, it won’t work as well. RG-6 should be purchased.

A

D. If the replacement cable works, it won’t work as well. RG-6 should be purchased.

99
Q

A technician has a tablet whose documentation says it can connect to an HDMI display. However, the tablet has a port far smaller than HDMI. What type of video connection would be typical for this small form factor device?

A. USB-C
B. RS-232
C. DB-9
D. Mini-HDMI

A

D. Mini-HDMI

100
Q

What serial connector type was commonly used for communication, keyboards, mice, or game controllers before USB became popular?

A. SCSI
B. PS/2
C. DB9
D. Lightning

A

C. DB9

SCSI is parallel, not serial, and was never commonly used for keyboards, mice, or game controllers.

PS/2 uses a round 6-pin connector, not a serial connector.

Lightning was introduced after USB.

101
Q

You’ve maxed out the physical RAM on a motherboard but need more to run a Particular app. The operating system will let you adjust a setting so that you can use some of the hard drive as if it were physical RAM, and the OS will swap data between RAM and the hard drive in a unit called a page. What type of memory are you using?

A. Cache
B. Virtual
C. DIMM
D. SODIMM

A

B. Virtual

102
Q

What type of hard drives are not available in a 3.5” form factor?

A. SSD
B. mSATA
C. SATA
D. Magnetic

A

B. mSATA

mSATA (mini-SATA) is a small form factor SATA interface for solid-state drives (SSDs) designed for use in laptops, ultrabooks, and other space-constrained devices, offering a compact and relatively fast storage solution.

103
Q

You’re building a SAN for your company. Which of the following will you most likely need to install in your server to attach the server to the SAN?

A. NIC
B. Modem
C. Fibre Channel HBA
D. WAP

A

C. Fibre Channel HBA

A Fibre Channel HBA enables connectivity and data transfer between devices in an FC-based storage area network (SAN). Fibre is faster than Wi-Fi.

104
Q

You are replacing the power supply in a computer system that uses a 24-pin P1 connector. You have a few power supplies in the closet to choose from. Which one with the following connections will work? (Choose two.)

A. 20-pin P1 connector and P4 connector
B. 20-pin+4-pin P1 connector
C. An ATX12V PSU
D. An ATX12VO power supply

A

B. 20-pin+4-pin P1 connector
C. An ATX12V PSU

20-pin+4-pin P1 connector combines a 20-pin connector and a 4-pin connector to create a 24-pin connection.

The ATX12V power supply is a standard that includes the 24-pin P1 connector.

A 20-pin P1 connector is older and lacks the additional 4 pins necessary for powering modern motherboards properly. The P4 connector is typically used for providing extra power to the CPU, but it’s not enough on its own to meet the power requirements of a 24-pin motherboard.

The ATX12VO (12V-only) standard only provides 12V power to the motherboard and other components and is not compatible with systems that require the full 24-pin P1 connector.

105
Q

Your new tech is unboxing a new printer and you see them open the top and flip the box upside-down, then pull the box off the printer. What will you say? (Choose two.)

A. Great job, that’s exactly how I would do it.
B. That’s not the right way to unbox a printer.
C. It’s better to lay the box on its side and pull the materials out.
D. Please use a box cutter next time to cut the corners from top to bottom.

A

B. That’s not the right way to unbox a printer.
C. It’s better to lay the box on its side and pull the materials out.

106
Q

What printer feature will store documents on the printer and not print them until the user enters a password or scans an ID card on the print device?

A. Auditing
B. Secured prints
C. Snap prints
D. User authentication

A

B. Secured prints

107
Q

Your company has decided to purchase cloud services from Google. They will be getting infrastructure with on-demand computing services including processing power, storage and bandwidth over the Internet. Anyone can purchase these same services from Google, and a third party is responsible for maintaining and managing the hardware. What type of cloud is Google providing for your company?

A. Public
B. Community
C. Private
D. Hybrid

108
Q

A client complains about the occupied space, abundant power usage, and hardware costs of the multiple machines used in its small data center. Still, the client does not wish to lose control over any of the machines. What might you recommend to the client to resolve all of those issues?

A. Establish clusters for high availability.
B. Create virtual machines.
C. Outsource to an IaaS provider.
D. Shut down the nonessential machines.

A

B. Create virtual machines.

109
Q

What are potential problems associated with the shared resource structure of public cloud computing? (Choose two.)

A. Security and confidentiality
B. Flexibility
C. Poor application performance
D. Increased hardware costs

A

A. Security and confidentiality
C. Poor application performance

110
Q

A company using cloud services wishes to better prepare for surges for what it needs. What sort of capacity provisioning by its cloud provider should the company ask for?

A. Rapid metering
B. Infrastructure as a service
C. Metered utilization
D. Resource pooling

A

C. Metered utilization

Metered utilization refers to a cloud model where resources (such as computing power, storage, or bandwidth) are allocated and billed based on actual usage. This means the company only pays for what it uses, and the cloud provider can scale resources automatically as demand fluctuates. This approach allows for the company to prepare for surges by ensuring they only pay for extra resources when needed, making it highly adaptable and cost-effective.

111
Q

You’re setting up a virtual machine for one of your customers who needs a legacy OS to run software for a paper-cutting machine in an envelope factory. Windows 10 64-bit is the host OS. The legacy client OS requires a minimum 1 GB of RAM and the software running on it requires a minimum of 2 GB of RAM. What is the absolute minimum RAM needed on the virtual machine?

A. 1 GB
B. 4 GB
C. 5 GB
D. 10 GB

A

C. 5 GB

2 GB to run Windows 10 64-bit + 1 GB to run the OS in the VM + 2 GB to run the software in the VM = 5 GB total.

112
Q

An employee travels between multiple offices, using a desktop system in each office. What technology would ensure that the employee’s desktop icons, files, and applications stay uniform across systems in all the offices?

A. On-demand desktop
B. VDI in the cloud
C. Desktop emulation
D. Synchronized folders

A

B. VDI in the cloud

113
Q

With today’s more mobile workforce, what technology provides the benefits of centralized security, ease of configuring new desktops for remote workers, and scalability regardless of where a user is or works from? (Choose the best answer.)

A. IaaS
B. SaaS
C. VDI in the cloud
D. VDI on premises

A

C. VDI in the cloud

114
Q

Which of these terms is a benefit of cloud computing that means the information is available constantly, regardless of location?

A. Shared resources
B. High availability
C. Rapid elasticity
D. File synchronization

A

B. High availability

115
Q

A graphic artist at your company needs to manipulate files in both Linux and Windows environments. You, as the IT support person, want as few physical machines to support as possible. What technology allows both OSs to run on a single machine?

A. File sharing.
B. It can’t be done.
C. Cross-platform virtualization.
D.Dual-boot system.

A

C. Cross-platform virtualization.

116
Q

Your friend is a software developer. They have Windows 10 Pro installed on their SOHO computer. They are creating an application that needs to run smoothly on both Windows and Linux machines, so it will need to be tested in both of those environments. What would be the best solution for your friend?

A. Windows 10 sandbox
B. Dual-boot system
C. Two separate machines
D. Virtual machines on their PC

A

D. Virtual machines on their PC

117
Q

Which of the following would essentially be the same whether running an OS on a virtual server or a physical server? (Choose two.)

A. Security configuration
B. Hardware
C. Licensing
D. Portability

A

A. Security configuration
C. Licensing

118
Q

You are a manager in a call center that employs 300 people who may be working any of three shifts on any given day, taking whichever of your 100 seats is available. Company regulations require that all information remain hosted locally. What technology can you use so that their files, folders, and desktop icons all appear the same regardless of which computer they log on to?

A. On-demand desktop
B. VDI in the cloud
C. Desktop emulation
D. VDI on premises

A

D. VDI on premises

119
Q

Which of these is not an advantage of cloud computing?

A. Reduced capital expenditures
B. Frees IT employees time for other needs
C. Complete control over data
D. Rapid elasticity (dynamic growth)

A

C. Complete control over data

120
Q

A user approaches you and asks for a CPU upgrade so their Lenovo laptop will run faster. What is most likely the easiest way to meet this user’s needs?

A. Remove the CPU and replace it with a faster one that fits the same socket.
B. Replace the laptop with one that has a faster CPU.
C. Replace the motherboard with a generic laptop motherboard with a faster processor.
D. Replace the motherboard with a Lenovo laptop motherboard with a faster processor.

A

B. Replace the laptop with one that has a faster CPU.

Upgrading a laptop CPU is generally much more complicated than upgrading a desktop CPU. Laptops are often designed with specific, non-upgradable components, and many factors make it difficult to upgrade the processor, such as the CPU being soldered directly onto the motherboard or the lack of compatibility with a faster CPU.

121
Q

A client has a laptop with an integrated video card. The system seems to boot but produces no video, even with an external display hooked up. What can you do to fix this?

A. Add an external USB video card and connect the display to it.
B. Remove the existing video card, and replace it with a new internal video card.
C. Replace the motherboard.
D. Leave the existing card in the system, and add an internal Mini PCIe video card.

A

C. Replace the motherboard.

122
Q

You have an OLED display that you just plugged into a desktop computer. One of your coworkers changes the resolution from 1920x1080 to 1920x1200, but then the image looks highly distorted. What is the most likely cause of this?

A. The video driver does not support 1920x1200 resolution.
B. The display has a native resolution of 1920x1080.
C. The video adapter has a native resolution of 1920x1080.
D. The monitor is plugged into the wrong display interface to support the new resolution.

A

B. The display has a native resolution of 1920x1080.

123
Q

You are troubleshooting a desktop computer that is prone to unexpected shutdowns. They seem to happen randomly, sometimes shortly after the computer starts, other times after several minutes. The user reports that no error messages appear before the computer Shuts down. Which two things are most likely to cause this type of problem? (Choose two.)

A. Failing hard drive
B. Bad RAM
C. BIOS/UEFI misconfiguration
D. Improperly seated chips

A

B. Bad RAM
D. Improperly seated chips

124
Q

You have just replaced faulty RAM in a desktop computer. You reboot the computer and after a few seconds it beeps once. What does this indicate?

A. The RAM is faulty.
B. The motherboard needs to be replaced.
C. The system B1OS detected an error in the POST routine.
D. The system BIOS completed the POST routine normally.

A

D. The system BIOS completed the POST routine normally.

125
Q

A user reports that their laptop battery doesn’t charge when the laptop is plugged into an AC outlet. What is the best resolution to try first?

A. Replace the battery.
B. Replace the AC adapter.
C. Drain the battery completely and then recharge it.
D. Remove and reinsert the battery.

A

D. Remove and reinsert the battery.

126
Q

A technician has determined that they need to replace a motherboard in a laptop. Which of the following Procedures should be followed? (Choose two.)

A. Never use a power screwdriver with a laptop.
B. Document and label screw locations.
C. Refer to the manufacturer’s instructions.
D. Remove the keyboard before removing the motherboard.

A

B. Document and label screw locations.
C. Refer to the manufacturer’s instructions.

127
Q

A laser printer you are working with consistently produces images with white streaks running down the page. What can you do first to resolve this issue?

A. Clean the transfer corona wires.
B. Clean the EP drum.
C. Clean the fusing assembly.
D. Gently shake or replace the toner cartridge.

A

D. Gently shake or replace the toner cartridge.

Toner cartridges contain a powder that is used to create the image on the page. Over time, the toner powder can settle unevenly within the cartridge, which can lead to streaks or uneven printing. Gently shaking the toner cartridge helps redistribute the toner powder evenly, which can resolve issues with streaking.

128
Q

Your computer is making an intermittent grinding noise. What component is most likely failing?

A. Magnetic hard drive
B. Solid state drive
C. Processor fan
D. RAM

A

A. Magnetic hard drive

129
Q

Your office uses an impact printer and multipart carbonless forms. The office manager noticed that the bottom copies of the forms are readable, but the top copy is too light to read. What needs to be replaced?

A. Toner cartridge
B. Printhead
C. Ink Ribbon
D. Ribbon advance motor

A

C. Ink Ribbon

130
Q

Your network has recently grown from 50 client computers to about 90. All workstations on the network are connected using Cat 6 or better cabling, and all network devices support at least 1 Gbps data transfers. Users have been reporting very slow network speeds since the expansion, and complaints are now coming more frequently. Which of the following actions is most likely to help resolve the issue?

A. Add another hub to the network.
B. Upgrade all the cabling to Cat 8.
C. Upgrade the existing router to support 10 Gbps data transfers.
D. Add another switch to the network.

A

D. Add another switch to the network.

Adding another switch helps distribute the network traffic more effectively. Adding a hub would likely make the problem worse, not better, because it would increase network traffic without properly managing it.

131
Q

Users have been complaining that a network resource has intermittent connectivity. You’ve identified the problem; the switch port is flapping. The connected device is not EEE compliant, and users need it to be available. What should you do?

A. Configure link flap prevention settings.
B. Replace the offending device.
C. Disable EEE on the switch.
D. Disable EEE on the device.

A

C. Disable EEE on the switch.

EEE, or Energy Efficient Ethernet, is an IEEE 802.3az standard that reduces power consumption in Ethernet networks during periods of low data activity by allowing physical layer devices (PHYs) to enter a low-power idle (LPI) state.

132
Q

A user calls to report that they can’t access the Internet or a corporate server. However, they are still able to print to a printer nearby. They have not received any error messages. Other users in the area are also unable to access the Internet. What is most likely the problem?

A. IP address conflict
B. Default gateway down
C. Incorrect subnet mask
D. Network card failure

A

B. Default gateway down

The default gateway is a crucial network device that allows devices on a local network to communicate with devices outside of that network, such as the internet or other servers. The problem likely lies with the default gateway being down, which is preventing the network from routing traffic to external destinations, while still allowing local communication like printing.

133
Q

A workstation is sending print jobs directly to a printer that has a stapler as a finishing option. When they retrieve the print job, the document is not stapled. Which of the following could be the problem? (Choose three.)

A. A different printer driver is needed.
B.The stapler is empty.
C.The staples are in backward.
D.The stapler is not enabled.

A

A. A different printer driver is needed.
B.The stapler is empty.
D.The stapler is not enabled.

134
Q

A message has appeared on the office copier/printer that says “Stapler Jam.” Which of the following are true? (Choose three.)

A. The jam must be cleared before anything else is printed.
B. Print jobs not involving the stapler may still work.
C. This can be caused by trying to staple too many pages.
D. The manufacturer documentation should be consulted for procedures to follow.

A

B. Print jobs not involving the stapler may still work.
C. This can be caused by trying to staple too many pages.
D. The manufacturer documentation should be consulted for procedures to follow.

135
Q

A user reports that their smartphone is always overheating and constantly locks up. What should you advise them to do?

A. Replace the battery.
B. Open the Power app and set the phone to operate on the low voltage setting.
C. Turn off the phone and let it cool down.
D. Replace the phone.

A

D. Replace the phone.

136
Q

A technician is troubleshooting a RAID 5 array with four hard disks. One of the disks has failed. What can the technician do to recover the array?

A. Replace the failed disk and rebuild the array.
B. Replace the failed disk and restore from backup.
C. Rebuild the failed disk and restore from backup.
D. Remove the failed disk and rebuild the array.

A

A. Replace the failed disk and rebuild the array.

137
Q

A coworker comes to you for help with their iPhone. When they touch the screen, it acts as if they touched it somewhere else. They have already cleaned the touchscreen with a microfiber cloth. What will you do to help them?

A. Download a calibration app.
B. Adjust the touch accommodations settings.
C. Suggest they get the digitizer replaced.
D. Suggest they get a new phone.

A

C. Suggest they get the digitizer replaced.

138
Q

You’re about to refer to a vendor’s instructions for guidance. What step of the best practice methodology to resolve problems should you be in?

A. Establish a theory of probable cause.
B. Identify the problem.
C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.
D. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.

A

C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.

139
Q

A customer comes into your shop with a smartphone that is acting strangely. The sound is distorted, and there is static when they plug in the headphones. You look into the sim card slot and see a red line. What will you tell the customer? (Choose two.)

A. This phone may have water damage.
B. There is no way to fix your phone.
C. We can replace corroded components, but the fix may not last.
D. This phone has been exposed to high temperatures.

A

A. This phone may have water damage.
C. We can replace corroded components, but the fix may not last.

140
Q

You’ve recently doubled the number of employees in your call center. Users of your company’s VoIP phones have been complaining that the calls sound like the person on the other end is stuttering, if they can understand them at all. What can you do to remedy this situation? (Choose two.)

A. Add more RAM to each VolP phone.
B. Set up a VLAN for the phones.
C. Configure QoS to prioritize phones.
D. Configure WoL.

A

B. Set up a VLAN for the phones.
C. Configure QoS to prioritize phones.

QoS, or Quality of Service, is a set of networking technologies that prioritize and manage network traffic to ensure critical applications receive the bandwidth and performance they need, especially in situations with limited network capacity or congestion.

141
Q

A user has a hard drive that needs to be replaced. Before you establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution, what should you do?

A. Verify full system functionality.
B. Refer to the corporate policy for handling hard drive data.
C. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. None of these.

A

B. Refer to the corporate policy for handling hard drive data.

142
Q

Your home computer was working fine yesterday but today you get an error stating Bootable device not found. Which of the following is most likely?

A. The hard drive has failed.
B. The OS was deleted.
C. The POST is faulty.
D. A USB drive is in a USB port.

A

D. A USB drive is in a USB port.

143
Q

Users on your network are experiencing VoIP calls where they only hear every other word. What is this a symptom of?

A. Packet loss
B. Low latency
C. Jitter
D. High bandwidth

A

A. Packet loss

144
Q

You are troubleshooting a Windows 10 computer that has crashed. It displays a blue screen with the error “UNEXPECTED_KERNEL_MODE_TRAP” on it. Which component most likely caused this problem?

A. CPU
B. RAM
C. SSD
D. PSU

145
Q

While plugging in a VGA display, a user bent some of the pins on the connector. You attempted to straighten them, but two broke off. If you use this display, what will most likely happen?

A. It will work properly.
B. It will display incorrect colors.
C. It will display a distorted image.
D. It will produce dim or flickering images.

A

B. It will display incorrect colors.

146
Q

You’re troubleshooting a printing problem. The user selected to print in landscape mode in the software, but it comes out as a small box in the middle of a portrait mode page. What can you do to attempt to fix this? (Choose two.)

A. Tell the user to change their setting to portrait mode.
B. Verify that the printer is set to print in landscape mode.
C. Have the user select a different printer tray.
D. Take the paper out of the printer tray and turn it 90 degrees.

A

B. Verify that the printer is set to print in landscape mode.
C. Have the user select a different printer tray.

147
Q

You charged your laptop overnight, but in the morning. it will not power on. You remove and reinsert the battery, but still it will not power on. The system will power on when you use the wall adapter, but not the battery, and the battery icon indicates that it’s full. What is the most likely problem?

A. The battery is defective.
B. The AC adapter is not properly charging the battery.
C. The battery charging icon is not properly reading the battery life.
D. The DC converter between the battery and the motherboard is defective.

A

A. The battery is defective.

148
Q

You have a Xerox color multifunction printer that is making a grinding noise. What is the first thing you’ll try to fix the problem?

A. Replace the toner cartridge.
B. Clean the printhead lenses.
C. Gently shake the toner cartridge.
D. Perform a software reset.

A

D. Perform a software reset.

149
Q

People are complaining that the output from the company’s multifunction device has little spots all over it, and it’s been getting gradually worse. What will you do to correct this? (Choose two.)

A. Replace the HVPS
B. Ensure the correct paper is being used.
C. Thoroughly clean the printer.
D. Blow debris out of the printer with canned air.

A

B. Ensure the correct paper is being used.
C. Thoroughly clean the printer.

150
Q

A user is upset because their Android tablet does not ring whenever they receive a phone call. What is the first thing you should have them check?

A. If the tablet is configured to receive voice calls
B. If the tablet is in Airplane mode
C. If the tablet is set to silent mode
D. If the tablet’s speakers are working in another application

A

C. If the tablet is set to silent mode

151
Q

You are troubleshooting a laptop with an integrated wireless networking card. The user reports that the laptop will not connect to the Internet. When you look at the network activity lights, the connection and activity lights alternate blinking, in a steady pattern. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. No network connection
B. Incorrect TCP/IP configuration
C. Failed network card
D. Unable to reach a DNS server

A

A. No network connection

152
Q

Your friend dropped their iPad and it landed on its corner, on a rock. Now the screen has three large cracks from the corner radiating outward. The icons are still visible, and the home button works, but the screen only responds in some places to touch, and they cut their finger. What will you tell them? (Choose two.)

A. Recycle it and get a new one.
B. If possible, back up the device.
C. The digitizer and glass need replacing.
D. The display assembly needs replacing.

A

B. If possible, back up the device.
D. The display assembly needs replacing.

153
Q

You are troubleshooting a computer with a RAID 0 array using four disks. One of the disks fails. What can you do to recover the array?

A. Rebuild the failed disk and restore from backup.
B. Replace the failed disk and rebuild the array.
C. Replace the failed disk and restore from backup.
D. Remove the failed disk and rebuild the array.

A

C. Replace the failed disk and restore from backup.

154
Q

A day-long training is happening in your company’s conference room. The group took a break for lunch and when they returned, the projector was off. The presenter has called you for help. What has most likely happened?

A. The projector overheated.
B. The projector entered standby.
C. The power cable is loose.
D. The lamp has burned out.

A

B. The projector entered standby.

155
Q

Over time, the hard drive performance of your computer has gotten slower. A quick check of Performance Monitor shows that your disk read/writes are taking more time as compared to the baseline. What should you do to resolve this issue?

A. Format the hard drive and restore the data.
B. Enable write caching on the drive.
C. Delete the partition, create a new one, and restore the data.
D. Run chkdsk.

A

B. Enable write caching on the drive.

156
Q

You are troubleshooting a computer that will not boot properly. When you power it on, it produces a series of beeps. Which components are most likely to be causing this to happen? (Choose two.)

A. RAM
B. BIOS
C. Hard drive
D. Network card

A

A. RAM
B. BIOS

157
Q

The inkjet printer in your office jams a lot and produces many crinkled papers. What is the most likely cause of this?

A. Incorrect paper tension settings
B. Obstructed paper path
C. Dirty printheads
D. Paper that is too dry

A

B. Obstructed paper path

158
Q

A user reports that their LCD display is flickering constantly. What is the easiest course of action to resolve this problem?

A. Replace the video card.
B. Remove external interference such as fans or motors.
C. Replace the display.
D. Degauss the display.

A

C. Replace the display.

159
Q

You are consulting with a user who has a failed hard drive in a Windows computer. The user needs to get critical data off the drive but did not make a backup. Are there any options to recover the data?

A. There is no way to recover data from the failed drive.
B. Use the Windows Disk Repair tool to create a backup and then restore the backup to a new hard drive.
C. Use a file recovery service or software package to try to recover the data.
D. Install a second hard drive of the same or larger size. During Windows installation, choose Recover Contents of Hard Drive from the Advanced Options menu.

A

C. Use a file recovery service or software package to try to recover the data.

160
Q

In the morning, a user calls from their desk and reports that their laptop will not connect to the wireless network. They have never had a problem connecting to the wireless network from that location. When you look at their wireless adapter, you notice that there are no lights illuminated. What is most likely the problem?

A. They are not receiving a Wi-Fi signal.
B. The SSID cannot be found.
C. Their wireless card is disabled.
D. There is a conflict between the wireless card and wired network port.

A

C. Their wireless card is disabled.

161
Q

Your iPhone 11 has appeared to lock up. The touchscreen is unresponsive. You press and hold a volume button and the side button, but it does not turn off. What should your next step be?

A. Press and release the volume up button, press and release the volume down button, and press and hold the side button.
B. Use a paperclip to press the recessed reset button on the bottom of the phone to reset the phone.
C. Hold the side button and the up and down volume buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds and the phone will reset.
D. Get a new phone.

A

A. Press and release the volume up button, press and release the volume down button, and press and hold the side button.

162
Q

The laser printer you are using has started producing all-black pages. What should you do to fix the problem?

A. Use the display to initiate a self-cleaning cycle.
B. Use a maintenance kit to clean the printer.
C. Replace the toner cartridge.
D. Turn the printer off and back on again.

A

C. Replace the toner cartridge.

If the printer is producing all-black pages, it usually means the toner cartridge is either damaged, defective, or malfunctioning.

163
Q

One of your friends complains that, when playing action games on their computer, the screen is slow to refresh and the motion is often jerky. Their system has a video card; their graphics are not integrated with the CPU. What should be done to resolve this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Buy a display with a faster refresh rate.
B. Increase system RAM.
C. Increase video memory.
D. Lower the screen resolution.

A

A. Buy a display with a faster refresh rate.
C. Increase video memory.

164
Q

You are troubleshooting network connectivity issues from a Linux workstation. Which command should you use to check the computer’s IP address and subnet mask?

A. ping
B. ipconfig
C. ifconfig
D. netstat

A

C. ifconfig

165
Q

You have installed a PCIe RAID controller and want to create a RAID-5 array with three disks. You plug the disks in and boot up the computer. The RAID array is not detected. Where should you go to set up or troubleshoot the RAID array?

A. Windows Device Manager
B. Windows Disk Management
C. The RAID controller’s BIOS
D. System BIOS/UEFI

A

C. The RAID controller’s BIOS

166
Q

A user with an 802.11ac network adapter is trying to join your 802.11ax network. Their laptop is next to yours, which is connected to the network. However, they are unable to locate the SSID. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. 802.11g is not compatible with 802.11n.
B. SSID broadcasting is disabled on the wireless access point.
C. The user is out of range of the wireless access point.
D. The SSID has been changed.

A

B. SSID broadcasting is disabled on the wireless access point.

SSID stands for Service Set Identifier and is the name of a Wi-Fi network that you see when searching for available networks on your device, like “MyHomeWiFi” or “Starbucks_Free”. Disabling SSID broadcast makes your Wi-Fi network name invisible to others, preventing them from seeing it in the list of available networks, but it doesn’t make the network itself invisible, and connecting requires manual input of the SSID.