11-2SailplaneV3 (Pre-Solo) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the minimum sailplane nose-to-tail separation?

A

10 feet.

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2
Q

What is the exception for the nose-to-tail separation rules.

A

Cross country launch grids.

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3
Q

During what process may moving sailplane wings overlap?

A

Hangaring.

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4
Q

In normal procedures, how many people are required to ground handle sailplanes?

A

2 people.

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5
Q

How many people are required to move a sailplane with a main wheel dolly installed?

A

3 people.

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6
Q

How many people are required to install a tail dolly or wingtip wheel?

A

1 person.

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7
Q

At what wind speed do high wind procedures take effect?

A

25 knots.

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8
Q

How many people are required to move a sailplane in high wind conditions?

A

3 people.

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9
Q

How many people are required to be with a static sailplane in high wind conditions?

A

2 people.

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10
Q

At what wind speed should all sailplanes be tied down or hangared?

A

30 knots.

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11
Q

How many people are required to move a sailplane above 30 knots?

A

4 people.

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12
Q

How many people are required to move sailplanes within a hangar?

A

3 people nose first, 4 people tail first.

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13
Q

How many people are required to move sailplane in and out of a hangar?

A

3 people nose first, 4 people tail first.

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14
Q

Who is in charge of ensuring safe hangar operations?

A

The hangar boss.

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15
Q

What condition should airbrakes be in after hangaring?

A

Unlocked.

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16
Q

What condition should canopies be in after hangaring?

A

Closed and locked.

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17
Q

How much lateral separation is required between sailplanes in the hangar?

A

1 foot.

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18
Q

Is it permissible to walk between two running towplanes?

A

No.

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19
Q

What is the minimum runway condition for unrestricted hard surface operations?

A

12 (wet).

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20
Q

What is the maximum density altitude?

A

10,000 feet.

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21
Q

What is minimum climbout?

A

200 feet by 1 mile.

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22
Q

What is the maximum wind for all sailplanes to takeoff?

A

25 knots.

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23
Q

What is the gust factor limit?

A

10 knots.

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24
Q

What is the maximum crosswind limit for an initial solo?

A

10 knots.

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25
Q

What is the maximum headwind limit for a LAOD?

A

10 knots.

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26
Q

Who may waive the LAOD maximum headwind limit?

A

Ops sup.

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27
Q

What is the minimum lateral separation during landings and rollout?

A

50 feet.

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28
Q

What is the minimum lateral separation during initial solo landings and rollout?

A

100 feet.

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29
Q

What lane of the SPLA can an initial solo not land?

A

Lane 1.

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30
Q

What distance must a sailplane stop behind an obstacle?

A

200 feet.

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31
Q

What item is not considered an obstacle by the Sailplane Vol 3?

A

Tow ropes.

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32
Q

What is the only authorized method of sailplane launch?

A

Aerotow.

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33
Q

What is the tow rope length according to the Sailplane Vol 3?

A

200 feet, +/- 10 feet

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34
Q

Who is ultimately responsible for accepting a tow rope?

A

The PIC.

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35
Q

What is the appropriate response to “Ready for hookup?”

A

“Ready for hookup.”

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36
Q

What are the appropriate responses to “Confirm good rope?”

A

“Affirmative”/”Negative”

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37
Q

If a stop launch is declared after hookup, what must a sailplane do?

A

Release the tow rope.

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38
Q

Who may perform a wing-low takeoff?

A

Any IP.

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39
Q

What must be added to a takeoff radio call for a wing low takeoff?

A

Add “Wing low takeoff” to the existing call.

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40
Q

To what altitude is a standard area tow?

A

9000 feet.

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41
Q

What must be done before being clear onto the center runway for takeoff?

A

Logging.

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42
Q

What must be added to a landing radio call for a landing in between?

A

“Landing in-between”.

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43
Q

What is the maximum traffic pattern bank angle?

A

45 degrees.

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44
Q

What is the minimum altitude to roll out on final?

A

200 feet.

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45
Q

What is a normal traffic pattern entry altitude?

A

800 feet, +/- 100 feet.

46
Q

What must be added to a “1 minute to Auto/Pen” call for an intentional low pattern?

A

“Intentional Low Pattern”.

47
Q

What must be added to the downwind radio call if the pattern is entered below 700 feet?

A

“Low pattern”.

48
Q

What is the extended base entry altitude?

A

500 feet.

49
Q

When north acro is hot, where must all other sailplanes remain?

A

South of academy drive.

50
Q

What is the minimum altitude for initiating spins?

A

3,500 feet.

51
Q

What is the minimum altitude for recovering spins?

A

3,000 feet.

52
Q

What is the minimum altitude for recovering spin prevents?

A

2,000 feet.

53
Q

What is the minimum altitude for recovering spiral dives?

A

1,500 feet.

54
Q

What is the minimum altitude for recovering stalls?

A

1,500 feet.

55
Q

What is the minimum altitude for slow flight?

A

1,000 feet.

56
Q

What is the minimum altitude for thermaling?

A

500 feet.

57
Q

What is the minimum altitude for an intentional slackline?

A

1,000 feet.

58
Q

What is the minimum altitude for box-the-wash?

A

1,000 feet.

59
Q

What is the minimum altitude for a slip?

A

100 feet.

60
Q

What are the four approved uniforms at the 94th?

A
  1. PC Gear 2. IP Gear 3. OCPs 4. Flight Suits
61
Q

At what distance to a thunderstorm will operations cease?

A

5 NM

62
Q

When wind chill is below 32 degrees Fahrenheit, what time may be spent outside a heated environment?

A

30 minutes.

63
Q

Under what wind chill will sailplane operations cease?

A

0 degrees Fahrenheit

64
Q

Who may waive wind chill operations?

A

94 FTS/CC and 94 FTS/DO.

65
Q

What may the wind chill be waived to?

A

Negative 19 degrees Fahrenheit.

66
Q

At what wind chill will all operations cease, even if waived.

A

Negative 20 degrees Fahrenheit.

67
Q

Is flight into known icing conditions permissible?

A

No.

68
Q

At what level of turbulence will all operations cease?

A

Severe.

69
Q

What does the Sailplane Vol 3 define severe sink as?

A

10 knots down.

70
Q

Who must severe sink be reported to?

A

Unit supervisors or ATC.

71
Q

What are the IP required maneuvers?

A
  1. Intentional Slackline 2. Spin 3. Intentional Low Pattern 4. Simulated Rope Break
72
Q

What is the local flying area?

A

Palmer lake, south to rampart reservoir, south to the town of Cascade, southeast along Highway 24 to the intersection with S. 31st street, North to Glen Eyrie Reservoir, northeast to the intersection of South Rockrimmon Blvd and I-25, north along the railroad tracks, back to Palmer lake.

73
Q

What altitude is the local flying area?

A

Surface to 17,500 feet MSL.

74
Q

What alert area covers USAFA property?

A

A-260.

75
Q

What class is KAFF airspace?

A

Class Delta.

76
Q

What is the radius of KAFF airspace?

A

3 NM.

77
Q

What is the altitude of KAFF airspace?

A

Surface to 8,800 ft MSL.

78
Q

What airway crosses through the alert area?

A

V-108.

79
Q

At what altitude should caution be used for V-108?

A

10,400 ft MSL.

80
Q

What are the bounds of the NTZ?

A

The NCO club, the stables, the south entry point, and the north entry point.

81
Q

What altitudes does the NTZ encompass?

A

Surface to 8,000 ft MSL.

82
Q

What is the normal flying area bound by?

A

East of the mountains, west of the railroad, south of N. Academy Blvd, and north of the HP building.

83
Q

What altitudes does the normal flying area encompass?

A

Surface to 12,500 ft MSL

84
Q

What defines the 8,200 circle of safety?

A

Townhome tennis courts, Mount Saint Francis, the USAFA hospital, and the cemetary.

85
Q

What defines the 7,800 circle of safety?

A

Santa Fe Red Roofs, Pine Valley Baseball Fields, and Falcon Stadium.

86
Q

What are the boundaries of the SZ?

A

The NCO club, the stables, the south entry point, and the north entry point.

87
Q

What altitudes does the SZ encompass?

A

9,500 to 17,500 ft MSL.

88
Q

During stadium jumps, what radius of airspace at the stadium is restricted?

A

1/2 mile.

89
Q

During RPA operations, how much vertical deconfliction must be observed?

A

1,000 feet.

90
Q

When may sailplanes fly?

A

Between official sunrise and official sunset.

91
Q

What time prior to official sunset must all sailplanes be in the pattern?

A

5 minutes prior.

92
Q

What is the minumum altitude for simulated emergencies?

A

300 ft AGL.

93
Q

How is transfer of aircraft control accomplished?

A

Shaking of the stick, “You have the aircraft”, “I have the aircraft”.

94
Q

When is a g-awareness exercise conducted?

A

When the mission profile exceedes 4 Gs.

95
Q

What level of forward and rear G-meter discrepancies must be annotated in AFTO 781.

A

0.4 Gs or greater.

96
Q

What must be added to a takeoff radio call for a LAOD?

A

“For low altitude opposite direction rope break”.

97
Q

What must be added to a off tow radio call for a LAOD?

A

“Landing opposite direction”.

98
Q

Who approves flights above 12,500 ft MSL?

A

Ops sup.

99
Q

When is the last area tow?

A

25 minutes prior to last land.

100
Q

When is the last pattern tow?

A

10 minutes prior to last land.

101
Q

What may be inoperative in the sailplane?

A

G-meter, microphone, PTT switch, and seat straps, provided their respective seats are unoccupied. Panel air vents, and the pnumatic variometer provided the LX works.

102
Q

How many AM-251/AM-461 sorties may be airborne at one time?

A

8 sorties.

103
Q

Who approve use of cameras onboard 94 FTS flights?

A

306 FTG/CC.

104
Q

What restrictions are associated with BWC moderate?

A

No pattern tows.

105
Q

What restrictions are associated with BWC severe?

A

Stop launch.

106
Q

10 minutes prior to scheduled flyovers, where must sailplanes be?

A

East of Southgate Blvd, above 10,000 ft MSL west of the front range, or off tow above 12,500 ft MSL west of the front range.

107
Q

What is the restriction for a Cadet Area, cemetary, stadium, prep school, or Jacks Valley flyover?

A

No pattern tows.

108
Q

What is the Vol 3 procedure for a radio failure?

A

Rock wings when entering the pattern and land far West in the SPLA.

109
Q

If VSI is measured at 6-9 knots down, what speed should be flown?

A

60 knots.

110
Q

If VSI is measured at 10+ knots down, what speed should be flown?

A

70 knots.

111
Q

What are the reccomended USAFA emergency landing fields?

A

The O-Club Field, Stillman Field, and Aardvark.