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Lt. promotional exam > 100, 200, 300, 400, 500, & 600 series > Flashcards

100, 200, 300, 400, 500, & 600 series Flashcards

1
Q

What is the mission statement of South Pasadena FD?

A

1) To protect the lives and property of the people from fires, natural disasters, and hazardous material incidents.
2) To save lives and reduce suffering by providing emergency medical services.
3) To prevent fire and disseminate information on public safety through prevention and education programs
4) To conduct periodic safety inspections of commercial buildings, publicly accessible buildings, and multi-family dwellings to eliminate fire and safety hazards, and upon request of owners of private residences to make fire and safety inspections of such residences.

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2
Q

What is South Pasadena FD’s Mantra?

A

We are professional, proficient, and engaged with our public.

1) Professional in our: Appearance, Communications, and Actions
2) Proficient by: Always learning, training with a purpose, and teaching others
3) Public education through: Visibility in our community, accessibility to our public, and educating our citizens and business owners.

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3
Q

South Pasadena FD philosophy

As an organization we strive:

A
  1. to be responsive to community needs
  2. to be disciplined and accountable for our actions
  3. to maximize available resource
  4. to provide inter-departmental support
  5. to be innovative, successful finisher
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4
Q

How often are South Pasadena FD’s SOPs reviewed?

A

every 3 years

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5
Q

Any member unable to report to duty because of illness or injury shall notify the officer on duty at least how long before he or she is on duty?

A

30 minutes

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6
Q

Activities other than Fire Department business will not be performed until what time on weekdays?

A

1600

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7
Q

Activities other than Fire Department business will not be performed until what time on weekends?

A

1200

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8
Q

Beds shall not be occupied between what times?

A

0700-2030

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9
Q

Beds shall be made before what time?

A

2030

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10
Q

Between what times shall overhead lights in the dorm be turned off and loud noises prohibited?

A

2030-0700

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11
Q

Personal visitors including family members are not permitted at the station between what hours?

A

2030-0700

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12
Q

How shall hair be worn?

A

neatly styled, trimmed to moderate length, and be worn up at all times

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13
Q

hair is not permitted to be worn?

A

down and touching the shirt collar

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14
Q

Mustache cannot protrude how far past the corners of the mouth?

A

1/2”

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15
Q

A mustache must be trimmed to make what visible?

A

The upper lip

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16
Q

Sideburns may not extend below where and be no more than how wide”

A

The earlobe and be no more that 1 1/2” wide

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17
Q

What are to be worn at all times in hot zones until the emergency is under control?

A

Helmets

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18
Q

Who will be notified immediately and what will be initiated in case of a death or suspected arson?

A

Sheriff department and an investigation

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19
Q

The state fire marshal must also be informed of a fire death, suspected arson, or property loss exceeding how much money?

A

$1,000

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20
Q

What shall the driver do upon the return of the apparatus and report what to who?

A

make a careful inspection of the apparatus and report the inspection to the Company officer

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21
Q

When a school bus has stopped can an emergency vehicle on an emergency call drive through the stops signs of the bus?

A

no

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22
Q

What are officers directly responsible for?

A

effective operations of their assigned shift and operate in accordance (and enforce) the Rules and regs and policies established by the department.

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23
Q

At 0800 Company officers shall familiarize themselves with what?

A

the operations of the last 48hrs, inform their shift of any new orders, or any new instructions necessary to the operation of their shift.

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24
Q

At 0800 roll call, company officers shall enter what in the company journal?

A

names of members on duty, names of members off duty and the reason, apparatus operator assignments, member assigned to check the vehicle, and name of firefighter on watch.

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25
Q

What does the initial arriving fire unit assume?

A

command

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26
Q

At fires company officers shall pay particular attention to?

A

laying lines, spotting equipment, coordinating and directing activities, calling for assistance and other operations necessary for the preservation of life and property.

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27
Q

What color ink will routine information be logged in?

A

black

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28
Q

What color ink will emergency calls be logged in?

A

red

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29
Q

What information should be included for emergency calls in the log book?

A

How the call was received, the time, nature of the call, address, units and members responding, transported by and where, ALS/BLS, time in service, details of the call

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30
Q

Officers collar insignia are to be centered over the collar stay, with the lower edge how high above the collar point?

A

1” to 1 1/4”

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31
Q

What may not be worn at a fire incident for safety reasons?

A

metal jewelry of and type

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32
Q

What may not be worn at anytime on duty?

A

Piercing jewelry

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33
Q

In regards to safety all member are responsible for what?

A

Their own safety as well as those working with them

continuously identifying unsafe actions

reporting unsafe actions

maintaining a knowledge of safety related SOPs

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34
Q

Supervisory personnel are responsible for?

A

Conducting a risk assessment at every incident

Have an associated plan to minimize any risk

Maintaining knowledge of safety related SOPs

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35
Q

What level of risk to responders is acceptable where there is a no potential to save lives or property

A

no level of risk

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36
Q

A higher level of risk is only acceptable when?

A

there is a realistic potential to save known endangered lives

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37
Q

What shall be ongoing an part of all tactical and decision making at an incident or training

A

an evaluation of safety conditions

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38
Q

When is the questioning of orders or directives that appear to the recipient to be unsafe required?

A

prior to taking such actions

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39
Q

If an actions appears to be unsafe when is it to be questioned?

A

immediately

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40
Q

Who is authorized to disregard a directive that is in violation of a safety related SOP?

A

any member

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41
Q

When do most personnel injuries occur when?

A

during routine activities in or around the station

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42
Q

Before staring any apparatus all bay doors shall be what and allow for what?

A

open and remain open to allow for emission vapors to dissipate

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43
Q

All interior doors adjoining the apparatus area shall be kept?

A

closed

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44
Q

What are the 6 components to the training probationary fire LT.?

A
  1. Administrative responsibilities including HR functions
  2. Evaluating and training FF 1 & 2 KSA’s
  3. Evaluating and training D/O KSA’s
  4. Administering PAFD policies and procedures
  5. First due fire officer roles responsibilities
  6. Complete NFPA incident command for high-rise operations
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45
Q

For inspections each shift an DC will be assigned a color coded spreadsheet with approximately how many properties designated to each color block?

A

2 to 4

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46
Q

Each inspection color block represents how long of a time period?

A

one month

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47
Q

Prior to inspecting each property, the inspecting officer must review what to ensure completion or update it?

A

Tactical Survey Report (TSR)

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48
Q

What shall LT.’s provide to the administration at the designated monthly officers meeting?

A

an inspection report.

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49
Q

Whose responsibility is it to provide origin and cause investigation for all fire incidents and that the proper reports are completed?

A

Command

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50
Q

If the investigation is beyond the scope or expertise of the engine crew who should they contact to make sure proper arrangements for a fire investigator to be notified?

A

The Fire Chief or Deputy Chief

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51
Q

Who should conduct interviews with the press concerning cause and/or origin of the investigation?

A

The fire chief or his designee

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52
Q

South Pasadena FD personnel will check for what at the conclusion of fire related incidents,

A

working smoke alarms

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53
Q

Where is the most appropriate locations for smoke alarms to be installed?

A

1 per sleeping area as close to the center of the ceiling 3ft away from an a/c duct

On a wall 4 to 6 inches from ceiling

1 per floor in addition to sleeping areas at least 20 feet away from cooking areas.

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54
Q

Who is the Department and/or Fire district having legal responsibility and duties over the geographic area in which an incident occurs?

A

Authority having jurisdiction (AHJ)

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55
Q

What is used by the IC to keep units from over deploying?

A

Level 1 staging

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56
Q

What is used at the direction of the IC, or on a 2nd alarm assignments dispatched to incidents other that a high-rise fire?

A

Level 2 staging

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57
Q

Level 2 staging requires what?

A

a specific staging location and a staging officer

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58
Q

What type incident is under 1 operational period, with minimum resources from 1 agency, and is handled by 3 command staff positions (Incident commander, IC Aide, and Incident Safety Officer)

A

Type V incident

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59
Q

What type of incident is limited to 1 operational period, uses resources from multiple agencies, and in addition to standard command positions other command positions may be expanded as needed such as Groups, Divisions, or Branches?

A

Type IV incident

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60
Q

What type incident may extend into multiple operational periods, requires multiple agencies, in addition to standard command positions, other command positions will likely be required and filled, and State or Regional IMT team may be required?

A

Type III incident

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61
Q

What type incident will go through multiple operational periods, will likely require assistance from regional, state, or national resources, will have many command and general staff positions filled, and State or regional IMT team may be required?

A

Type II incident

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62
Q

What type incident is expected to go into multiple operational periods, will require assistance from the Federal government, is an event of national significance, and a Federal Type 1 IMT team will likely be required?

A

Type I incident

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63
Q

Examples of a type V incident?

A

A structure fire

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64
Q

Examples of a type IV incident?

A

Large commercial or high rise fire, Hazmat incident

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65
Q

Examples of a type III incident?

A

Tornadoes, floods, and local disasters

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66
Q

Examples of a type II incident?

A

Hurricanes

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67
Q

Examples of a type I incident?

A

Major terrorist attack or Katrina type incidet

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68
Q

What are the 12 responsibilities of the IC and command staff?

A
  1. Life safety of all civilians and 1st responders
  2. Establishing command and control of the incident
  3. Effective size up ad ongoing evaluation of the situation
  4. Establishing and maintaining effective communications
  5. Utilizes tactical bridge to monitor talk around channel
  6. Develop an IAP
  7. Maintain accountability of all personnel, crews, their assignments, and location
  8. Appropriate use of resources based on the situation
  9. Stabilization of the incident
  10. Property conservation
  11. De-escalation of the incident
  12. Providing proper documentation of the incident
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69
Q

What type of command is mobile and established by the 1st arriving company officer?

A

Initial command

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70
Q

Who are by default the initial IC at every incident by virtue of being the first arriving fire department officer on scene?

A

Company officers

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71
Q

Can initial command be passed from one unit officer to another?

A

no

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72
Q

Who shall initial command be passed to from the first arriving company officer?

A

A Chief officer

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73
Q

What type of command is a stationary command post established by Chief officers and in some cases company officers?

A

Incident command

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74
Q

When shall an Incident Command be established?

A

any time 3 or more fire rescue companies are actively investigating or are engaged in operations.

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75
Q

Where should Incident Command normally be established at?

A

At a Chief’s vehicle located near the front of the structure or incident scene

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76
Q

What type of command is used at large scale incidents where coordination between agencies is critical to the successful outcome of the incident?

A

Unified Command

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77
Q

Initial commanders should prepare to answer what following questions when transferring command?

A 
What was the initial situation upon arrival?
What is the current situation?
What is the current plan?
What units are committed and where?
What is the status of the search?
Who is RIC?
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78
Q

When can the second arriving engine officer assume IC?

A

When the Chief officer has an exceptionally long response time.

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79
Q

Once a chief officer has established an incident command post who may take over command?

A

A higher ranking Chief officer from the AHJ

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80
Q

Command should not be transferred more than how many times?

A

2

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81
Q

What should transfer of command always include?

A

A face-to-face meeting

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82
Q

Any time an incident command post is being established what must be announced?

A

The command post’s location

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83
Q

What mode of operation is appropriate when there are no clear indicators of a fire or the nature or extent of the incident?

A

Investigative mode

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84
Q

What mode of operation involves taking direct action to mitigate the problem and prevent further extension of damage within the involved structure or area?

A

Offensive mode

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85
Q

What mode of operation has the primary goal to prevent the extension of damage beyond the structures or area involved upon arrival, or to limit extension to other properties?

A

Defensive mode

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86
Q

What mode of operation involves a fire attack that first knocks down a body of fire from the exterior before going to the interior to complete extinguishment?

A

Transitional attack

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87
Q

When operating in a transitional mode of attack what should be done when the decision is made to change from one operational mode to another?

A

A 5 second alert tone followed by a command statement

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88
Q

Initial on scene radio report at any fire responses to structures shall include what information?

A
  1. Correct address if different from dispatch
  2. Announce # of floors
  3. Announce type of occupancy
  4. Announce conditions observed upon arrival & pertinent info
  5. Announce current mode of attack
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89
Q

Which side of the street is the preferred location for the incident command post and towards which side of the building?

A

same side of the street towards the bravo or delta side

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90
Q

The location of what must be communicated to both responding units and all units on scene?

A

The Command post

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91
Q

What shall the IC use to track resources and assignments?

A

a tactical work sheet or a command board

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92
Q

What type of incidents require an ISO to be assigned?

A
  1. Any time a working fire has been declared
  2. Hazmat incidents
  3. Tech Rescue operations
  4. Water rescues
  5. Extended extrications or complex rescue operations
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93
Q

Who does the ISO report directly to?

A

IC

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94
Q

Who monitors and assesses all warm and hot zone activities for hazardous and/or unsafe situations or practices and develops measures for assuring personnel safety?

A

ISO

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95
Q

Who is preferably assigned to be ISO?

A

Command level officer or someone with specific ISO training

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96
Q

The ISO shall provide updates from where?

A

All sides of the structure

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97
Q

Who is authorized to exercise emergency authority to stop, suspend, alter, or prevent unsafe operations when immediate action is required?

A

ISO

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98
Q

Who has the responsibility and obligation to communicate changing conditions or hazardous situation, up though the chain of command?

A

All personnel on scene

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99
Q

After the ISO is assigned what is the next command staff that should be assigned?

A

Command post aide

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100
Q

What 3 positions make up the incident command team?

A

IC, ISO, and CP Aide

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101
Q

Who has the primary responsibility to handle incident scene accountability and radio communications?

A

CP Aide

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102
Q

Who is preferably assigned to CP Aide position?

A

Command level officer or personnel with specific incident command training

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103
Q

True or False: Units shall not call Command for an assignment as they approach the scene?

A

true

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104
Q

Unless otherwise directed by the IC all companies shall report to where to receive their assignments from the IC or IC Aide?

A

Command post

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105
Q

Terminology used during radio traffic during an incident shall be compliant with what?

A

NIMS

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106
Q

When should the command staff reevaluate their current IAP for its progress, effectiveness, and any need to change it?

A

At every 10 minute timer

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107
Q

When should a situation update be given if possible?

A

At 20 minutes

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108
Q

What are the 12 radio bench marks and key objectives?

A
  1. Command established with mode of operation
  2. Working fire or working incident declared
  3. Water supply established
  4. Primary search complete
  5. Fire knocked down
  6. Exposures checked
  7. 20 minute PAR check and situation update
  8. Any change of mode of operation
  9. Secondary search completed
  10. Situation under control
  11. Patients transported, including number, severity, and destination
  12. Termination of command
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109
Q

What is designed to provide a series of supervisory levels to be implemented as needed?

A

ICS

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110
Q

Establishing what provides a system to divide an incident into manageable geographical areas of assignments?

A

Divisions, Groups. or Branches

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111
Q

What is the functional operation within a defined geographic area?

A

A Division

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112
Q

What may be established by the IC when several companies are assembled to perform a single function?

A

A Group

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113
Q

What is similar to a Group of Division but will have its own tactical objectives?

A

A Branch

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114
Q

Which is typically only used at a major large scale incident involving 2 or more distinctively different management components, a Group, Branch, or Division

A

A Branch

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115
Q

Who is the only person to use Division, Group. or Branch in their identifier?

A

The supervisor who was assigned by the IC

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116
Q

The staging officer will default to who?

A

The officer on the first due engine of the 2nd alarm

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117
Q

If the IC does not announce a designate staging location when the 2nd alarm is activated who shall select it?

A

The Staging Officer

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118
Q

Who is responsible for managing the triage, treatment, and transport of all sick of injured citizens and emergency personnel at the incident scene?

A

The EMS/Medical Group

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119
Q

In a mass casualty incident, the EMS/Medical Group is further broken down into what 3 units?

A

Triage, Treatment, an Transport

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120
Q

Whose function is to be the point of contact for representatives from other assisting and cooperating agencies?

A

The Liaison Officer

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121
Q

Who manages all tactical operations of an incident if assigned by the IC?

A

Operations Chief

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122
Q

If assigned by IC who implements the tactical objectives of the IAP, and should play a key role in the development of the IAP?

A

The Operations Chief

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123
Q

Whish section is responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination, an use of information about the development of the incident, the status of resources, and any other information?

A

The Planning Section

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124
Q

Which section provides services and support systems to all the organizational components involved in the incident?

A

The Logistics Section

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125
Q

Which section is established on incidents when agencies involved have a specific need for financial services, documentation, and establishing emergency contracts with vendors, purchasing, etc.?

A

Financial/Admin Section

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126
Q

What 4 separate sections can the IC break down their duties and responsibilities into on large scale or complex incidents?

A

Operation section, Planning section, Logistics section, and Financial/Admin section

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127
Q

Where is the Alpha quadrant located inside of a structure?

A

The left front corner

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128
Q

Where is the Bravo quadrant located inside of a structure?

A

The left rear corner

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129
Q

Where is the Charlie quadrant located inside of a structure?

A

The right rear corner

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130
Q

Where is the Delta quadrant located inside of a structure?

A

The right front corner

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131
Q

What are the minimum initial resources on a single family dwelling structure fire?

A

3 engines
1 truck
1 squad
1 District Chief

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132
Q

The activation of a working fire should provide a minimum of which additional resources?

A

An ALS unit
An engine company
A District Chief
Notifications outlined by the AHJ

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133
Q

What marker tape is used to identify areas not accessible to civilians?

A

FIRE LINE DO NOT CROSS

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134
Q

What marker tape is used to identify areas deemed unsafe for entry by emergency personnel?

A

DANGER DO NOT ENTER

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135
Q

What marker tape is used by Pinellas county HAZMAT team to identify limited access areas at HAZMAT incidents?

A

HAZARDOUS MATERIALS DO NOT ENTER

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136
Q

What marker tape is used to identify electrical hazards?

A

ELECTRICAL HAZARDS

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137
Q

What does FIRE LINE DO NOT CROSS tape look like?

A

3” wide yellow tape with black letters

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138
Q

What does DANGER DO NOT ENTER tape look like?

A

3” wide red tape with black letters

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139
Q

What does HAZARDOUS MATERIALS DO NOT ENTER tape look like?

A

3” wide orange tape with black letters

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140
Q

What does ELECTRICAL HAZARDS tape look like?

A

3” wide red tape tape with black letters

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141
Q

What is full bunker gear defined as?

A

boots, pants, coat, helmet, and gloves

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142
Q

What shall be worn any time an SCBA is used?

A

A Nomex or PBI hood

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143
Q

When there is less than how many feet of visibility should an SCBA be worn?

A

5ft

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144
Q

What are the 5 most commonly monitored fire ground gasses?

A
  1. Oxygen
  2. Hydrogen Cyanide
  3. Hydrogen Sulfide
  4. Carbon Monoxide
  5. Lower Explosive Limit
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145
Q

What is the low and high O2 time weighted average?

A

low 19.5%

high 23.5%

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146
Q

What is the Hydrogen Cyanide time weighted average?

A

4.5ppm

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147
Q

What is the Hydrogen Sulfide time weighted average?

A

10ppm

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148
Q

What is the Carbon Monoxide time weighted average?

A

35ppm

149
Q

What is the Lower Explosive Limit time weighted average?

A

10%

150
Q

All bunker gear shall have advanced inspections completed how often?

A

annually or after a repair by a qualified personnel

151
Q

Which NFPA shall bunker gear be inspected in accordance with?

A

NFPA 1851

152
Q

All SCBAs shall be inspected when?

A

At the beginning of each shift, after each use, and after cylinder recharging or replacement

153
Q

How long will dispatch wait for an acknowledgment of the unit responding between the hours of 0700 and 2200

A

60 seconds

154
Q

After 60 seconds has passed how long will dispatch wait before a second request is issued?

A

15 seconds

155
Q

A 3rd and final call will be made after how many additional seconds of no response from a unit?

A

15 seconds

156
Q

How many attempts will dispatch make to receive an acknowledgment from the responding unit before a cover company is dispatched?

A

3

157
Q

How long will dispatch wait for an acknowledgment of the unit responding between the hours of 2200 and 0700?

A

90 seconds

158
Q

How long will dispatch wait for the first arriving unit to provide a scene size up?

A

10 seconds

159
Q

Anytime a unit is responding from a location other than their station they shall do what?

A

advise of the location they are responding from

160
Q

For medical incidents dispatch will provide a timer how often?

A

10 minutes

161
Q

When do 10 minute timers begin?

A

When dispatch creates the incident

162
Q

For medical calls when are additional time notifications made?

A

20 minutes and 40 minutes

163
Q

When will EMS timers be automatically discontinued?

A

40 minutes notification, when a unit is downgraded or canceled by a unit on scene, and confirmed deaths

164
Q

On fire calls dispatch will provide IC or the primary unit on scene with time notifications how often?

A

every 10 minutes while the call is active

165
Q

When will fire call timer notifications be automatically discontinued?

A

after 1 hour, or when units are downgraded or canceled by a unit on scene

166
Q

What is a term that is used by the fire ground commander indicating the magnitude of a fire scene?

A

Working Fire

167
Q

Only who can release companies from an incident?

A

Command

168
Q

When are condition tones used?

A

To announce conditions 2-6 and the cancellation of the conditions

169
Q

What is used to alert unit of an immediate danger at the scene of an incident?

A

Emergency retreat tone

170
Q

How long is an emergency retreat tone?

A

15 seconds

171
Q

What is condition 1?

A

Normal operating procedures

172
Q

What is condition 2?

A

Single engine response to automatic fire alarms and unconfirmed structure fires

173
Q

What is condition 3?

A

High call activity

174
Q

What is condition 4?

A

Storm mode - low priority calls to storm units

175
Q

What is condition 5?

A

EOC mode - low priority calls to disaster units in EOC’s

176
Q

What is condition 6?

A

Disaster mode - Dispatch OOS due to interruption of phones, radios, power, etc.

177
Q

When is condition 2 activated?

A

unusual call activity or server weather

178
Q

What is alert 1?

A

Notification of potential in-flight aircraft emergency

179
Q

What is alert 2?

A

An aircraft with an in-flight emergency or a potential emergency during landing

180
Q

What is alert 3?

A

A predetermined response for an on-ground aircraft emergency

181
Q

Who is responsible for the management of public information on the fire ground?

A

Command

182
Q

Who will be assigned as PIO?

A

First arriving support staff officer

183
Q

What does the PIO use to gather information an where can it be found?

A

A public information worksheet which can be found in any command vehicle

184
Q

Who is responsible for requiring all media representatives to wear proper protective clothing on the fire ground when necessary?

A

The PIO

185
Q

Who is responsible for the safety of the public and media personnel in their area?

A

Division or Group officer

186
Q

What information is protected and cannot be give out?

A

any scene under investigation, any 911 caller information, and any patient examination and treatment information

187
Q

What is 2” X 1/2” hard plastic tag with velcro backing?

A

Individual name tags

188
Q

What goes on an individual name tag?

A

The employees first initial and last name along with a 2 letter jurisdiction ID

189
Q

What is the minimum number of individual name tags that will be issued?

A

3

190
Q

What is constructed of flexible velcro (2”x4”) with a permanently affixed unit designator at the top?

A

Primary soft or hard passport

191
Q

What is a hard backed piece of velcro (2”x4”)?

A

Unit roster/hard passport

192
Q

What is located on the driver door of every truck, engine, and squad that is a hard plastic board (8.5”x11”)?

A

Apparatus passport drop off board

193
Q

At least how many soft passports can be affixed to the passport drop off board?

A

6

194
Q

What is a unit identifier approx. (3”x2”) attached to the front shield of the helmet?

A

Helmet identifier

195
Q

What is a hard plastic board designed to hold passports and assist company officers in organizing and documenting an incident if the company officer assumes command?

A

Unit command board

196
Q

What is a large plastic board that has velco or magnetic attachments and large writing areas to track units and assignments for an entire incident?

A

Chief officers command board

197
Q

Who shall carry the primary passport?

A

The unit officer

198
Q

Where will the unit passport be affixed?

A

The officers door of the apparatus or the passenger door of the rescue

199
Q

What order are name tags placed on the passport?

A

unit officer, then driver, then all other personnel on the unit

200
Q

On multi-company incidents where is the initial accountability location for the incident?

A

the first arriving engine or truck

201
Q

What is a roll call by unit off all personnel on the incident scene called?

A

Personnel accountability report (PAR)

202
Q

PAR checked can be done how?

A

visually, face-to-face, or by radio

203
Q

What shall the IC request from dispatch prior to the PAR check?

A

5 second alert tone

204
Q

Who shall the PAR check always begin with?

A

Units currently operating in the IDLH

205
Q

How many PAR attempts are made for a unit before an announcement is made by IC asking all unit on scene if they have knowledge of the missing unit’s location?

A

3

206
Q

If after 3 PAR attempts are made and there is no response from the missing unit what should IC do next?

A

Issue a mayday and activate the RIC

207
Q

A heat stress index above what temp indicates the need to have a rehab area?

A

90 degrees

208
Q

A wind chill index below what temp indicates the need to have a rehab area?

A

below 10 degrees

209
Q

The rehab unit shall include how many EMT’s or Medic for every how many personnel assigned to rehab?

A

1 EMT or Medic for every 10 personnel

210
Q

During heat stress, personnel should consume at least how much water per hour?

A

1 to 1 1/2 quarts of water

211
Q

The AHJ should provide food at the scene of an extended incident when units are engaged for how long?

A

2 or more hours

212
Q

How cold should beverages in rehab be?

A

about 40 degrees

213
Q

Rest show be no less than how long?

A

10 minutes

214
Q

What is the minimum number of units dispatched to automatic fire alarms?

A

1

215
Q

What units consist of a Brush fire task force?

A 
3 brush trucks
3 engines
1 DC
1 Division of forestry unit
1 ambulance
1 Sunstar rehab unit
216
Q

Who may be able to provide air assistance for wild land fire?

A

PCSO

217
Q

The initial size up of a wildland fire consist of what?

A 
Location
Spread rate and direction
ID hazards
Any threats to improvements
Anticipated need resources
218
Q

What is critical to the outcome of the incident after a terrorist event?

A

Early implementation of a unified command system

219
Q

Radio communication is prohibited during a bomb threat until clearance is given by law enforcement within how many feet of a car bomb?

A

1500ft

220
Q

Radio communication is prohibited during a bomb threat until clearance is given by law enforcement within how many feet of a package bomb?

A

1000ft

221
Q

Radio communication is prohibited during a bomb threat until clearance is given by law enforcement within how many feet of a pipe bomb?

A

500ft

222
Q

What is the minimum distance for a triage site away from the hot zone of a detonated device?

A

330ft uphill/upwind

223
Q

What is an NBC device?

A

Nuclear/Biological/Chemical terrorism device

224
Q

Who is the lead agency on an NBC device?

A

The fire department

225
Q

What will be the primary concern with an NBC device?

A

Decontamination

226
Q

Biological contamination may not be immediately detectable and could take up to how long before there are signs or symptoms?

A

72 hours

227
Q

What are the primary routes of exposure for a biological agent?

A

Inhalation and ingestion

228
Q

What are the 5 categories of chemical weapons?

A
  1. Nerve agent
  2. Blister agent
  3. Blood agent
  4. Choking agent
  5. Irritating agent
229
Q

How many stories does it take for a structure to be considered a high rise?

A

4 or more

230
Q

What shall be sounded up confirmation of a working fire in a high rise?

A

a second alarm

231
Q

What gpm is considered adequate water flow for a high rise fire?

A

250gpm

232
Q

What are the minimum units that will respond to a High rise structure fire?

A

4 engines
2 trucks
1 squad
2 DC’s

233
Q

What will the crew of the first arriving engine responsibility be on a high rise fire?

A

fire attack

234
Q

The elevators will not be used in a high rise fire if the fire is located on or below what floor?

A

the 6th floor

235
Q

Where is the attack line connected to the stand pipe on a high rise fire?

A

The floor below the fire floor

236
Q

Who assumes control of the stand pipe connection in a high rise fire?

A

The D/O of the 1st arriving engine

237
Q

What are the 4 duties of the 1st arriving truck if aerial operations are not immediately necessary?

A

Locate the fire
Forcible entry
Search and Rescue
Ventilation of the fire floor

238
Q

The aerial apparatus should be positioned based on what?

A

the assessment of the fire location and need for a secondary means of egress

239
Q

What does the D/O of the second arriving engine do on a high rise fire?

A

Establishes a water supply to their own engine and supplies the FDC

240
Q

Where does the remainder of the crew from the second engine on scene go at a high rise fire?

A

Proceeds to the fire floor to assist the 1st engine with hose line deployment

241
Q

At a high rise fire who established lobby control?

A

The 1st arriving squad

242
Q

After assuming lobby control, what other tasks does the 1st arriving squad have?

A

securing and controlling elevators
preparing to pressurize the stairwells
uses any internal communications systems for the building
controls building maintenance systems
attempts to contact building engineer/maintenance
controls movement of evacuate occupants

243
Q

Where does the 3rd arriving engine go and what is their assignment at a high rise fire?

A

Floor below the fire fire floor for RIC

244
Q

Where does the 4th arriving engine go and what is their assignment at a high rise fire?

A

floor above the fire floor to control vertical fire spread and auto extension

245
Q

Where does the 2nd arriving truck go and what is their assignment at a high rise fire?

A

The floor above the fire floor to perform search and rescue, forcible entry, ventilation, and control vertical fire spread and auto exposure

246
Q

What is the role of the 1st arriving DC at a high rise fire?

A

established command and accountability

247
Q

What is the role of the 2nd arriving DC at a high rise fire?

A

Conducts a 360 if possible and assumes fire floor division supervisor

248
Q

What are the minimum units that are dispatched on a 2nd alarm at a high rise fire?

A

3 engines
1 truck
1 squad
1 DC

249
Q

Where shall second alarm unit anticipate being sent to on a high rise fire?

A

the staging floor

250
Q

All 3rd or greater alarm companies shall report to where?

A

base

251
Q

Base shall be located at what minimum distance from high rise fire?

A

a minimum of 200ft from the fire building

252
Q

What are the 5 key positions of the Incident Management System that need to be filled at a high rise fire?

A
  1. Fire floor division supervisor
  2. Command post aide
  3. Safety officer
  4. Staging floor supervisor
  5. Base supervisor
253
Q

What 3 main components should be set up on the staging floor?

A
  1. Medical with an EMS crew
  2. Rehab
  3. Equipment cache
254
Q

All elevators will be recalled and placed into what phase during a high rise fire?

A

Phase 2

255
Q

How often shall the elevator car be stopped while ascending during a high rise fire?

A

Every 5 floors

256
Q

What 6 pieces of equipment shall be maintained by crews using the elevator at a high rise fire?

A
  1. Full PPE
  2. Portable radio
  3. Forcible entry tools
  4. Portable extinguishers
  5. Folding Ladder
  6. Spare air bottle
257
Q

What is the minimum recommended GPM for smooth bore nozzle at a high rise fire?

A

250 GPM

258
Q

What is the minimum length of fire hose on a high rise pack?

A

150ft

259
Q

All stand pipe systems shall be pumped at a minimum of how many GPM?

A

150GPM

260
Q

For 2 1/2” hose what is the friction loss per 50ft of hose?

A

6psi

261
Q

What is the PSI for elevation loss?

A

5psi

262
Q

Depending on the height of the building and wind condition how far can broken glass from a window travel?

A

200ft

263
Q

Window and other exterior openings should not be opened without first consulting with who?

A

IC

264
Q

Wind speed over what MPH should be noted by all companies responding?

A

20mph

265
Q

What is the ventilation priority at a high rise fire?

A
  1. Fire floor
  2. Top floor
  3. All floors between
  4. floors below the fire
266
Q

Only use the elevator in a high rise if the fire is on or above which floor?

A

The 7th floor

267
Q

Where can the elevator taken up to in a high rise fire?

A

2 floors below the fire floor

268
Q

Who will determine and announce the attack stairwell at a high rise fire?

A

The 1st engine

269
Q

Which class of standpipe system is designed specifically for use by FD personnel?

A

Class 1

270
Q

Which class of standpipe system is designed specifically for occupant use and not the FD?

A

Class 2

271
Q

Class 2 standpipe system has what side and type of discharge outlet?

A

2 1/2” male fitting and valve

272
Q

Which class of standpipe system is a combination system?

A

Class 3

273
Q

What was the required residual pressure of a standpipe system prior to 1993?

A

65psi

274
Q

What was the required residual pressure of a standpipe system after 1993?

A

100psi

275
Q

Where static pressure at a hose connection on a standpipe system exceeds 175psi what shall be provided to limit static and residual pressure?

A

A pressure regulating device

276
Q

What is a valve or device designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure under flowing (residual) conditions only?

A

PRD (pressure regulating device)

277
Q

What is designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure to a specific valve under both flowing and non flowing conditions?

A

PRV (pressure regulating valve)

278
Q

What PSI should the FCD be charged to if there is no fire pump?

A

150psi

279
Q

What PSI should the FDC be charged too if there is a fire pump?

A

100psi

280
Q

After an FDC with no fire pump is charged to 150psi should the PSI be increased for friction loss to the fire floor?

A

yes

281
Q

After an FDC with a fire pump is charged to 150psi should the PSI be increased for friction loss to the fire floor?

A

no

282
Q

Flammable liquids have a flash point below what temp?

A

100 degree F

283
Q

If there is a confirmed non liquid/liquid gas leak personnel shall refrain from using what at the scene?

A

radio communications

284
Q

Where shall the first arriving engine company position itself at a non-liquid leak outside of a structure?

A

200ft upwind

285
Q

All units shall stage where on a non-liquid leak inside any structure?

A

600ft upwind

286
Q

What shall be established by using gas monitoring devices at a non-liquid leak inside any strucure?

A

Hazard zones

287
Q

Where shall the first arriving engine company at a liquid leak position itself when possible?

A

Upstream and upwind of the leak

288
Q

On liquid leaks first responders should be able to handle spills up to how many gallons?

A

25

289
Q

Who most be notified for spills greater than 25 gallons or any amount when the spill involves a body of water, has an environmental impact, or requires any evacuation?

A

State watch desk

290
Q

Operations by HazMat first responders may be grouped into what 4 general categories?

A
  1. Recognition
  2. Rescue, Evacuation, Isolation, Decontamination
  3. Mitigation
  4. Information Gathering
291
Q

What the the 3 common HAZMAT placarding systems?

A

N.F.P.A 704
United nations numbering system
The DOT system

292
Q

Which HAZMAT classification system uses a diamond divided into 4 small squares with a 0 through 4 in each square?

A

N.F.P.A 704 system

293
Q

Which HAZMAT classification system uses a 2 part system which the first part dividing materials into 9 classes with the classification number at the bottom of the diamond and second part assigning 4 digit numbers to specific substances?

A

U.N. Numbering system

294
Q

Which HAZMAT classification system classifies hazardous materials according to their primary danger and assigns standardized symbols to identify the classes?

A

The DOT system

295
Q

What are the minimum resources needed for gross decon?

A

2 engines and 1 truck

296
Q

Where should gross decon be located?

A

In the warm zone, uphill and upwind from the hot zone

297
Q

How should apparatus be placed for gross decon?

A

2 engines 20’ apart and parallel and 1 truck in line with the supply engine with the ladder slightly elevated and the nozzle pointing downward in a fog pattern

298
Q

What can initially be used for gross decon while setting up the gross decon corridor with the apparatus?

A

1 3/4” fog lines

299
Q

What shall be used on the engines discharge in the gross decon corridor?

A

2 1/2” fog nozzle

300
Q

How many gallons of absorbent should be adequate to absorb a 5 gallon hydrocarbon spill?

A

10 gallons

301
Q

Where should contaminated materials of a spilled hydrocarbon be placed?

A

in a 4 mil plastic bag

302
Q

What must be done to contaminated materials once it is placed in a 4 mil plastic bag?

A

numbered and logged on the accumulation sheet and placed in a 30 gallon drum

303
Q

If a 30 gallon drum is used what shall it be lined with the reduce leakage?

A

a 4 mil plastic bag

304
Q

Containers of contaminated hydro carbons can only remain on site for how long after the 1st contamination

A

180 days

305
Q

What are the 3 procedures for positive pressure ventilation?

A
  1. Cover the entrance opening
  2. Regulate the exhaust opening
  3. Control the flow of air between the entrance and exhaust openings.
306
Q

What is it called when a fire is in a free burning stage and firefighters make an exhaust opening to the outside or improve an existing opening where the fire is already exhausting and then use a blower to slightly increase interior pressure?

A

Positive Pressure Attack

307
Q

How far away should a blower be positioned from the ventilation opening for maximum effectiveness?

A

4-6 feet

308
Q

Crews must not enter during PPA until the blower has pressurized the structure for how long?

A

30-60 seconds

309
Q

What is a vessel with a minimum of 500gpm fire pump?

A

Fire boat

310
Q

What is a vessel without a fire pump?

A

A marine unit

311
Q

What are jet skis/wave runners classified as?

A

A light marine

312
Q

What is capable of extend submerged operations?

A

A dive team

313
Q

What is capable of rapid surface extraction/rescue?

A

Wet team

314
Q

Potential launch sites where all water resources are able to launch is color coded by what color?

A

Green

315
Q

Potential launch sites where only small water rescue resources are able to launch is color coded which color?

A

Yellow

316
Q

Potential launch sites where water level does not allow for safe launch and recovery of any sized water rescue resource?

A

Red

317
Q

What 4 agencies are currently participating in PCTRT?

A

Clearwater, Largo, Pinellas Park, St. Pete

318
Q

Which tier is a small scale act of violence that is to be handled at the local jurisdiction level?

A

Tier I

319
Q

Which tier is an actual act of violence towards fire rescue personnel that has occurred in a specific area and there are no indications that the situation involves any other related acts?

A

Tier II

320
Q

During a Tier II incident what is the minimum distance a a perimeter shall be established in all directions from where the act occurred?

A

1/2 Mile

321
Q

Which tier is an inter-related series of violent events that occurred in a specific area?

A

Tier III

322
Q

During the daylight hours what is the minimum size of an LZ?

A

80ft X 80ft

323
Q

During night landings or diminished weather conditions what is the minimum size of an LZ?

A

100ft X 100ft

324
Q

What is the maximum acceptable ground slope of an LZ?

A

10-12 Degrees

325
Q

How far away should an LZ be from patient care activities?

A

75-100 yards

326
Q

What marks a sight for an LZ and where are the placed?

A

4 blue strobe lights at each corner

327
Q

The LZ officer will position himself where until the pilot recognizes the LZ?

A

In the center of the LZ

328
Q

What information shall the LZ Officer provide to the aircraft?

A

1) Location of LZ
2) Number of patients
3) Wind direction and speed
4) Description of LZ including surrounding hazards
5) Special instructions or considerations

329
Q

What 3 words will be used to halt any unsafe landing conditions?

A

Abort, abort, abort

330
Q

In a boat fire first arriving truck company shall place and set up their unit to provide what?

A

Access to fire floor or egress from above fire, an elevated master stream for exposures, ventilation and exterior stand pipes with vessels 3 stories above the water line.

331
Q

What is the first thing a firefighter should do to transmit a mayday?

A

Push the Sims Code H button on portable radio

332
Q

What is the second thing a firefighter should do to transmit a mayday?

A

Transit identifying unit number and repeat mayday 3 times

333
Q

What does LUNAR stand for when transmitting a mayday?

A 
Location
Unit
Name
Assignment
Resources Needed
334
Q

Once a firefighter recognizes he or she is lost or trapped what must be manually activated to sound the audible tone?

A

PASS device

335
Q

After an unconfirmed Sims Code H activation and an unsuccessful attempt to contact the IC, what must be immediately done?

A

Respond a full alarm to assist

336
Q

A strike team refers to what?

A

5 like units of the same kind of single resource

337
Q

A task force refers to what?

A

5 units which not need be identical with a common communication and assigned leader and aid

338
Q

What is the staffing for a SERT team?

A

Engine, minimum 4 persons and 1 officer. A rescue, minimum 1 medic and 1 EMT. Water tanker, minimum 2 person crew with 1 officer. Brush, minimum 2 person crew with 1 officer

339
Q

What are the 3 classes of traffic incidents?

A

Long term, intermediate term and short term

340
Q

What class of traffic incident has an expected duration of more than 2 hours?

A

Long term

341
Q

What class of traffic incident has an expected duration of 30 minutes - 2 hours?

A

Intermediate term

342
Q

What class of traffic incident has an expected duration under 30 minutes?

A

Short term

343
Q

Traffic cones or other similar devices shall be deployed how?

A

15 foot intervals upstream of a blocking apparatus

344
Q

Where is the furthest traffic cone placed at a traffic incident?

A

75 feet upstream

345
Q

What must be donned prior to exiting the emergency vehicle at a traffic incident?

A

Structural PPE, Class II or Class III safety vest

346
Q

High volume, limited access highways include what?

A

Interstate, tollways and multi-lane roadways

347
Q

What is the minimum number of lanes that should be blocked in an HVLAH incident?

A

Minimum 2 lanes plus the shoulder or blockage of 3 driving lanes

348
Q

How far is the last cone placed on an HVLAH incident?

A

150 feet

349
Q

150 feet is a minimum of how many traffic cones?

A

10

350
Q

When opening up the roadway after a traffic incident, which lane is open first?

A

The lane closest to the center of the roadway

351
Q

What is a rapid, but orderly withdraw of personnel from inside the building or hazard area?

A

Tactical withdraw

352
Q

Does a tactical withdraw require the use of retreat tones and sounding of air horns?

A

No

353
Q

What is used for situations that will require all personnel to immediately abandon their positions and current assignments and exit the building?

A

Emergency retreat

354
Q

The emergency retreat command shall include what?

A

Emergency retreat tones from dispatch and sounding of air horns from apparatus for 15 seconds

355
Q

What 7 procedures are used to execute a tactical withdraw?

A

Make a general command statement
Call dispatch and request a 5 second alert tone
Make another general command statement
Begin a PAR check
Complete PAR check
Once PAR check is complete, ask dispatch for 5 second alert tone
Make another command statement on the radio

356
Q

During an active assailant what does the term THREAT stand for?

A 
T - Threat suppression
H - Hemorrhage control
RE - Rapid extrication to safety
A - Assessment by medical providers
T - Transport to definitive care
357
Q

What 2 situations require personnel to wear body armor?

A

Active assailant incidents, times of civil unrest

358
Q

What is a forward location where victims can be assembled for movement from areas of risk to the treatment area?

A

Casualty collection point

359
Q

Who is a group of responding LEA and FR personnel who enter the warm zone to affect a rescue of injured persons inside the warm zone?

A

A rescue team

360
Q

What is START an acronym for?

A

Simple Triage And Rapid Treatment

361
Q

All fire rescue personnel that were exposed to products of combustion should perform gross decon prior to when?

A

Entering rehab, leaving the incident or training activites

362
Q

How shall gross decon area location be designated?

A

By deploying an approved decon hoseline, and marking the nozzle location with a traffic cone

363
Q

How shall decon bag openings be closed?

A

Twisted, taped closed then goosenecked

364
Q

In rapidly moving water of more than how many feet should rescuers use a lifeline and PFD’s?

A

2ft

365
Q

In sustained wind speed greater than ____ mph there will be no use of aerial or extension ladder, no roof operations, and type 2 ambulances will no longer respond to calls.

A

35mph

366
Q

In sustained wind speed of less than ____ mph normal response of fire apparatus, medic units, fire-based transport units, and type 3 ambulances will continue.

A

50mph

367
Q

In sustained wind speeds between ___ mph and ___ mph the the IC for each agency will make the “go, no go” decision based upon the available information.

A

50mph and 75mph

368
Q

In sustained wind speed greater that ___ mph all responses will stop.

A

75mph

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