1) NATOPs 1, 4, 7, 19 / EP- EMIF, Hi, Lo Flashcards

1
Q

Engine malfunction in flight

2 W

A
  1. Control Nr

WARNING - flying with greater than 110% torque with one engine in operative may result in unrecoverable decay of Nr in the event of dual engine failure.

  1. Contingency power - On
  2. Single-engine conditions - Establish
  3. ENG Anti-Ice switches - As Required

WARNING - with engine anti-ice on, up to 18% torque available is lost. Torque may be reduced by as much as 49% with improperly operating engine inlet anti-ice valves.

  1. External Cargo/stores/fuel - jettison/dump, as required
  2. Identify Malfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Engine High-side Failure in Flight

A
  1. EMIF - Perform
  2. PCL (malfunctioning engine) - retard to set:
    A. TQ 10% below good engine or
    B. Matched Ng or
    C. Matched TGT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Engine High-side Failure on Deck

A
  1. PCLs - Idle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Engine low-side Failure

A
  1. EMIF - Perform
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dimensions

A
Folded- 42' 10"
Length- 64' 10"
Rotor diameter - 53' 8"
Tail rotor - 11'
Height - 16' 10"
Clearance for 180* turn - 84' 0"
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Seating/PAX

1 N

A

SUW- 3 seats 2 pax
ASW- 2 seats 1 pax
LOG/SAR- 5 seats 3 pax

Note - up to five seats may be installed but a max of four passengers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Sonobouy Launcher psi?

A

1175 +- 25 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

With high winds (30 kt’s) and AC power on the stab can

A

Automatically program and caused damage, consideration should be given to disengaging auto mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Without a/c power which position of fire extinguisher will work?

A

Reserve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is interrupted when performing CHIP IBIT

A

28 Vdc.

WCA’s and master caution will not respond for 40 sec

Chip IBIT is complete in 2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Eng should be cooled for _____ below _____. If not wait _____ hrs if not restarting with in _____ min.

A

2 min, 90% Ng, 4 hrs, 5 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

To reduce droop stop pounding _____ collective may be used for startup and shut down.

A

.5 in and 1.5 in respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MADCD

A
Maintain aircraft control 
Alert crew 
Determine precise nature of the problem 
Complete appropriate emergency procedure or      take action appropriate for problem
Determine landing criteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define single engine condition

A

A flight regime that permits sustained flight with one engine inoperative.

Increase power available
Decrease power required.
attain Single-engine Airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is NATOPS?

A

The Naval Air Training and Operating Procedure Standardization program is a positive approach towards improving combat readiness the creating substantial reduction in aircraft to mishap rate.

Should conflict exist between the training and operating procedures found in this manual and those and other publications, this manual will govern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

WOW switch is located where?

A

Left Main mount.

17
Q

The shimmy dampener does what?

A

Causes both of the tail wheels to rotate at the same rate

18
Q

What are the 5 switches to get the PYLON FLIGHT light?

Ensure you have _________ before folding the pylon.

A

Pylon lock pin
5* switch
Tail rotor indexer
2 stabilator lockpins

Ext power or BATT ON.

19
Q

What do you check in the Engine compartment on pre-flight?

A
  1. Engine Oil/Fuel PDI’s
  2. Engine Oil Filler caps are secured
  3. Engine Oil level
  4. Deswirl Duct Clamps
  5. Engine Compartment
20
Q

What are your post flight checks?

A
  1. Interior/exterior equipment
  2. Tires/struts
  3. Leaks
  4. Missing panels
21
Q

What are the missions of the MH-60R?

A

Surface Warfare (SUW), Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW), Electronic Warfare (EW), Command and Control (CC), and Non-Combat Operations (NCO)

22
Q

Improper installation of the LDS roll pin may result in what?

What is the proper installation of the LDS?

A

An Engine Overspeed

The LDS roll pin protruding from both sides off the LDS control cable rod and the collective bias tube with the safety wire intact

23
Q

What is a successful RADALT test?

A

RADALT tone (5+-1 beeps), indicator reading 100+-10 ft for approximately 5 seconds, and yellow tape illuminated up to DH setting or 100 ft, whichever is lower

24
Q

What is a successful TACAN test?

A

BRG 1 needle swinging to 180(+-3) for 5 seconds, DME indication of 0.0 nm (+-0.5 nm), NAV needle centering (within 1/2 dog), and a TO (if course of 180 selected)/FROM (if course of 000 selected) indication

25
Q

What do you do for a stab check?

A
  • Starts between 34-42 Trailing-edge down
  • Press the TEST button until stab movement stops, indicator should have moved 5-12 up
  • Press the AUTO CONTROL pushbutton, that should acknowledge the tone and stab should go back to 34-42
  • MAN SLEW switch UP. Should take 4-8 seconds to move the stab 5-10 Trailing-edge up
  • Press the AUTO Control pushbutton, stab should return to its original position
26
Q

How do you minimize the occurence of Np Shaft rub?

What causes Np Shaft rub?

A

Utilize the No Rotor Brake Start procedure for routine engine start and rotor engagement

Np shaft rub occurs due to asymmetric heating of the Np shaft by a hot engine.

27
Q

Ground idle Ng split greater than 3 percent is an indication of what?

A

LDS roll pin failure

28
Q

When can you deviate from NATOPS?

A

No manual can cover every situation or be a substitute for sound judgement; operational situations may require modification of the procedures contained within NATOPS.

29
Q

What are the Dual-Concurrence Items?

A
  1. PCLs.
  2. Engine T-handles.
  3. Fuel selectors.
  4. Generators.
  5. CMPTR PWR switches.
  6. EGI PWR switches.
30
Q

7 skills of CRM?

A

SADCLAM

  • Situational Awareness
  • Assertiveness
  • Decision making
  • Communication
  • Leadership
  • Adaptability/Flexibility
  • Mission Analysis
31
Q

5 steps of ORM?

A

IAMIS

  • Identify Hazards
  • Assess Hazards
  • Make Risk Decisions
  • Implement Controls
  • Supervise
32
Q

3 levels of ORM?

A
  • Time Critical
  • Deliberate
  • In-depth
33
Q

4 Principles of ORM?

A
  1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost.
  2. Accept no unnecessary risk.
  3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning.
  4. Make risk decisions at the right level.
34
Q

How do you fly through Turbulent Air?

A
  • For moderate turbulance, limit airspeed to blade stall speed minus 15 knots.
  • For light turbulance, limit airspeed to blade stall speed minus 10 knots
  • The collective position, when adjusted for the airspeeds mentioned above, should not be adjusted and the AI should be used as the primary pitch instrument.