Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

355 > 1- Cardiovascular diseases > Flashcards

1- Cardiovascular diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 types of microbial infections of endocardium/heart valves?

A
  • Bacterial infections
  • Fungal infections
  • Viral infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How are the infections of endocarditis classified?

A

1.) by organisms causing the infection
2.) Type of valves being infected
3.) The source of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the risk factors associated with these infections?

A

1.) Damaged heart valves
2.) Artificial heart valves
3.) Congenital heart defects
4.) History of endocarditis
5.) History of IV drug use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the clinical presentations of infective endocarditis?

A

1.) Fever
2.) Heart murmur
3.) Extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the clinical result from the immune system detecting & trying to combat pathogens?

A

Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the clinical presentation that results in disruption in blood flow in the heart, valves not completely closing, & backflow of blood (turbulence which can auscultated)

A

Heart murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 4 types of clinical presentations underlying extremities?

A

1.) Osler nodes
2.) Janeway lesiokns
3.) Spinter hemorrhages
4.) Nail clubbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are raised red lesions on hands & feet know as?

A

Osler nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are flat papules on palms of hands or soles of feet recognized as?

A

Janeway lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are streaks of blood under fingernails known as?

A

Splinter hemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are enlargement of finger tips known as?

A

Nail clubbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the oral presentations of infective endocarditis?

A

Petechiae (found on the palatal & mucosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the dental management steps for infective endocarditis?

A

1.) Bleeding & bacteremia
2.) Antibiotic prophylaxis
3.) Treatment planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What can dental hygiene treatment induce in people with infective endocarditis?

A

They can result in transient bacteremia, further increasing the risk factors for patients with infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the hypothesis of treating bacteremia in infective endocarditis?

A

That antibiotic prophylaxis will reduce bacteremia & therefore decrease the risk of infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the recommended doses & instructions of antibiotic prophylaxis in people with infective endocarditis?

A

1.) Single dose 30-60 minutes prior to the appointment
2.) May be given up to 2 hr after procedure if not given prior beforehand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the treatment planning recommendations for infective endocarditis?

A

1.) Antibiotic prophylaxis
2.) Emphasis on optimized oral health to reduce bacterial burden
3.) Appointment scheduling:
- appts > 6hrs may need additional prophylactic antibiotics
- allow at least 10 days between sessions (clearance of antibiotic resistant organisms from oral cavity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the common ways the bacteria can enter in the body to induce a potential case of infective endocarditis?

A

Via the mouth or intravenously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What will occur if the bacteria adheres to an area that is injured or inflamed?

A

The bacteria will persist in this particular area through adherence & will eventually proliferate & disseminate to leave to other areas of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What similiar role does dissemination have when it leaves the area proliferation to transport itself to other areas of the body?

A

It can induce a blood clotting role in other areas of the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when would we recommend antibiotic prophylaxis for individuals with infective endocarditis?

A

When these individuals have:
1.) Prosthetic cardiac valve
2.) Previous infective endocarditis
3.) Congenital heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of dental procedures would we require a patient to have taken an antibiotic prophylaxis prior to treatment?

A

Dental procedures involving manipulation of gingival tissue or the periapical region of teeth or perforation of the oral mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Are dental procedures such as routine anesthetics, dental radiographs, placement of removal prosthondontic/orthodontic appliances call for a need of an antibiotic prophylaxis?

A

No they do not require an antibiotic prophylaxis as they do not involve manipulation of the gingival tissue or periapical region of teeth/perforstion of the oral mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How much amoxicillin will be given ORALLY to an ADULT 30-60 minutes before a procedures

A

2g (2 grams)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How much amoxicillin will be given ORALLY to a CHILD 30 - 60 minutes before a procedure?

A

50mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

If the patient cannot take the antibiotic via oral administration, what would we be the other alternative?

A

Via intravenous or intramuscular administration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the agents used if oral administration cannot be given?

A

Ampicillin + Cefazolin
Ceftriazone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How much Cefazolin/Ampicillin IV/IM is given to an ADULT 30-60 mins prior to an appointment?

A

2g IM or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How much Ceftriaxone IV/IM is given to an ADULT 30-60 mins prior to an appointment?

A

1g IM or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How much Amipicillin/ Cefazoline or Ceftriazone IV/IM is given to a CHILD 30-60 mins prior to an appointment?

A

50mg/kg IM or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the alternative agents given to a patient when they are allergic to penicillins or ampicillins, but can be administered ORALLY?

A

Cephalexin, clindamycin & clarithormycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the alternative agents given to a patient when they are allergic to penicillins or ampicillin, and must be administered INTRAVENOUSLY or INTRAMUSCULARLY?

A

Cefazolin, ceftriaxone & clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How much cephalexin ORALLy can be given to an adult 30-60mins prior to an appointment?

A

2g (2 grams) / 50mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How much clindamycin ORALLY & IV/IM can be given to an adult 30-60 mins prior to an appointment?

A

600 mg / 20mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how much clarithromycin ORALLY & IV/IM can be given to an adult 30-60 mins prior to an appt?

A

500mg / 15mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How much cefazoline/ceftriaxone can be given to an ADULT & CHILD via IM/IV?

A

1g for an adult / 50mg/kg for a child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How much clinadymycin can be given to an ADULT & CHILD via IM/IV?

A

600 mg for an adult / 20mg/kg IM or IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is another word of hypertension & what is the basis of its physiology?

A

it is known as high blood pressure.
It is due to the persistently elevated blood pressure which is often non-symptomatic but can cause organ damage.

39
Q

Why can it be considered “non-symptomatic”?

A

Due to the unawareness that individuals might have towards hypertension
& that people who are on medications may not have adequate control over their BP.

40
Q

How is hypertension measured in?

A

Systolic & diastolic

41
Q

What does the pathophysiology of hypertension consist of?

A

1.) Mechanisms involving increase in cardiac output & peripheral resistance
2.) Abnormal sodium transport
3.) Increased vasoconstrictor
4.) Deficiency in vasodilators

42
Q

What are the two main mechanisms used in control of hypertension?

A

Cardiac output & peripheral resistance

43
Q

How would an abnormal sodium transport occur?

A

It would occur due to an increase in intracellular sodium, making the cell more sensitive to sympathetic stimulation (increasing heart rate)

44
Q

What is responsible for the increase in vasoconstriction?

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone systems

45
Q

What is responsible for a deficiency in vasodilation in hypertension?

A

the bradykinin & nitric oxides

46
Q

T or F <120 SBP + <80 DBP are considered normal BP

A

True

47
Q

According to the JNC, when a patient has a SBP/DBP of 120-139/80-89, what kind of BP are they considered to have?

A

Prehypertension

48
Q

According to the JNC, when a patient has a SBP/DBP of 140-159/90-99, what kind of BP are they considered to have?

A

Stage 1 hypertension

49
Q

According to the JNC, when a patient has a SBP/DBP of >160/>100, what kind of BP are they considered to have?

A

Stage 2 hypertension

50
Q

What are the types of managements used for hypertension?

A

Lifestyle changes + phamacological interventions

51
Q

What kind of lifestyle changes would be required to manage hypertension?

A

Weight loss
Diet
Exercise

52
Q

What kind of pharmacological interventions are needed to manage hypertension?

A

Diuretics
Beta blockers
ACE inhibitors
Calcium channel blockers

53
Q

What are the dental managements needed when a patient is classified under ASA I?

A

safe to proceed with tx
encourage client to see physician
slightly elevated BP

54
Q

What are the dental managements needed when a patient is classified under ASA II?

A

safe to proceed with tx
encourage visit to physician
CONTINUOUSLY monitor BP
moderately elevated BP

55
Q

What occurs when a patient is classified to be an ASA III & IV?

A

INITIATE a medical consult
NO dental treatment will be done
Take & record BP
provide warm blanket
Encourage patient to see their physician ASAP

56
Q

What are some treatment planning considerations needed for an individual with hypertension?

A
  • Establish good rapport
    stress/anxiety reduction (premed with sedatives + use of NO/O2
  • short morning appointments
    -cautious use of epinephrine
  • consider periodic intraoperative BP monitoring
  • Slow chair position changes
57
Q

How can cardiac output be impacted?

A

By heart rate + Stroke volume

58
Q

What controls the peripheral resistance in hypertension?

A

1.) Blood vessel diameter
2.) The vessel elasticity
3.) Blood viscosity
4.) Total blood volume

59
Q

What is an ischemic heart disease?

A

It is also known as a coronary artery disease.
occurs due to a REDUCTION in blood flow to the vessels that supply the muscle tissue of the heart.

60
Q

How does an ischemic heart disease typically occur?

A

It typically occurs due to a NARROWING of the coronary arteries.

61
Q

Name the risk factors by which can be associated to ischemic heart disease.

A

1.) Male
2.) Older age
3.) Genetics
4.) Hyperlipidemia
5.) Hypertension
6.) Smoking
7.) Physical inactivity
8.) Obesity
9.) Diabetes mellitus
10.) Stress.
11.) Depression

62
Q

What is the pathophysiology of an ischemic heart disease?

A

1.) It being with depositions of fatty plaques in coronary arteries by which break off in the circulation (embolism)

63
Q

What can an embolism cause in a blood circulation?

A

It can block/restrict the vessels, making them smaller (constricting)

64
Q

What can embolism ultimately lead to?

A

myocardial infarction (heart attack) or cardiac arrest

65
Q

myocardial infarction is a ______ or _______ of blood to an area of the heart, damaging the heart muscles.

A

Decrease, cessation

66
Q

What are the common symptoms of ischemic heart diseases in males?

A

1.) Pain in left arm
2.) Cold sweats
3.) Squeezing of chest

67
Q

What are the common symptoms of heart attacks in both males & females?

A

1.) Chest pressure
2.) Pain spreading to the neck, shoulder & jaw

68
Q

What are the common symptoms of heart attacks in females?

A

1.) Lower chest pain
2.) Back or jaw pain
3.) Unexplained fatigue/anxiety
4.) Nausea
5.) Shortness of breath
6.) Palpatations
7.) dizziness

69
Q

How does angina occur?

A
  • from a TEMPORARY disruption to blood flow to the heart
  • Does not cause permanent damage
  • May be a harbinger of myocardial infarction.
70
Q

What are the medical managements of ischemic heart diseases?

A

1.) Angioplasty/stent
2.) Coronary artery bypass grafts
3.) Phamacological agents

71
Q

What are some of the phamacological agents used to manage heart diseases?

A

1.) Aspirin
2.) Beta blockers
3.) Calcium channel blockers
4.) Statins
5.) ACE inhibitors

72
Q

What are some dental managements used to treat heart diseases?

A

1.) No direct effect to oral cavity
2.) Meds may have oral side effects
3.) Readiness for medical emergencies
- Nitroglycerine: vasodilator
- Oxygen
- ASA-aspirin
- Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR): Automated external defibrillator (AED)

73
Q

What are some treatment planning considerations taken with heart diseases?

A

1.) Stress reduction
2.) Scheduling: short, morning appts
3.) Bleeding: patients taking anticoagulants may have prolonged bleeding times
4.) Anesthesia: ensuring adequate pain managements during & after appts.
Limit use of epinephrine.

74
Q

What is a cardiac arrhythmia?

A

It is an irregular or abnormal heartbeats.

75
Q

how can cardiac arrhythmias arise?

A

From:
1.) Coronary artery disease
2.) Cardiomyopathy
3.) Injury to cardiac muscle
4.) Valve disorders
5.) Electrolyte imbalances in the blood
6.) Nervous system irregularities
7.) Genetics

76
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

When there is a SLOWER normal resting heart rate
(e.g: <60 bpm resting heart rate)

77
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

When there is a FASTER than normal resting heart rate
(e.g: >100bpm resting heart rate)

78
Q

What are 3 types of heart rhythm abnormalities?

A

1.) Premature contractions
2.) Fibrillation: Atrial & ventricular
3.) Long QT syndrome: extended time for ventricular systole & higher risk of torsade de pointes

79
Q

What are some medical management used to treat cardiac arrhythmias?

A

Medications:
- sodium channel disruption
- calcium channel blockers
- beta blockers
- anticoagulants

Pacemakers:
- regulation of heart rate

80
Q

What are dental management considerations needed for cardiac arrhythmias?

A

interference with pacemakers:
- can interfere with pacemaker function
- newer pacemakers have better shielding & less susceptible to interference

81
Q

What are some treatment planning considerations needed for cardiac arrhythmias?

A

Limit use of vasoconstrictors
stress & anxiety managements

82
Q

What is the definition of heart failure?

A

It is known as congestive heart failure:
It is due to the impaired ability of heart to fill (diastolic failure) or eject (sytolic failure) blood

83
Q

How can heart failure be caused by?

A

1.) Genetic factors
2.) Heart defects/diseases
3.) High BP
4.) Coronary artery diseases

84
Q

What side of the heart affects the blood pump to the lungs?

A

The right side.

85
Q

What can a right side failure cause in the heart?

A

Edema in the abdomen, legs
venous congestion

86
Q

What side of the heart affects the blood to pump to the body?

A

The left side.

87
Q

How can left side heart failure be caused by?

A

By peripheral resistance + weakened cardiac muscles

88
Q

What can the result of left side heart failure?

A

Can result in pulmonary hypertension

89
Q

What are some main symptoms caused by right heart failure?

A

1.) Congestion of peripheral tissues:
a.) liver congestion
b.) GI tract congestion
c.) edema + ascites

90
Q

What are some main symptoms caused by left heart failure?

A

1.) Decrease in cardiac output

2.) Pulmonary congestion

a.) Pulmonary edema
- orthopnea
-cough with frothy septum
- paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

b.) impaired gas exchange
- cyanosis + signs of hypoxia

91
Q

What are some medical managements used for heart failures? (p.8 :lecture 5)

A

1.) Diuretics
2.) ACE inhibitors
3.) Beta blockers
4.) Anticoagulants

92
Q

What are some dental management steps taken for heart failure?

A

Risk assessment:
- decompensated
- NYHA class I, II, III, IV are NOT candidates for elective treatment

93
Q

What are some MAJOR risk factors for serious incident in heart failure patients?

A

Myocardial infarction
Unstable angina
sudden death

94
Q

What are some treatment planning considerations needed for heart failure patients?

A

1.) Be cognizant of anxiety levels
2.) Anesthesia & analgesia: reduce pain + monitor epinephrine
3.) Potential for increased bleeding if on anticoagulants
4.) Continous blood pressure monitoring
5.) Chair position: supine position may not be tolerated, so put them in a semi-supine position.

355 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions