#1 Flashcards

1
Q

APGAR Score assesses ___ from birth and ___ to extrauterine life.

A
  • -neurologic recovery

- -immediate adaptation

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2
Q

When should APGAR Scores be taken?

A

1 and 5 minutes

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3
Q

What does APGAR stand for?

A
Activity
Pulse
Grimace
Appearance
Respirations
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4
Q

What is the APGAR Score for heart rate?

A
0 = absent
1 = <100
2 = >100
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5
Q

What is the APGAR Score for respiratory effort?

A
0 = absent
1 = slow and irregular
2 = easy; good crying
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6
Q

What is the APGAR Score for muscle tone?

A
0 = limp/flaccid
1 = some flexion 
2 = active motion
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7
Q

What is the APGAR Score for Reflex irritability?

A
0 = no response
1 = grimace
2 = vigorous cry
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8
Q

What is the APGAR Score for color?

A
0 = blue/pale
1 = acrocyanosis
2 = pink
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9
Q

What is a normal 1-minute APGAR score?

A

8-10

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10
Q

What 1-minute APGAR score is associated w/ some nervous system depression?

A

5-7

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11
Q

What 1-minute APGAR score is associated w/ severe depression, requiring immediate resuscitation?

A

0-4

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12
Q

What is a normal 5-minute APGAR Score?

A

8-10

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13
Q

What 5-minute APGAR Score indicates organ failure?

A

0-7

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14
Q

Estimates gestational age based on specific neuromuscular signs and physical characteristics

A

Ballard scoring system

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15
Q

Ballard Scoring System:

–Preterm = ?wks

A

Preterm = < 37 wks

Term = 37-42 wks

Postterm = > 42 wks

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16
Q

What are the birthweight classifications for:

  • -Low birth weight
  • -Normal birth weight
A

Low birth weight = < 2500 g

Normal birth weight = > 2500 g

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17
Q

What is the newborn classifications for:

  • -Small for gestational age
  • -Appropriate for gestational age
  • -Larger for gestational age
A

SGA = < 10th percentile

AGA = 10-90th percentile

LGA = > 90th percentile

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18
Q

Preterm AGA infants are more prone to what 4 pathologies?

A
  • -Respiratory distress syndrome
  • -Apnea
  • -Patent ductus arteriosus
  • -Infection
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19
Q

What is believed to be a big cause of Preterm AGA infants?

A

Maternal smoking

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20
Q

Larger for gestational age may present w/ what pathology shortly after birth?

A

Metabolic abnormalities

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21
Q

When examining a newborn and having difficulty inspecting the eyes, what is a tip?

A

Dim lights and rock newborn

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22
Q

What are 7 things of appearance to note during the newborn exam sequence?

A
  • -Newborn’s color
  • -Size
  • -Body proportions
  • -Nutritional status
  • -Posture
  • -Respirations
  • -Head/extremities movements
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23
Q

Most normal term newborns lie in what position?

A

Symmetric position, w/ limbs semi-flexed (frog leg)

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24
Q

Where is the Apical pulse palpated?

A

3rd-5th IC space in the Midcalvicular line

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25
Q

Where is the Femoral pulse palpated at?

A

Halfway from the pubic tubercle to ASIS

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26
Q

What is a normal pulse for a newborn?

A

120-170

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27
Q

What is a normal pulse for a 1 year old?

A

80-160

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28
Q

What is a normal pulse for a 3 year old?

A

80-120

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29
Q

What is a normal pulse for a 6 year old?

A

75-115

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30
Q

What is a normal pulse for a 10 year old?

A

70-110

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31
Q

During respiration what body part will rise and fall for an infant?

A

Abdomen

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32
Q

During respiration what body part will rise and fall for a child?

A

Chest

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33
Q

What is the normal respiration rate for a newborn?

A

30-80

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34
Q

What is the normal respiration rate for a 1 year old?

A

20-40

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35
Q

What is the normal respiration rate for a 3 year old?

A

20-30

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36
Q

What is the normal respiration rate for a 6 year old?

A

16-22

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37
Q

What is the normal respiration rate for a 10 year old?

A

16-20

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38
Q

What technique is used to take blood pressure on infants?

A

Flush technique

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39
Q

When using the flush technique gradually diminish pressure until..

A

You see a sudden “flush” and return to usual color

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40
Q

At what age should take blood pressure in a child the same as you would in an adult?

A

After 2 years

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41
Q

To make sure you are using the correct cuff size, the width should cover how much of the upper arm?

A

2/3

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42
Q

What will happen to your reading if your cuff size is too wide?

A

Underestimate BP

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43
Q

What will happen to your reading if your cuff size is too narrow?

A

Artificially high BP

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44
Q

What are the 2 best spots to take temperature for an infant?

A

Rectal or axillary

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45
Q

When measuring infants heigh (birth to 24-36 months) what distances are you measuring?

A

Top of head to heel (dorsiflexed)

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46
Q

What tools are recommended to measure infant height?

A

Infant measuring mat or headrest paper

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47
Q

At what development state is it ok to measuring a child’s height standing?

A

If able to stand w/out support

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48
Q

When measuring child height standing, what body parts should touch the wall?

A

Heels
Buttocks
Shoulders

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49
Q

When measuring a child’s height, the outer Can thus of the eye should line up w/…

A

External auditory canal

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50
Q

What is the most accurate tool to measure infant weight?

A

Infant platform scale

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51
Q

What is the pp for the infant platform scale?

A

Sit or lie

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52
Q

Before placing infant on scale what should you do?

A

Place paper or blank under the infant and weight it out

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53
Q

When should head circumference measurements be taken?

A

Done at every health visit

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54
Q

Where should head circumference be taken at?

A

Occipital protuberance to Supra orbital prominence

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55
Q

Where should chest circumference measurements be taken at?

A

Around the nipple line

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56
Q

When recording measurements, you should chart appropriately for what 2 things?

A

Sex and age

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57
Q

What are average birth weights?

A

5.8 lbs - 8.13 lbs

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58
Q

What is the average length at birth?

A

18-22 inches

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59
Q

What is the average head circumference at birth?

A

13-14 inches

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60
Q

Most babies born to the same parents weight w/in how many ounces of each other at birth?

A

6 oz

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61
Q

If there is a lower birth weight what are 2 things to suspect?

A
  • -Congenital abnormality

- -Intrauterine growth retardation

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62
Q

What is the expected length growth in the 1st year of life?

A

50%

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63
Q

When should infant weight double and triple?

A
2x = 6 months
3x = 1 year
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64
Q

When should infant head be equal or exceed the chest by 2 cm?

A

Newborn to 5 months

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65
Q

When should the chest closely approximate the head circumference?

A

5 months to 2 years

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66
Q

When should the chest exceed head circumference?

A

> 2 years

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67
Q

What is the fastest growing body part during infancy?

A

Trunk

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68
Q

During infancy, fat increases until what age?

A

9 months of age

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69
Q

What is the fastest growing body part in children?

A

Legs

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70
Q

During childhood, fat increases slowly until what age?

A

7, then prepubertal fat spurt occurs

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71
Q

What is the fastest growing body part during adolescence?

A

Trunk and legs

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72
Q

What % of the ideal weight is gained during adolescence?

A

50%

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73
Q

What organ systems double in size during adolescence?

A

Skeletal mass and organ systems

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74
Q

What if head circumference increases rapidly or rises above percentile cureves?

A

Increased intracranial pressure

–Hydrocephalus, etc.

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75
Q

What if head circumference grows slowly or falls off percentile curves?

A

Microcephaly

–craniosynostosis, etc.

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76
Q

What are 3 physical manifestations associated w/ Turner syndrome?

A
  • -Webbed neck w/ low hairline
  • -Shield chest w/ widespread nipples
  • -Abnormal ears
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77
Q

Transient puffiness of the hands, feet, eyelids, legs pubis or sacrum occurs in some newborns is not a concern if it disappears w/in how many days?

A

2-3 days

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78
Q

Some newborns are bald while other are born w/ an inordinate amount of head hair, when should it shed and be replaced w/ permanent hair?

A

2-3 months

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79
Q

Dark-skinned newborns do not always manifest the intensity of melanosis that will be readily evident in 2-3 months. What are 2 exceptions?

A

Nail beds and skin of the scrotum

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80
Q

What is transient mottling when infant is exposed to decreased temperature?

A

Curtis marmorata

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81
Q

What is cyanosis of hands and feet?

A

Acrocyanosis

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82
Q

Acrocyanosis is a common response to cold, and underlying cardiac defect if more persistent in…

A

In the feet than hands

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83
Q

Whitish, moist cheese like substance that covers the infants body at birth?

A

Vernix caseosa

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84
Q

Vernix caseosa is a mixture of what 2 things?

A

Sebum and skin cells

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85
Q

Fine, silky hair covering the newborn shoulders and back?

A

Lanugo

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86
Q

Lanugo should be shed w/in how many days?

A

10-14 days

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87
Q

Flat, deep pink, localized areas usually seen in back of neck?

A

Telangiectatic nevi

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88
Q

Irregular areas of blue/blue-gray pigmentation. Usually in sacral and gluteal regions.

A

Dermal melanocytosis “Mongolian spots”

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89
Q

Mongolian spots are seen predominantly in what 4 populations?

A

Africans, native Americans, asians, latins

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90
Q

Pink popular rash w/ vesicles superimposed on the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen?

A

Erythema toxicum

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91
Q

When do erythema toxicum spots appear and resolve

A

24-48 hrs after birth and resolves after several days

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92
Q

What 2 things should be examined in newborns for hyperbilirubinemia?

A

Oral mucosa and sclera

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93
Q

Hyperbilirubinemia starts where and becomes worrisome if?

A

Starts at face and worrisome if descends below the nipples

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94
Q

What are 5 risk factors for hyperbilirubinemia?

A
  • -Breast feeding
  • -Hemolytic disease
  • -Infection
  • -Cephalhematoma
  • -Cutaneous or subcutaneous bleeds
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95
Q

Physiologic jaundice starts and usually disappears when?

A

Starts first day of life and disappears in 8-10 days

–(may persist for up to 3-4 weeks)

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96
Q

If jaundice is present in the first 24 hours or it is intense and/or persistent, you must consider..

A

Pathological jaundice

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97
Q

What 4 infections cause pathological jaundice?

A

Toxoplasmosis
Rubella
Herpes
Syphillis

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98
Q

What are 2 things to look at when examining skin creases?

A
  • -Asymmetrical creases on thighs

- -simian line

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99
Q

What does asymmetrical creases on thighs indicate?

A

Possible hip dysplasia

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100
Q

Skin turner is best evaluated by gently pinching a fold of ____ skin.

A

Abdominal skin

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101
Q

What does tenting indicate?

A

Dehydration or malnutrition

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102
Q

What are 5 causes of clubbing of the nails?

A
Respiratory disease
CVD
Thyroid disease
Cirrhosis
Colitis
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103
Q

Place nail surface of corresponding fingers together to measure for clubbing?

A

Schamroth Technique

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104
Q

Small white discrete papules on the face and bridge of the nose?

A

Milia

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105
Q

What causes milia?

A

Plugged sebaceous glands

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106
Q

Milia is common during what age?

A

First 2-3 months

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107
Q

Heat rash is caused by…

A

Occlusion of sweat glands during periods of head and high humidity

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108
Q

What is miliaria?

A

Heat rash

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109
Q

What are common locations for eczamatous rash in young children?

A

Face, elbow, knees

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110
Q

What is seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Cradle cap

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111
Q

Scalp lesions are scaling, adherent, thick, yellow, and crusted?

A

Seborrheic dermatitis

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112
Q

When do strawberry hemangioma become noticeable?

A

1-2 months after birth

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113
Q

When do strawberry hemangioma’s grow most rapidly?

A

1-6 months after birth

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114
Q

When do you expect strawberry hemangioma’s to begin shrinking?

A

12-18 months

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115
Q

What is trichotillomania?

A

Pulling hair out

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116
Q

Tuft of hair overlying the spinal column usually in the lumbosacral area?

A

Faun tail nexus

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117
Q

What pathology is associated w/ faun tail nevus?

A

Spina bifida occulta

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118
Q

What are evenly pigmented patches present at birth or shortly thereafter?

A

Cafe au lait spots

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119
Q

If you note > 5 patches w/ diameters > 1 cm in a child under 5, what pathology is it?

A

Neurofibromatosis

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120
Q

Axillary freckling or inguinal freckling is associated w/ what pathology?

A

Neurofibromatosis

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121
Q

When a port-wine stain involves the opthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve it may be associated w/ what 2 things?

A
  • -Sturge-Weber syndrome (seizures)

- -Occular defects

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122
Q

Supernumerary nipples are associated w/ what organ abnormalities?

A

Renal abnormalities

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123
Q

What lymph nodes in the neonate react quickly to any mild stimulus?

A

Cervical and postauricular chains

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124
Q

Is the enlargement of the tonsils in children an indication of a problem?

A

No

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125
Q

When do palatine tonsils begin to peak?

A

Ages 3-5

126
Q

What should normal lymph nodes feel like during the lymph exam?

A

Firm, discrete, moveable, < 5 mm

127
Q

What is the normal lymph node size in the cervical and inguinal regions?

A

Up to 1 cm

128
Q

You should investigate further if during the the lymph exam, they…

A

Grow rapidly or are fixed and immovable

129
Q

It is normal for a supraclavicular lymph node to be enlarged?

A

No

130
Q

At what age is uncommon for postauricular and occipital lymph nodes to enlarge?

A

> 2 years

131
Q

When is it uncommon for cervical and submandibular lymph nodes to be enlarged?

A

< 1 year

132
Q

What is the key initial symptom for infectious mono?

A

Fever

133
Q

What lymph nodes will be enlarged during infectious mono?

A

Anterior and posterior cervical chains

134
Q

Other than the cervical lymph nodes, what are 3 other exam findings for infectious mono?

A

Splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, rash

135
Q

What are the 3 key symptoms for strep pharyngitis?

A

Headache, fatigue, and abdominal pain

136
Q

What lymph nodes are enlarged for strep pharyngitis?

A

Anterior cervical nodes

137
Q

What is needed to confirm strep pharyngitis?

A

Throat culture

138
Q

What is the McIsaac Modification score?

A

Strep score

139
Q

According to McIsaac Modification of the Centor Strep Score, what is the key symptom or sign for diagnosing strep?

A

Absence of cough

140
Q

What 3 things should you look for when observing the head and neck?

A

Head control
Position
Movement

141
Q

Expect the skull to resume a normal shape and size after vaginal birth by…

A

W/in 1 week

142
Q

An edema of the scalp at teh neonates presenting part of the head. It often appears over the vertex of the newborn’s head as a result of pressure against the mother’s cervix during labor?

A

Capture succedaneum

143
Q

What is a subcutaneous edema?

–captured succendaneum or cephalhematoma

A

Caput succedaneum

144
Q

What is a subperiosteal bleed?

–caput succendaneum or cephalhematoma

A

Cephalhematoma

145
Q

Which crosses sutures lines?

–caput succedaneum or cephalhematoma

A

Caput succedaneum

146
Q

Which has a firm, well-defined edges?

–caput succedaneum or cephalhematoma

A

Cephalhematoma

147
Q

Premature union of cranial sutures?

A

Craiosynostosis

148
Q

What is a flat spot on a baby’s head?

A

Plagiocephaly

149
Q

Which has a palpable ridge?

–Positional head deformity or craniosynostosis

A

Craniosynostosis

150
Q

In which condition does the ear on flat side migrate forward?
–positional head deformity or cariosysnostosis

A

Positional head deformity

151
Q

In which condition does the forehead protrude?

–positional head deformity or craniosynostosis

A

Positional head deformity

152
Q

In which condition is there no bald spot or central bald spot?
–Positional head deformity or craionsynostosis

A

Craniosysnostosis

153
Q

What is one of the rarest types of craniosysnostosis?

A

Lamb Doud synostosis

154
Q

When palpating the head the suture lines should have a slight groove up to what age?

A

6 months

155
Q

When palpating the fontaneles, should you expect to see some pulsation?

A

Yes

156
Q

When should the posterior fontanel close?

A

~2 months

157
Q

When should the anterior fontanel close?

A

~24 months

158
Q

What are 2 causes of a bulging fontanel?

A

Infection or increased intracranial pressure

159
Q

What is the cause for a depressed fontanel?

A

Dehydration

160
Q

The anterior fontanel should not exceed how many cm’s?

A

4-5 cm’s

161
Q

Where should you transilluminate the skull at?

A

Midline frontal region and inch over the entire head

162
Q

Observe the ring of illuminate, a ring of 2 cm’s is expected on all regions of the head except…

A

Occiput (should be < 1 cm)

163
Q

What is the procedure for inspecting the newborns neck?

A

Place infant supine and pickup from arms and let head fall back into extension

164
Q

What 3 things should you palpate in the neck?

A

SCM, trachea, thyroid

165
Q

What is the key sign of hydrocephalus?

A

Sclera visible above the iris

–“Setting Sun Sign”

166
Q

How do you detect the “Setting Sun Sign”?

A

Rapidly lower the infant from upright to supine position (look for sclera above the iris)

167
Q

Softening of the skull, demonstrated by pressing the bone along the suture line…bone pops in and out.

A

Craniotabes

168
Q

Craniotabes is associated w/ what 2 pathologies?

A

Rickets and hydrocephalus

169
Q

Craniotabes is more common in what infants?

A

Premature

170
Q

What’s the Dx?

  • -Eyelid will not close completely
  • -Drooping corner of mouth
  • -Loss of labonasial fold
A

Bell’s palsy

171
Q

What is the Dx?

  • -Smooth Philtrum
  • -Widespread eyes
  • -Hirsute forehead
  • -Short nose
  • -Thin upper lip
A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

172
Q

In the newborn eyelids may be swollen or edematous, accompanied by conjunctivial inflammation and drainage as a consequence of…

A

Routinely administered antibiotics

173
Q

What is hypertelorism and what is it associated with?

A

Widely spaced eyes

–mental retardation

174
Q

What is the Dx?

  • -Loss of functional pupil
  • -Keyhole pupil
A

Coloboma

175
Q

What is the Dx?

–White specks in a linear pattern around the circumference of the iris?

A

Brushfield spots

–(suggests Down syndrome )

176
Q

If you suspect a strabismus, what 3 tests should you do?

A
  • -Corneal light reflex
  • -Cross-Cover Test
  • -Cover-Uncover Test
177
Q

Pseudostrabismus is common in what populations?

A

Asian and Native Americans

178
Q

When should a pseudostrabismus disappear by?

A

By 1 yoa

179
Q

What does an asymmetrical light reflex indicate?

A

Strabismus

180
Q

What is the Dx?

–During Cross-Cover Test: eye moves lateral to medial

A

Exotropic eye

181
Q

What is the Dx?

–During Cross-Cover Test: eye moves medial to lateral

A

Esotropic

182
Q

What is the Dx?

–Impairment of extraocular muscles or their nerve supply

A

Paralytic strabismus

183
Q

What is the Dx?

  • -No primary muscle weakness
  • -Can focus w/ either eye but not both simultaneously
A

Nonparyltic strabismus

184
Q

What is the Dx?

–reduced vision in an eye that appears structurally normal

A

Amblyopia

185
Q

What is the Dx?

–A limited ability to move the eye inward toward the nose, outward toward the ear, or in both directions

A

Duane syndrome

186
Q

Duane syndrome primarily affects what 2 structures?

A

Abducens nucleus/nerve and lateral recurs muscle

187
Q

Expect the infant to focus and track through how many degrees?

A

60*

188
Q

During the Optical blink reflex, shine a bright light at the infants eyes and note what 2 things?

A

Quick closure of the eyes and dorsiflexion of the head

189
Q

At what age is it appropriate to test using a Snellen E Chart?

A

~3

190
Q

What does a Snellen score of “20/25+2” mean?

A

Can real all on the 20/25 and 2 from the 20/20 line

191
Q

A 2 line difference (20/50 and 20/30) may indicate…

A

Amblyopia

192
Q

What is the anticipated visual acuity for a:

  • -3 year old
  • -4 year old
  • -5 year old
  • -6 year old
A
  • -20-50
  • -20-40
  • -20-30
  • -20-20
193
Q

When should a red reflex be performed?

A

From birth on

194
Q

What would cause an abnormal or “white” reflex?

A
  • -Congenital cataracts

- -Retinoblastoma

195
Q

What is the required work up for congenital cataracts?

A

Metabolic, infectious, systemic and genetic workup’s

196
Q

What are common causes of congenital cataracts?

A

TORCH

  • -Toxoplasmosis
  • -Rubella (MC)
  • -Cytomegalovirus
  • -Herpes
197
Q

Fundoscopic examination is difficult to perform on newborns and often deferred until what age?

A

2-6 months

198
Q

What is the Dx?

  • -Blood vessels are straightened and diverted temporally
  • -Cicatricial changes may be severe
A

Retinopathy of prematurity

199
Q

Retinopathy of prematurity will increase the risk of what 3 pathologies?

A
  • -Retinal detachment
  • -Glaucoma
  • -Blindness
200
Q

What will your retinal findings be if you perform a supine fundoscopic exam?

A

Upside down

201
Q

When inspecting the infants ear the tip of the auricle should cross an imaginary line between what 2 structures?

A

Outer Can thus of eye and EOP

202
Q

Low or poorly shaped auricle is associated w/ what organ problems?

A

Renal disorders

203
Q

If during palpation, pain is present at the mastoid what should you suspect?

A

Mastoiditis

204
Q

If during palpation, pain is present at the Travis what should you suspect?

A

Otitis External

205
Q

How do you differentiate between crying/red reflex and infection of the ear?

A

–Crying/red reflex = red but moveable

–Infection = red but decreased mobility

206
Q

What is an appropriate age to perform a Weber, Rinne, and Schwabach test?

A

3-4 years of age

207
Q

At what age is normal to have the following expected hearing response?
–startle reflex, crying cessation of breathing or movement in response to sudden noise

A

Birth to 3 months

208
Q

At what age is this considered a normal expected hearing response?
–turns head toward source of sound but not always recognize location of sound

A

4 to 6 months

209
Q

At what age is this considered a normal expected hearing response?
–Responds to own name, and begins localizing sounds above and below

A

6-10 months

210
Q

At what age is this considered a normal expected hearing response?
–Recognizes and localizes source of sound; imitates simple words and sounds

A

10-12 months

211
Q

What is the most common infection in childhood?

A

Bacterial otitis media

212
Q

What is the Dx?

–sticking or cracking sound on yawning or swallowing; no signs of acute infection

A

Otitis media w/ effusion

213
Q

Congenital nasal obstruction of the posterior nares?

A

Chantal atresia

214
Q

What sinuses are present at birth?

A

Maxillary and ethmoid

215
Q

When does the sphenoid sinus fully develop?

A

Puberty

216
Q

At what age does the frontal sinus develop?

A

7-8 years

217
Q

What are 3 characteristic signs of sinusitis?

A
  • -Malodorous breath*****
  • -cervical adenopathy
  • -Intermittent painless morning eye swelling
218
Q

The tongue should fit well in the floor of the mouth and protrude just beyond what structure?

A

Alveolar ridge

219
Q

The frenulum usually attaches midway between the ventral surfaces of what 2 things?

A

Tongue and its tip

220
Q

What is ankylglossia?

A

Tongue tied

221
Q

Ankylosing is a ___ issue, ___ tongue problem, and believed to be caused by ___.

A
  • -Tonicity
  • -Anterior tongue
  • -Nerve
222
Q

What are the white “pearl-like” spots along the buccal of the gums?

A

Retention cysts

–“Epstein Pearls”

223
Q

When should retention cysts disappear?

A

1-2 months

224
Q

How many deciduous teeth should there be?

A

20

225
Q

When should teeth erupt by?

A

6-14 months

226
Q

What teeth should erupt first?

A

Lower incisors ~ 6 months

227
Q

When should the 2nd molars erupt?

A

~2nd year

228
Q

Multiple brown caries on upper lower incisors?

A

Baby bottle syndrome

229
Q

What is the Dx?

–black or grey colored teeth

A

Pulp decay

230
Q

What is the Dx?

–mottled or pitted teeth

A

Enamel dysplasia

231
Q

What is the Dx?

–Flattened edges on the teeth

A

Bruxism- unconscious grinding of the teeth

232
Q

How do you tell the difference between milk deposits and candidiasis?

A

Scrape any white patches w/ a tongue blade

  • -Nonadherent = milk deposits
  • -Adherent = candidiasis
233
Q

A cleft extending through the lip and hard and soft palates to the nasal cavity?

A

Complete cleft

234
Q

What are the 4 grades to describe tonsil sizes?

A
1+ = visible
2+ = halfway b/t to Tonsillar Pillars and Uvula
3+ = nearly touching the Uvula
4+ = touching each other
235
Q

Infection of the tissue between the tonsil and pharynx?

A

Peritonsillar abscess

236
Q

At what age should salvation increase and when should it stop?

A

Increases by 3 months

–until swallowing is learned

237
Q

If drooling persists past 12 months what should you consider?

A

Neuro problem

238
Q

If drooling is acute in older children, what should you consider?

A

Epiglottis

239
Q

What virus causes epiglottitis?

A

Haemophius influenza type B

240
Q

When is epiglottitis most common?

A

3-7 years old

241
Q

What is the general shape of the infants chest?

A

Round

242
Q

What is the Dx?

–smaller chest circumference compared to the head

A

Intrauterine growth retardation

243
Q

What is the Dx?

–relatively larger chest circumference

A

Poorly controlled gestational diabetes

244
Q

If the “roundness” of a child’s chest persists past the 2nd year, suspect a possible…

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary problem

245
Q

Is cystic fibrosis and autosomal recessive or dominate condition affecting the exocrine glands?

A

Autosomal recessive

246
Q

What is the Dx?

  • -salty tasting sweat
  • -sticky, foul smelling stool
A

Cystic fibrosis

247
Q

What should the distance between the nipples be?

A

1/4 chest circumference

248
Q

What is the average respiratory rate for a newborn?

A

40-60 rpm

249
Q

What should suspect if you observe asymmetric chest expansion?

A

Pneumothorax and diaphragmatic hernia

250
Q

Should the diploid be mobile and prominent during rib/sternum palpation?

A

Yes

251
Q

The chest wall is thinner and more resonant than adults, therefore breath sounds may sound ___, ___, and ___.

A

Louder, harsher, more bronchial

252
Q

At what point in the breathing cycle should lung percussion be performed?

A

Followed by a deep breath

253
Q

Why are crackles and ronchi not uncommon immediately after birth?

A

Fluid has not completely cleared

254
Q

What is a stridor?

A

High pitched, piercing sound

255
Q

Cartilage of the larynx is floppy (not fully developed) resulting in “noisy breathing”

A

Laryngomalacia

256
Q

Is laryngomalacia a serious health concern?

A

No

257
Q

Bronchiolitis is most common at what age?

A

< 6 months

258
Q

What is the characteristic cough of bronchiolitis?

A

Comes in “fits” and tends to be harsh

259
Q

Croup is most common in what ages?

A

Boys 1.5 to 3 years old

260
Q

What is the characteristic cough of croup?

A

Harsh stridorous cough

–“Bark of a seal”

261
Q

How do you differentiate between the symptoms of acute bronchitis and chronic bronchitis?

A

Acute = fever and chest pain

262
Q

Fetal circulation compensates for the non-functional fetal lung bypassing blood directly from the R to L atrium through…

A

Foramen oval

263
Q

During fetal circulation the R ventricle pumps blood through…

A

Ductus are tedious s

264
Q

At birth…functional closure of Foramen ovale and the ductus arteriosus closes w/in how many hours?

A

24-48

265
Q

Blood flows through the ductus during systole and diastole and:

  • -Increases pressure in the ___ circulation
  • -Increased workload for the ___ ventricle
A
  • -pulmonary circulation

- -right ventricle

266
Q

Patent ductus areteriosus creates what side of the heart problems?

A

Right sided

267
Q

What is the key sign of right sided heart problems?

A

Exertion also dyspnea but no cyanosis

268
Q

What type of murmur is this?

–Harsh, loud, continuous murmur

A

Machinery

269
Q

Where is a machinery murmur heard best?

A

1st-3rd ICS and lower sternal border

270
Q

What is the key symptom of a patent foramen ovale?

A

May exhibit cyanosis w/ exertion

271
Q

When should initial heart exams be performed?

A

First 24 hours and again at 2-3 days of age

272
Q

A complete evaluation of the heart function includes what 3 other organs?

A

Skin, lungs, liver

273
Q

How does congestive heart failure affect an infants liver?

A

Large, firm liver

274
Q

What do the following colors mean when inspecting a newborns skin?

  • -Pink
  • -purple
  • -ashy/white
  • -Central cyanosis
A
  • -Pink = normal
  • -Purplish = polycythemia
  • -Ashy, white = shock
  • -central cyanosis = congenital heart disease
275
Q

Severe cyanosis evident at birth or shortly after suggests…

A

Transportation of the great vessels

276
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot that produces blue or pink cyanosis indicates what?

A

Blue = evident at birth

Pink = after neonatal period

277
Q

Cyanosis that does not appear until after the neonatal period suggests what?

A

Pure pulmonic stenosis

278
Q

What is the capillary refill time for children up to 2 years?

A

< 1 second = normal

279
Q

If capillary refill time lasts more than 2 seconds what are 2 causes?

A

Significant dehydration or hypovolemic shock

280
Q

Where is the apical impulse located on babies?

A

3rd-5th left ICS

281
Q

Is the apex of the heart higher, and more horizontal in babies or adults?

A

Babies

282
Q

What 2 conditions shift the apical impulse from the left to the right?

A

Diaphragmatic hernia or dextrocardia

283
Q

What are 2 causes for a weak or thin brachial/radial pulse?

A

Decreased cardiac output or peripheral vasoconstriction

284
Q

What are 2 causes for a palpable bounding pulse?

A

L to R shunt; PDA

285
Q

What would cause a difference in pulse amplitude between femoral and radial pulses?

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

286
Q

The heart rate is more variable which infants or children?

A

Both

287
Q

A sinus arrhythmia is common. In which stage of breathing is it faster/slower?

A

Faster on inspiration

Slower on expiration

288
Q

Are murmurs frequent in the first 48 hours?

A

Relatively

289
Q

Innocent murmurs typically disappear w/in how many days?

A

2-3 days

290
Q

Innocent murmers occur during what stage in the heart cycle?

A

Systolic

291
Q

A murmur may not indicate a significant congenital anomaly, but you must investigate further if 1 of the following 5 things happens?

A
  • -Persists beyond 2nd or 3rd day of life
  • -Is intense
  • -Fills systole
  • -Occupies diastole to any extent
  • -Radiates widely
292
Q

How do you auscultate a venous hum on children?

A

Head turned up and away; auscultate supraclavicular space

293
Q

A venous hum is a continuous low-pitched sound that is louder during..

A

Diastole

294
Q

What causes a venous hum?

A

Turbulence of blood flow in the internal jugular vein

295
Q

What % of hypertension is associated w/ the following categories:

  • -Significant
  • -Severe
A

Significant = 90th percentile

Severe = 95th percentile

296
Q

If BP is consistently above the 95th percentile, dDx include what 3 things?

A
  • -Kidney disease
  • -Renal arterial disease
  • -Coarctation of the aorta
297
Q

What is a narrowing in a portion of the aorta?

A

Coarctation of the Aorta

298
Q

Coarctation of the Aorta is most commonly found in the descending aortic arch near the origin of what 2 things?

A

Left subclavian artery and ligamentum arteriousum

299
Q

When is recommended that a Coarctation of the Aorta be repaired?

A

Before age 10

300
Q

What allows oxygenated blood to leak from the left atrium into the right?

A

Atrial septal defect

301
Q

What allows oxygenated blood to leak front he left ventricle into the right?

A

Ventricular septal defect

302
Q

What type of murmur is associated w/ a ventricular septal defect?

A

Holosystolic murmur

303
Q

What 4 pathologies makeup the Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  • -Pulmonary valve stenosis
  • -Rt Ventricular hypertrophy
  • -Overriding aorta
  • -VSD
304
Q

What are 3 exam findings indicating tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  • -Systolic ejection murmur heard over the 3rd ICS
  • -Parasternal heave
  • -Precordial prominence
305
Q

What pathology is associated w/ Tet spells?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

306
Q

What is the Dx?

  • -central cyanosis
  • -paroxysmal dyspnea w/ loss of consciousness
A

Tet spells

307
Q

Acute rheumatic fever is most common in children between what ages?

A

5-15 years of age

308
Q

What hear valves are affected by acute rheumatic fever?

A

Mitral and aortic valves

309
Q

Kawasaki Disease is most common in children under what ages?

A

Males under 5

310
Q

What is the Dx?

  • -rash on stomach, chest, and genitals
  • -strawberry tongue
  • -red eyes
  • -edema of hands and feet
A

Kawasaki disease