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PART III-A > 1 > Flashcards

1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following methods is not applicable to increase the total
    solids content of liquid manure?

A. Drying
B. Solid-liquid separation
C. Dilution
D. Add bedding

A

C. Dilution

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2
Q

Consider a 2-m beam with an axial load of 78 kN. Determine the stress
if the beam has cross-sectional dimensions of 350 mm by 100 mm.

A. 2.23 MPa
B. 2.73 kPa
C. 2.23 kPa
D. 2.73 Pa

A

A. 2.23 MPa

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3
Q

Consider a simply supported beam with a span of 3-m. Determine the
upward reactions in each support if the beam carries a concentrated load
of 52 kN at the center. Assume negligible beam weight.

A. 0 kN left support, 52 kN right support
B. 52 kN left support, 0 kN right support
C. 26 kN left support, 26 kN right support
D. 17 kN left support, 35 kN right support

A

C. 26 kN left support, 26 kN right support

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4
Q

What is the size of the settling basin if 100% of the particles with
settling velocity of 0.08m/s will be removed. The flow rate of wastewater
to be treated is 1.65 m3/s.

A.10m2
B. 20m2
C. 30m2
D. 40m2

A

B. 20m2

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5
Q

When planning the layout buildings in a farm, which zone should
implement shed and other storage structures with dry and quiet activities
be placed?

A. Zone 1
B. Zone 2
C. Zone 3
D. Zone 4

A

B. Zone 2

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6
Q

What solids fraction is determined if an oven dried sample is placed in
a furnace for 1 hour at 550°C?

A. Suspended solids
B. Total solids
C. Dry matter
D. volatile solids

A

D. volatile solids

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7
Q

Estimate the number of hollow blocks needed for a wall with 1.5 m
height and 7.6 m length.

A. 13 pcs
B. 88 pcs
C. 143 pcs
D. 200 pcs

A

C. 143 pcs

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8
Q

Find the total board foot that could be derived from a log with 34”
diameter and 11’ length.

A. 105 bdft
B. 258 bdft
C. 619 bdft
D. 795 bdft

A

C. 619 bdft

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9
Q

Estimate the number of bags of cement needed for a 5-m by 6-m by 6”
Class A concrete floor.

A. 30 bags
B. 36 bags
C. 142 bags
D. 180 bags

A

B. 36 bags

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10
Q

According to PAES 419:2000, this is the optimum stack height in
layers when storing sacks of maize.

A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
D. 18

A

D. 18

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11
Q

Consider a 2.0-m cantilever beam with uniformly increasing load
from 0 N/m at the free end to 782 N/m the support. Determine the
magnitude of the moment reaction at the support.

A. 521 N-m
B. 782 N-m
C. 1043 N-m
D. 1564 N-m

A

A. 521 N-m

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12
Q

Consider a 2.4-m cantilever beam with uniformly distributed load of
1523 N/m. Determine the magnitude of the moment reaction at the
support.

A. 1523 N-m
B. 1828 N-m
C. 3655 N-m
D. 4386 N-m

A

D. 4386 N-m

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13
Q

Estimate the volume of sand needed for a 5-m by 6-m by 6” Class A
concrete floor.

A. 2.01 m2
B. 4.02 m2
C. 4.57 m2
D. 5.04 m2

A

A. 2.01 m2

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14
Q

A natural or artificial process of nutrient enrichment whereby a water
body becomes abundant in plant nutrients and low in oxygen content.

A. erosion
B. nitriifcation
C. Acidification
D. eutrophication

A

D. eutrophication

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15
Q

Based on PAES 401:2001, compute the number of farrowing pens for
a 26-sow swine farm. Set a litter index of 0.89, litter size of 9, and
occupancy period of 45 days.

A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 9

A

C. 4

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16
Q

Based on PAES 401:2001, what is the minimum ventilation rate for a
farrowing unit under normal conditions?

A. 0.08 m3/min
B. 0.12 m3/min
C. 0.24 m3/min
D.0.28 m3/min

A

D.0.28 m3/min

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17
Q

Based on PAES 401:2001, compute the number of nursery pens for a
26-sow swine farm. Set a litter index of 0.89, litter size of 9, number of
pigs per pen is 3, and occupancy period of 38 days.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 8
D. 9

A

C. 8

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18
Q

Based on PAES 402:2001, determine the floor space requirement for a
10,000-head broiler house from 0 to 4 weeks old.

A. 625 m2
B. 1250 m2
C. 1600 m2
D. 10000 m2

A

A. 625 m2

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19
Q

Based on PAES 403:2001, determine the minimum floor space
requirement for a 200-head layer poultry house with a cage type system.

A. 5 m2
B. 10 m2
C. 100 m2
D. 200 m2

A

B. 10 m2

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20
Q

Based on PAES 403:2001, determine the minimum floor space
requirement for a 250-head layer poultry house with slotted flooring. The layers are at least 22 weeks old

A. 9 m2
B. 23 m2
C. 125 m2
D. 250 m2

A

A. 9 m2

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21
Q

It refers to the stress in a material tending to cause deformation by
slippage along a plane or planes parallel to the imposed force.

A. Normal Stress
B. Shear Stress
C. Bearing Stress
D. Strain

A

B. Shear Stress

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22
Q

It refers to the stress in a material tending to cause deformation
along a plane or planes perpendicular to the imposed force.

A. Normal Stress
B. Shear Stress
C. Bearing Stress
D. Strain

A

A. Normal Stress

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23
Q

It is a rigid structure that consists of a collection of two-force
structural elements connected at pin joints or nodes.

A. Shell
B. Frame
C. Bearing Stress
D. Truss
E. Machine

A

D. Truss

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24
Q

This refers to a mixture of cement, water and sand that is used to fill spaced between tiles.

A. Concrete
B. Paste
C. Mortar
D. Grout

A

D. Grout

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25
Q

Concrete is a rigid aggregate of materials consisting of the
following:

A. Hollow blocks, cement, sand, water
B. Gravel, cement, sand
C. Hollow blocks, gravel, sand, water
D. Gravel, cement, sand, water

A

D. Gravel, cement, sand, water

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26
Q

This refers to a swine ranging from 40 to 65 kg in terms of weight.

A. Weanling
B. Fattener
C. Grower
D. Finisher

A

C. Grower

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27
Q

It is a female swine that has not farrowed.

A. Gilt
B. Sow
C. dry sow
D. Boar

A

A. Gilt

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28
Q

It is a type of poultry raised primarily for meat production.

A. Layer
B. Broiler
C. Game fowl
D. Breeder

A

B. Broiler

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29
Q

It is the process of providing supplemental heat to broiler chicks
from hatching up to the time they have grown sufficient feathers to
control their own body temperature.

A. Hatching
B. Brooding
C. Candling
D. Weanling

A

B. Brooding

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30
Q

It refers to female cattle between two to three years of age which has
not given birth.

A. Calf
B. Yearling
C. cow
D. Heifer

A

D. Heifer

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31
Q

The total energy does not include

A. chemical energy
B. conductive energy
C. electro-magnetic energy
D. nuclear energy

A

B. conductive energy

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32
Q

Given the thermodynamic identity dU = TdS - PdV, an adiabatic process assumes a constant

A. S
B. T
C. U
D. V

A

B. T

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33
Q

A 2-m x 1.5 m section of wall, with wall thickness of 2 cm, of an
industrial furnace burning biomass is not insulated, and the temperature
at the outer surface of this section is measured to be 80°C. The
temperature of the furnace room is 30°C and the heat transfer coefficient
at the surface of the outer furnace is 10 W/m2.C. Determine the heat loss
in Watt.

A. 1,000
B. 1,500
C. 37,500
D. 75,000

A

B. 1,500

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34
Q

Which of the following materials has the highest absorptivity at room
temperature?

A. Aluminum
B. Asbestos
C. Concrete
D. Wood

A

C. Concrete

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35
Q

For an isotropic medium, the Fourier’s law is

A. q = -k dT/dx
B. q = k ∇T
C. q= -k ∇T
D. q = ∇(kT)

A

C. q= -k ∇T

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36
Q

The Moody chart for pipe shows the friction factor as a function of the Reynolds number at various roughness. Which of the commercial ducts has the highest
roughness values?

A. Concrete
B. Rubber
C. Steel
D. Wood

A

A. Concrete

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37
Q

The boundary layer theory is applicable to systems with

A. very large Nusselt number
B. very large Reynolds number
C. very small Nusselt number
D. very small Reynolds number

A

B. very large Reynolds number

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38
Q

Light is simply the visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum
that lies

A. between 0.01 and 0.4 μm
B. between 0.76 and 100 μm
C. between 0.3 and 3.0 μm
D. between 0.4 and 0.76 μm

A

D. between 0.4 and 0.76 μm

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39
Q

In a geometry that consists of two concentric spheres, the view factor Fsub(1-2) = 1 since the entire radiation leaving the surface of the smaller sphere (R1) is intercepted by the larger sphere (R2). What is the value of Fsub(2-1)?

A. 1
B. Less than 1
C. More than 1
D. Cannot be determined

A

B. Less than 1

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40
Q

The highest pressure drop in the refrigeration cycle occurs at the

A. compressor
B. condenser
C. expansion device
D. evaporator

A

C. expansion device

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41
Q

In a throttling device, the enthalpy in the direction of flow

A. can either increase or decrease
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. increases

A

C. remains constant

42
Q

100 kg of lean beef is to be cooled from 18 to 4°C. Specific heat of
beef before freezing is 3.23 kJ/kg.K, after freezing, 1.68 kJ/kg.K. The
latent heat of fusion is 233 kJ/kg. Determine the product load in kJ.

A. 4,522
B. 5,814
C. 29,114
D. 32,470

A

A. 4,522

43
Q

How much ice, in kg, is needed to cool a gallon of punch from 20 to
4°C? Assume specific heat of punch is 4.23 kJ/kg.C, heat of fusion of ice
is 334 kJ/kg and ice initially at freezing temperature.

A. 0.4
B. 0.8
C. 1.0
D. 2.5

A

B. 0.8

44
Q

In a Carnot cycle, the ratio of the condensing temperature to the
evaporating temperature is 1.13. The compressor requires a work input of
1 kW. Determine the coefficient of performance of the system.

A. 4.7
B. 5.7
C. 6.7
D. 7.7

A

D. 7.7

45
Q

Heat is transferred steadily through a 2-cm thick x 4-m2 wall wall at a
rate of 1.6 kW. The inner and outer surface temperatures of the wall are
measured to be 15°C and 5°C, respectively. The average thermal
conductivity of the wall is

A. 0.001 W/m.C
B. 0.5 W/m.C
C. 1.0 W/m.C
D. 2.0 W/m.C

A

C. 1.0 W/m.C

46
Q

Infiltration most commonly occur because of air density differences
between rooms. Heat gain through doorways from air exchange is
influenced by the following factors:

A. doorway area, enthalpy of refrigerated air, density factor
B. doorway height, doorway width, sensible heat ratio of infiltration air
C. open-time factor, flow factor, effectiveness of doorway protective device
D. sensible and latent refrigeration load

A

C. open-time factor, flow factor, effectiveness of doorway protective device

47
Q

Typically, the height of refrigerated spaces varies between 8.5 and
10.5 m or more clear space between the floor and structural steel to
allow forklift operation. The practical height for stalking pallets without
rack is 4.5 to 5.5 m. How much allowance is given to aisles and space
above the pallet stacks?

A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 50%
D. 40%

A

D. 40%

48
Q

An air stream at a specified temperature and relative humidity
undergoes evaporative cooling by spraying water into it at about the
same temperature. The lowest temperature the air stream can be cooled
to is

A. the dew point temperature at the given state
B. the dry bulb temperature at the given state
C. the saturation temperature corresponding to the humidity ratio at the given state
D. the wet bulb temperature at the given state

A

D. the wet bulb temperature at the given state

49
Q

Psychrometry is the study of moist air and its properties. For drying,
which processes occur?

A. Dehumidification and cooling
B. Dehumidification and heating
C. Humidification and cooling
D. Humidification and heating

A

D. Humidification and heating

50
Q

Microorganisms are capable of growth over a wide range of
temperatures. Temperature is used to categorized microorganisms.
Those capable of growth at 5°C, some are able to grow at temperature as
slow as -5°C and are the primary cause of spoilage of perishable foods
are called

A. mesophiles
B. psychrotrophs
C. thermopiles
D. xerotrophs

A

B. psychrotrophs

51
Q

Fresh fruits and vegetables respire and release heat during storage.
This heat produced by respiration varies with the product and its
temperature. As the product temperature decreases,

A. heat of respiration increases exponentially
B. heat of respiration increases linearly
C. heat of respiration decreases exponentially
D. eat of respiration decreases linearly

A

C. heat of respiration decreases exponentially

52
Q

All life-forms require water for growth. Water activity refers to the
availability of water within a food system and is defined at a given
temperature as

A. vapor pressure of air over the vapor pressure of solute
B. vapor pressure of air over the vapor pressure of solution
C. vapor pressure of solution over vapor pressure of solute
D. vapor pressure of solute over the vapor pressure of solution

A

D. vapor pressure of solute over the vapor pressure of solution

53
Q

According to PAES 201: 2000: Agricultural Machinery-heated air
mechanical grain dryer, an indirect-fired dryer is in which the products of
combustion do not come in contact with the products being dried. What
is the minimum required heating system efficiency for furnace with
biomass fuel?

A. 50%
B. 65%
C. 75%
D. 90%

A

A. 50%

54
Q

Determine the quantity of corn in kilogram at 30% (d.b.) required to
provide 1 metric ton at 14% (w.b.)?

A. 860
B. 1000
C. 1120
D. 1230

A

C. 1120

55
Q

Adiabatic drying assumes constant

A. Enthalpy
B. Humidity ratio
C. Relative humidity
D. Wet bulb temperature

A

A. Enthalpy

56
Q

Oven method is a primary method of moisture determination. If after
3 days at 105°C the initial 20g palay sample yields a final weight of 15 g,
what is the initial moisture content in percent wet basis?

A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 33

A

C. 25

57
Q
  1. The equilibrium moisture content at zero relative humidity is

A. 0
B. 14
C. 100
D. 18

A

A. 0

58
Q

In a flat bed dryer, as the airflow rate (m3/s.m2) is increased
exponentially, the pressure drop per meter depth

A. can either increase or decrease
B. decreases
C. increases
D. remains constant

A

C. increases

59
Q

The minimum set of requirements for producing safe and wholesome
food, which is an important part of regulatory control over the safety of
the country’s food supply is called

A. effective management practices
B. good manufacturing practices
C. standard operating procedure
D. total quality management procedures

A

B. good manufacturing practices

60
Q

Many of the procedures for the control of microorganisms are
managed by HACCP system of food safety. Developed in the food
industry since the 1960s, HACCP is now accepted by food manufacturers
and regulators. It is a preventive system that builds safety control
features in the food products design and the process by which it is
produced. HACCP stands for

A. Hazard Analysis and Chemical Corrective Point
B. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point
C. Health Analysis for Critical Corrective Program
D. Health Awareness and Critical Criteria Program

A

B. Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point

61
Q

Refers to the application of engineering science and designs to the
processes and systems involved in the sustainable production, post
production and processing of safe food, feed, fiber, timber and other
agricultural and biological materials and the efficient utilization,
conservation, and management of natural and renewable resources in
order to enhance human health in harmony with the environment

Agriculture
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering
Civil Engineering
Agricultural Chemistry

A

Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering

62
Q

The protection of inventions by RPABE registered as patents and
utility models.

A. Intellectual Property
B. Copyright
C. Trademarks
D. Industrial Property

A

A. Intellectual Property

63
Q

Chair of the current Board of Agricultural and Biosystems
Engineering:

A. Engr. Ariodear Rico
B. Engr. Juana Tapel
C. Engr. Sherwin Valdez
D. None of the above

A

A. Engr. Ariodear Rico

64
Q

The agency mandated to develop standards for agriculture and
fishery machinery, tools and equipment.

A. AMTEC
B. BAFS
C. PhilMech
D. BAFE

A

B. BAFS

65
Q

Items indicated in the documents signed, used or issued by PABE in
connection with the practice of profession except:

A. professional license number
B. professional tax receipt
C. duration of validity
D. registration date of license

A

D. registration date of license

66
Q

Part of the BAC that purpose is to enhance transparency of the
government procurement process.

A. TWG
B. BAC Secretariat
C. End user
D. observers

A

D. observers

67
Q

Republic Act No. 9367 is also known as:

A. CARP Law
B. Renewable Energy Act
C. CARPER
D. Biofuels Act

A

D. Biofuels Act

68
Q

The code that deals with minimum standards and requirements for
all buildings and structures:

A. RA 6541
B. RA 6657
C. RA 9003
D. RA 9367

A

A. RA 6541

69
Q

The agency mandated in the testing and evaluation of agricultural
and fisheries machinery and equipment to be sold in the market.

A. AMTEC
B. BAFS
C. PhilMech
D. BAFE

A

A. AMTEC

70
Q

The following are the qualifications to become a member of the
Board of ABE except:

A. natural-born citizen
B. registered PABE
C. active practitioner for not less than 7years
D. at least 35 years old

A

C. active practitioner for not less than 7years

71
Q

What should be the color of the neutral wire in a building electrical
system?

A. green
B. red
C. white
D. black

A

C. white

72
Q
  1. A type of fault that occurs when there is an erratic flow of current in
    the conductors

A. Sinusoidal fault
C. Earth fault
D. Ground fault
E. Arc fault

A

E. Arc fault

73
Q

It is a device that opens a circuit whenever it detects a ground fault.

A. AFCI
B. circuit breaker
C. GCFI
D. Fuse

A

C. GCFI

74
Q

How much is the maximum allowable resistance of a grounding
electrode?

A. 24 ohms
B. 30 ohms
C. 25 ohms
D. 34 ohms

A

C. 25 ohms

75
Q

Electric motors can _____ the power factor in a system.

A. Maintain
B. increase
C. Improve
D. decrease

A

B. increase

76
Q

When does the power factor become greater than 1?

A. When the apparent power is greater than the reactive power
B. When the apparent power is greater than the true power
C. When the apparent power is equal to the true power
D. It will never happen

A

D. It will never happen

77
Q

Majority of electric power in the Philippines is produced using this.

A. Magnetism
B. Friction
C. When the apparent power is equal to the true power
D. Heat

A

A. Magnetism

78
Q

Majority of the energy consumed by incandescent light bulbs is
converted into

A. heat and infrared radiation
B. cosmic rays
C. x-rays
D. Light

A

A. heat and infrared radiation

79
Q

Which room is required to have a GFCI outlet?

A.Living room
B. bedroom
C. Bathroom
D. Dining room

A

C. Bathroom

80
Q

Which is an assumption that should be considered when solving
problems using the OHM’s LAW?

A. Conductors have infinite length
B. Conductors have finite length
C. Conductors have negligible resistances
D. Conductors have considerable resistances

A

C. Conductors have negligible resistances

81
Q

Which is an assumption that should be considered when solving
problems using the OHM’s LAW?

A. Resistors have constant resistance
B. Resistors have infinite resistance
C. Resistors have variable resistance
D. Resistors can affect the circuit

A

A. Resistors have constant resistance

82
Q

Which statement is true when given with two conductors of the same
type of conductive material with the same length?

A. The conductor with larger resistivity will have a larger resistance
B. The conductor with larger resistivity will have less resistance
C. The conductor with larger cross-sectional area will have a larger resistance
D. The conductor with larger cross-sectional area will have less resistance

A

D. The conductor with larger cross-sectional area will have less resistance

83
Q

Which statement is true when given with two conductors of the same
type of conductive material with the same cross-sectional area?

A. The conductor with less resistivity will have a larger resistance
B. The conductor with less resistivity will have less resistance
C. The conductor with less length will have a larger resistance
D. The conductor with less length will have less resistance

A

D. The conductor with less length will have less resistance

84
Q

Which statement is most likely true?

A. An electric motor with load will draw more current compared to when no load is
applied to its shaft.
B. An electric motor with no load will draw more current compared to when a load is
applied to its shaft.
C. An electric motor with no load will need more voltage compared to when no load is
applied to its shaft.
D. An electric motor with load will need more voltage compared to when no load is
applied to its shaft.

A

A. An electric motor with load will draw more current compared to when no load is
applied to its shaft.

85
Q

Which statement is most likely true?

A. The reactive power will always be smaller than the true power
B. The true power will always be smaller than the reactive power
C. The apparent power will always be equal to or greater than the true power
D. The apparent power will always be smaller than the reactive power

A

C. The apparent power will always be equal to or greater than the true power

86
Q

Which statement is most likely true?

A. The reactive power will always be greater than the true power
B. The true power will always be greater than the reactive power
C. The apparent power will always be equal to or greater than the reactive power
D. The apparent power will always be smaller than the reactive power

A

C. The apparent power will always be equal to or greater than the reactive power

87
Q

Which statement is most likely true?’

A. Joule heating will occur when there is no current in a circuit
B. Joule heating will occur in systems with high voltages
C. Joule heating will occur in circuits with resistors
D. Joule heating will occur in circuits with no resistance

A

C. Joule heating will occur in circuits with resistors

88
Q

What will happen to a wire conductor when a current greater than the
ampacity passes through it.

A. It will stop conducting current
B. Voltage will increase across the conductor
C. It will overheat
D. Nothing will happen

A

C. It will overheat

89
Q

What will happen to a wire conductor when a current less than the
ampacity passes through it.

A. It will stop conducting current
B. Voltage will increase across the conductor
C. It will overheat
D. Nothing will happen

A

D. Nothing will happen

90
Q

The total current of a circuit is 1.5A. If the voltage source is 12V, how
much should be the resistance of the circuit?

A. 8 ohms
B. 7 ohms
C. 6 ohms
D. 5 ohms

A

8 ohms

91
Q

The total current of a circuit is 1.5A. If the voltage source is 12V, how
many 2-ohm resistors connected in series should be in the circuit?

A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2

A

C. 4

92
Q

The total current of a circuit is 1.5A. If the voltage source is 12V, how
many 40-ohm resistors connected in parallel should be in the circuit?

A. 5
B. 3
C. 4
D. 2

A

A. 5

93
Q

The power consumption of an electric kettle is 1000W. Assuming
240Vrms AC source, how much current will be expected?

A. 6.43 A
B. 2.94 A
C. 4.17 A
D. 5.66 A

A

C. 4.17 A

94
Q

The power consumption of an electric kettle is 1000W. Assuming
240Vrms AC source, what is the resistance of the heating element?

A. 57.6 ohms
B. 0.48 ohms
C. 0.017 ohms
D. 0.034 ohms

A

A. 57.6 ohms

95
Q

The power consumption of a certain boiler is 15kVA. Assuming
240Vrms AC source, what should be the trip setting of the circuit breaker
to be used?

A. 70 A
B. 50 A
C. 90 A
D. 20 A

A

A. 70 A

96
Q

The power consumption of a certain boiler is 15kVA. Assuming 240
Vrms AC source, what should be the maximum allowable voltage drop if
the voltage drop is not to exceed 3%?

A. 72 V
B. 0.72 V
C. 7.2 V
D. 120 V

A

C. 7.2 V

97
Q

A heating appliance consumes 1000W of power. Another heating
appliance consumes 2000VA of power. If the two are connected via
parallel connection, how much current flows in the system. Assume 240V
source.

A. 12.5 A
B. 13.6 A
C. 8.8A
D. 9.6 A

A

A. 12.5 A

98
Q

A heating appliance consumes 3000W of power. Another heating
appliance consumes 2000VA of power. If the two are connected via
series connection, how much current flows in the system. Assume 240V
source.

A. 12.5 A
B. 20.8 A
C. 28.8 A
D. 19.6 A

A

B. 20.8 A

99
Q

A heating appliance consumes 3000W of power. Another heating
appliance consumes 2000VA of power. If the two appliances draw power
from the same branch circuit, how much current is expected to flow in the
branch circuit. Assume 240V source.

A. 12.5 A
B. 20.8 A
C. 28.8 A
D. 19.6 A

A

B. 20.8 A

100
Q

What should be the color of the grounding wire in a building
electrical system?

A. green
B. red
C. white
D. black

A

A. green

PART III-A (6 decks)

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