08a: Micro Flashcards

1
Q

Which part of cell wall structure is unique to gram positive bacteria?

A

Lipoteichoic acid

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2
Q

Mycobacteria doesn’t gram stain well because:

A

Cell wall has high lipid content

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3
Q

Chlamydia doesn’t gram stain well because:

A
  1. Intracellular

2. Low muramic acid in cell wall

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4
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain (carbol fuchsin) is used to stain (X). What are the steps that go into staining?

A

X = acid-fast bacteria (Mycobacteria, Nocardia) and protozoa (Cryptosporidium)

  1. Carbol fuchsin (red) dye
  2. Acid-alcohol wash
  3. Methylene blue counterstain
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5
Q

(X) bacteria is cultured on (Y) agar, which contains potato extract

A
X = Bordetella pertussis
Y = Bordet-Gengou 

(Bordet for Bordetella)

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6
Q

Dark black, slightly luminous colonies on cysteine tellurite agar

A

C. diptheriae

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7
Q

Legionella grown in which agar?

A

Charcoal yeast extract agar, buffered with Cys and iron

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8
Q

Fungi grown on which agar?

A

Sabouraud

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9
Q

(X) antibiotics are ineffective against anaerobes because they require oxygen to enter cell

A

X = aminoglycosides

“AminO2glycosides require O2”

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10
Q

List bacteria that are obligate intracellular. They must be in cells because they rely on (X)

A
  1. Rickettsia
  2. Chlamydia
  3. Coxiella

X = host ATP

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11
Q

T/F: H. pylori is catalase positive

A

True (also urease and oxidase positive)

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12
Q

Bacteria that produce urease (increase/decrease) pH of environment

A

Increase (hydrolyze urea into ammonia and CO2)

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13
Q

Bacteria bind and import short pieces of environmental, naked chromosomal DNA from another bacterial cell lysis

A

Transformation

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14
Q

F(+/-) contains genes required for (X). When “mating bridge” is formed, what’s being transferred?

A

F+
X = sex pilus and conjugation (with F- cell)

Single strand of plasmid DNA to F- cell, making it an F+ cell

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15
Q

F+ plasmid becomes incorporated into bacterial chromosomal DNA, making F+ cell a(n) (X) cell. If it comes in contact with F- cell, what can occur?

A

X = Hfr (high-frequency recombination)

Conjugation with F- cell allows Hfr cell to transfer/replicate part of chromosome (F- cell becomes “recombinant F- cell”)

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16
Q

List the 5 bacterial toxins encoded in lysogenic phage

A

“ABCD’S”

  1. group A strep erythrogenic toxin
  2. Botulinum toxin
  3. Cholera toxin
  4. Diphtheria toxin
  5. Shiga toxin
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17
Q

Recent traveller to Latin America, Asia, or Africa presents with fever, HA, watery diarrhea that has become bloody. Hepatosplenomegaly and faint, erythematous maculopapular lesions on chest/abdomen. Dx?

A

Typhoid fever

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18
Q

Kidney transplant patient with low-grade fever and pneumonia symptoms. Small, round organisms staining red with mucicarmine stain of bronchoalveolar fluid. Dx?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans lung disease

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19
Q

Pseudohyphae with blastoconidia

A

Candida

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20
Q

(X) bacteria produces (Y) factor, which enlarges area of hemolysis formed by S. aureus

A
X = Group B strep (agalactiae)
Y = CAMP
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21
Q

Gram positive, Catalase negative, PYR positive, gamma hemolytic

A

Enterococcus

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22
Q

(X) assay can be used to test for TB in patients with BCG vaccine due to fewer false (pos/neg)

A

X = Interferon gamma release assay

False pos

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23
Q

AIDs patient with CD4 count recently dropped under 50: what’s a key bacterium that he should now receive prophylactic Rx for?

A

Mycobacterium avium (with Azithromycin)

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24
Q

Penicillins/cephalosporins work by binding (X). Vancomycin works by binding (Y).

A
X = Penicillin-binding proteins (ex: transpeptidases)
Y = glycoproteins
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25
Prevention of neonatal tetanus involves efforts focused on:
Vaccination of pregnant women and those of child-bearing age (with inactivated tetanus toxoid) Also cord hygiene
26
Cat bite resulting in cellulitis. Most likely infectious cause:
``` Pasteurella multocida (#1) Could also be Bartonella ```
27
Pasteurella multocida can cause which two key presentations/diseases?
Osteomyelitis and cellulitis
28
Patient presents with infected calf injury that has mouse-like odor
Pasteurella multocida infection
29
T/F: Bacterial vaginosis can be prevented via condom use
False - not a sexually transmitted disease
30
(X) are mulberry-like inclusions in cytoplasm of either monocytes or granulocytes. Which disease(s)?
X = morulae 1. Ehrlichiosis (in monocytes) 2. Anaplasmosis (in granulocytes) "MEGA berry = Monocytes Ehrlichiosis, Granulocytes Anaplasmosis"
31
Chlamydia serotypes L1, L2, L3 cause:
Lymphogranuloma venereum (small painless ulcers on genitals with swollen painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate)
32
(Acetylated/deacetylated) histones allow chromosome transcription
Acetylated (via HAT) "you put a HAT on to go to work"
33
Restrictive cardiomyopathy with amyloid deposition is typically (primary/secondary) amyloidosis
Primary (ex: MM)
34
Transmission of Giardia lamblia is via (X) in water. Diagnosis is via (Y)
``` X = cysts (fecal-oral route) Y = trophozoites/cysts in stool or antigen detection ```
35
Abscess with "Anchovy paste" exudate
Amebiasis (entamoeba histolytica); liver abscess
36
Transmission of Entamoeba histolytica is via (X) in water. What are the methods of diagnosis?
X = cysts (fecal-oral route) 1. Trophozoites with engulfed RBCs; cysts with up to 4 nuclei in stool 2. Ag detection
37
Flask-shaped ulcers formed on intestinal biopsy
Entamoeba histolytica
38
Which drugs used to eliminate E. histolyctica cysts from intestinal lumen?
Paromomycin or Iodoquinol | Otherwise, general Rx is metronidazole
39
Severe diarrhea in AIDs patient caused by protozoa
Cryptosporidium
40
Rx for cryptosporidium
Immunocompetent: Nitazoxanide Immunocompromised: Spiramycin
41
Toxoplasma: (X) are transmitted in cat feces. What's the treatment?
X = oocyts Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
42
Toxoplasmosis (X) brain lesions can be mistaken for (Y) and the two can be differentiated via which method?
``` X = ring-enhancing (calcified) Y = CNS lymphoma (usually solitary lesion) ``` Biopsy
43
Rapidly fatal meningoencephalitis from swimming in freshwater lake
Naegleria fowleri (enters via cribiform plate)
44
Naegeria fowleri diagnosis via (X) and Rx is (Y)
``` X = amoebas in spinal fluid Y = Amphotericin B (linked to few survivors) ```
45
Patient presents with cervical/axillary lymphadenopathy, somnolence, and recurring fevers. Reports recent bug bite that was very painful
``` African sleeping sickenss via: Trypanosoma brucei (CNS protozoa) - transmitted by Tsetse fly ```
46
Trypanosoma brucei diagnosed via (X) and treated with (Y)
``` X = trypomastigotes in blood smear Y = Suramin (for blood disease), Melarsoprol (for CNS penetration) ```
47
Test for G6PD deficiency before administering which anti-malarial drugs?
1. Primaquine | 2. Artesunate
48
Severe, irregular fever patterns and cerebral malaria
P. falciparum
49
(X) drug is used to treat both malaria and babesia
X = atovaquone
50
Malaria: mosquitos are carrying (X) form of protozoan. Enters human and matures to (Y) form in (blood/liver).
X = sporozoite Y = merozoite (contained in schizont) Liver
51
Malaria: (X) form of protozoan enters/infects RBCs.
X = merozoite
52
T/F: All merozoites in malaria come from liver
False - after initial infection of RBCs, life cycle (trophozoite to schizont to merozoite) continues in RBCs
53
Fever, respiratory distress (crackles, infiltrates), hemolytic anemia. Severe disease in asplenic patients. Which protozoan?
Babesia
54
Chagas disease caused by (X) and treated with (Y)
``` X = Trypanosoma cruzi Y = Benznidazole or nifurtimox ```
55
Leishmania donovani transmitted via (X) and diagnosed via (Y)
``` X = sandfly Y = presence of amastigotes in macrophages ```
56
Black fever, aka kala-azar, is caused by (X) and presents with which symptoms?
X = Leishmania donovani (visceral leishmaniasis) Spiking fevers, hepatosplenomegaly, pancytopenia (fatal if left untreated)
57
Leishmaniasis treatment:
Stibogluconate (cutaneous; ulcers) or amphotericin B (visceral)
58
(X) nematode can auto-infect host by ability to produce which larvae form?
X = Strongyloides stercoralis (threadworm) Rhabditiform (non-infectious; seen in host feces) lay eggs in intestine that hatch Filariform larvae (infectious; penetrate mucosa and re-enter blood)
59
Visceral larva migrans caused by which organism?
Toxocara canis
60
Skin changes, due to loss of (X), and river blindness caused by which organism?
X = elastic fibers Onchocerca volvulus
61
Worm crawling across eyeball
Loa loa
62
Liver cystic mass with eggshell calcifications
Echinococcus granulosus
63
Fluke egg with lateral spine
Schistosoma mansoni
64
Fluke egg with terminal spine
Schistosoma haematobium
65
Schistosoma transmitted via (X) and Clonorchis sinensis transmitted via (Y)
``` X = contact with fresh water snails Y = eating undercooked fish ```
66
(X) fluke/trematode causes (Y) type of gallstone
``` X = Clonorchis sinensis Y = pigmented (brown; injured hepatocytes release beta-glucoronidase which hydrolyzes BRDG so high levels of unconjugated BR) ```
67
Klebsiella is lactose (fermenter/non-fermenter)
Fermenter
68
IgA proteinase role is to allow bacteria to:
Adhere to mucosa (via cleaving IgA at hinge region and reducing effectiveness)
69
1 yo child with 3-5 days high fever, febrile seizures followed by maculopapular rash on trunk
Roseola infantum (by HHV-6)
70
Viral particle with envelope highly similar to that of nuclear cell membrane
Herpesviruses (acquire envelope via budding from nucleus)
71
T/F: Cryptococcus is a budding yeast
True
72
HIV patient with pain and itching in peri-rectal area. Single, hard mass with superficial ulceration. No hemorrhoids, no lymphadenopathy. Dx?
Squamous cell cancer (anus); linked to HPV infection
73
All RNA virus genomes are single stranded except:
Reovirus (dsRNA)
74
All DNA viruses replicate in (nucleus/cytoplasm) except:
Nucleus | Pox ("Pox out of the box")
75
All RNA viruses replicate in (nucleus/cytoplasm) except:
Cytoplasm Influenza and Retrovirus (HIV, HTLV)
76
Which DNA virus has a reverse transcriptase?
Hepadna (HBV)
77
Parvovirus is highly tropic for (X) cells and enters via (Y) receptor
``` X = erythroid precursors Y = P antigen (aka Globoside) ```
78
Number one cause of aseptic meningitis
Enteroviruses (picornavirus family)
79
Zika is part of which virus family?
Flaviviruses
80
Nearly all positive sense RNA viruses have (helical/icosahedral) capsids except:
Icosahedral Coronavirus (helicall) and HIV (complex, conical)
81
Nearly all negative sense RNA viruses have (helical/icosahedral) capsids except:
Helical; Delta virus (uncertain)
82
#1 rabies carrier in US
Bats
83
Eosinophilic negri bodies in neural tissue on microscopy
Rabies
84
Ebola is what type of virus?
Filovirus (neg sense RNA)
85
Ambisense virus
Arenavirus (both pos and neg sense RNA)
86
(Pos/neg) strand RNA viruses must always carry their own (X) polymerase
Neg | X = RNA-dep RNA pol (to make pos strand)
87
List the segmented RNA viruses
All neg-sense | "BOAR" (Bunyavirus, Orthomyxovirus, Arenavirus, Reovirus)
88
High fever, black vomit, and jaundice after mosquito bite
Yellow fever (flavivirus; aedes mosquito)
89
Most important global cause of infantile gastroenteritis is (X). Prevention via:
X = rotavirus Live vaccine (recommended by CDC for all infants)
90
(X) change in genome causes genetic shift. (Y) causes genetic drift.
``` X = reassortment (cause pandemics) Y = random mutations (cause epidemics) ```
91
Mumps symptoms
Parotids and testes as big as "POM-Poms" 1. Parotitis 2. Orchitis (can cause sterility) 3. Meningitis 4. Pancreatitis
92
Bullet-shaped virus; capsule studded with (X) spikes
X = glycoprotein Rabies
93
HIV: ELISA/Western blot tests are often false (pos/neg) on newborns born to infected mothers. What should be used to detect viral load in infant?
False positive (anti-gp120 Ab cross placenta) PCR
94
Viral hepatitis liver biopsy: granular eosinophilic "ground glass" appearance with cytotoxic T cells
HBV infection (note: cytotoxic T cells, NOT HBV, mediate damage)
95
Viral hepatitis liver biopsy: ballooning degeneration, spotty necrosis, monocyte infiltration, (X) bodies
X = councilman HAV infection
96
Prions are normally (PrPC) predominantly (alpha-helical/beta-pleated) proteins.
Alpha-helical | PrPSC transformation higher in beta-pleated sheets
97
Just about any healthy patient over 6 months old presenting with septic meningitis most likely has infection with (X). Which age group is the exception within this age range?
X = S. pneumo Teens (N. meningitidis is #1)
98
Pneumonia in an otherwise healthy neonate: top two infectious causes. What about for septic meningitis in a neonate?
1. Group B step 2. E. coli Same pathogens for meningitis!
99
Kids and teens presenting with pneumonia symptoms are most likely infected with:
Virus (RSV)
100
Adults (up until age of 40) presenting with pneumonia symptoms are most likely infected with:
Mycoplasma
101
Patients over 40 presenting with pneumonia symptoms are most likely infected with:
S. pneumo
102
Painless, beefy red genital ulcer that bleeds easily on contact
Granuloma inguinale (Klebsiella granulomatis; uncommon in US)
103
Which antibiotics inhibit 30S ribosome? And 50S?
"buy AT 30, CCEL (sell) at 50" 30S: Aminoglycosides, Tetracyclines 50S: Chloramphenicol, Clindamycin, Erythromycin, Linezolid
104
Aminoglycosides: bacteria mechanism of resistance to drug
1. Transferase enzyme (on cytoplasmic surface) catalyze transfer or acetyl, methyl, or other groups to drug (inactive it) 2. Efflux pumps
105
Aminoglycosides are absolutely contraindicated in patients with (X) disease
X = Myasthenia gravis (can cause neuromuscular blockade)
106
Dapsone mechanism of action
(Like sulfonamides) inhibits Dihydropteroate synthase (blocks PABA to DHF conversion in folate synthesis)
107
(X) antimicrobial drug has same target as methotrexate
X = Trimethoprim (inhibits dihydrofolate reductase)