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Clinical Conditions II: Physical Health > 07: Exam 3 > Flashcards

07: Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

True or false: Cervical spondylosis is secondary to degenerative disc disease and presents as narrowed discs and/or bone spurs.

A

True

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2
Q

True or false: In cervical spondylosis, loss of disc space starts to lead to loss of kyphosis in the cervical spine.

A

False

In cervical spondylosis, loss of disc space starts to lead to loss of lordosis in the cervical spine.

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3
Q

True or false: Most people with degenerative changes in the cervical spine are asymptomatic.

A

True

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4
Q

Neck pain, cervical myelopathy and radiculopathy are related to which spinal condition?

A

Cervical spondylosis

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5
Q

Radioulnar symptoms in dermatomes distribution caused by a herniation in the foramen of C5 can produce weakness and atrophy and/or sensory deficits in which area?

A. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand, and medial scapular area
B. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm and forearm, intermediate aspect of hand, and medial scapular area
C. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm and medial scapular area
D. Ulnar (medial) aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand, and medial scapular area

A

C

A is indicative of a C6 herniation.
B is indicative of a C7 herniation.
D is indicative of a C8 herniation.

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6
Q

The following criteria are predictive of which spinal condition?
* Positive upper limb tension test
* Cervical rotation of less than 60 degrees
* Positive distraction test
* Positive Spurlings test

A. Thoracic discogenic pain
B. Disc herniation
C. Cervical spondylosis
D. Lumbar degenerative disc disease

A

C

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7
Q

Which aspect of cervical spondylosis is related to more upper motor neuron signs?

A. Cervical myelopathy
B. Cervical radiculopathy

A

A

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of cerebral palsy?

A. Spastic
B. Ataxic
C. Dyskinetic
D. Placid

A

D

Five types are:

Spastic (most common): high muscle tone; exaggerated, jerky movements.
* PRESENTATION: abnormal walking, awkward reflexes, contractures, stiffness.
* CAUSE: damage to the brain’s motor cortex

Dyskenetic (also called athetoid): involuntary movement in the face, torso, and limbs; hypotonia and hypertonia cause muscle tone to fluctuate
* PRESENTATION: feeding issues, floppiness in the limbs, problems with posture, stiff or rigid body.
* CAUSE: damage to the brain’s basal ganglia and/or cerebellum

Ataxic: affected balance, coordination, and voluntary movement with possible tremors and reduction in muscle tone
* PRESENTATION: poor coordination, problems with depth perception, shakiness/tremors, speech difficulties, feet spread apart when walking
* CAUSE: damage to the cerebellum

Hypotonic (also called atonic): low muscle tone causing loss of strength and firmness
* PRESENTATION: flexible joints and ligaments, lack of head control, loose muscles, poor balance and stability; instability and floppiness causing a child to miss developmental milestones such as crawling, standing, or walking

Mixed: A combination of any of the above.

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9
Q

In cerebral palsy in children, bone integrity and density are of great concern because the lack of weight bearing can lead to…

A

muscle and joint contracture

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10
Q

How would you treat spasticity (hypertonicity) in pediatric CP?

A. Rapid movements
B. Reduce mobility
C. Splinting/casting

A

C

Specifically passive splints, functional splints, serial casting

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11
Q

Leroy presents with flexible joints and ligaments, a lack of head control, loose muscles, poor balance, and stability. His instability and floppiness have caused him to miss developmental milestones such as crawling, standing, or walking.

Based on this information, which type of cerebral palsy might you suspect Leroy has?

A. Dyskinetic
B. Spastic
C. Hypotonic
D. Mixed
E. Ataxic

A

C

Low muscle tone causing loss of strength and firmness –> Can lead a child to miss milestones

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12
Q

Femke’s mom brought her in describing issues with feeding, floppiness in her limbs, problems with her posture, and noticing a stiffness and rigidness in Femke’s body.

Based on this information, which type of cerebral palsy might you suspect Femke has?

A. Dyskinetic
B. Spastic
C. Hypotonic
D. Mixed
E. Ataxic

A

A

Dyskinetic

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13
Q

Ji-Ho presents with abnormal walking patterns, stiffness and contractures in his limbs, and exaggerated reflexes.

Based on this information, which type of cerebral palsy might you suspect Ji-Ho has?

A. Dyskinetic
B. Spastic
C. Hypotonic
D. Mixed
E. Ataxic

A

B

Spastic is the most common type of CP and presents as high muscle tone and exaggerated, jerky movements.

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14
Q

Emalia’s mothers brought her into the office concerned about her poor coordination, problems with depth perception, widespread stance when walking, speech difficulties, and noticeable tremors.

Based on this information, which type of cerebral palsy might you suspect Emalia has?

A. Dyskinetic
B. Spastic
C. Hypotonic
D. Mixed
E. Ataxic

A

E

Ataxic CP affects balance, coordination, and voluntary movement can present with tremors and reduction in muscle tone.

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15
Q

What is the cause of lumbar degenerative disc disease?

A. Mechanical stress
B. Genetic factors
C. Nutrition
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

A

D

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16
Q

Smoking and obesity are two risk factors for lumbar degenerative disease. What are 3 others?

A
  1. Flexed posture
  2. Heavy physical labor
  3. Lack of physical activity
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17
Q

A spinal stenosis is…

A

A narrowing of the spinal canal

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18
Q

True or false: Spondylolysis/spondylolisthesis means the same thing.

A

False

-Lysis: When the posterior aspect of the vertebra (pars interarticularis) is fractured, but not separated, thus, the spine does not shift forward.

-Listhesis: When the pars interarticularis has entirely separated and the spine begins to shift forward.

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19
Q

True or false: Spondylolisthesis/spondylolysis always requires surgery.

A

False

In some cases, it can be treated conservatively.

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20
Q

What happens during a lumbar laminectomy?

A

Removal of the lamina to make space for the spinal nerves

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21
Q

True or false: All lumbar laminectomies have spinal precautions.

A

False

Not ALL lumbar laminectomies have precautions. But those that do, have the general following:
* Avoid twisting and bending
* Avoid lifting, pushing or pulling objects > 5 lbs
* Keep spine in neutral and maintain good posture

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22
Q

What happens during a lumbar spine fusion?

A

Lamina is removed, rods and screws are used to “fuse” the vertebrae; discs are also removed and replaced with a cage or bone graft

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23
Q

True or false: All lumbar spine fusions have spinal precautions.

A

True

  • Avoid twisting bending, lifting for 8-12 weeks
  • Neutral spine/good posture
  • Bed mobility: Log roll to sit
  • No NSAIDS
  • Smoking Cessation
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24
Q

What is a stroke?

A

Rupture of a vessel or loss of blood flow to the brain or spine due to a blockage; brain cells don’t get oxygen and begin to die within minutes

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25
Q

A stroke caused by in intracranial bleed is a…

A. Ischemic stroke
B. Hemorrhagic stroke

A

B

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26
Q

A stroke caused by a cardioembolism occlusion is a/an…

A. Ischemic stroke
B. Hemorrhagic stroke

A

A

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27
Q

A stroke caused by a blow to the head causing a subdural hematoma is a…

A. Ischemic stroke
B. Hemorrhagic stroke

A

B

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28
Q

A stroke caused by a vessel occlusion is a/an…

A. Ischemic stroke
B. Hemorrhagic stroke

A

A

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29
Q

What is the Stroke Belt?

A

An area in the Southeastern US with higher stroke mortality compared to other US regions

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30
Q

What is BE FAST?

A

Balance (loss of; dizziness)
Eyes (loss of vision in one or both)
Face (unevenness)
Arm (weakness)
Speech (difficulty)
Time (to call 911)

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31
Q

Neglect is the:

A. Decreased awareness of deficits
B. Impaired awareness of stimuli on one side of the body
C. Inattention to one side of the body

A

B

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32
Q

What does the NIHSS Stroke scale assess?

A
  1. Consciousness
  2. Language
  3. Neglect
  4. Visual field loss
  5. Extra-ocular movement
  6. Motor strength
  7. Ataxia
  8. Dysarthria
  9. Sensory Loss
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33
Q

What is the difference between Asomatognosia and Anosognosia?

A

Asomatognosia: inability to recognize the affected limb as one’s own

Anosognosia: denial of hemiparesis

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34
Q

True or false: There are two types of hemianopia, right and left.

A

False

There are actually, FOUR, though the other two are less common:

  • Right hemianopia, which causes a loss of vision in the right half of each eye
  • Left hemianopia, which causes a loss of vision in the left half of each eye
  • Superior hemianopia, which causes a loss of vision in the upper half of each eye
  • Inferior hemianopia, which causes a loss of vision in the lower half of each eye
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35
Q

What is the differences between hemiparesis and hemiplegia?

A

Hemiparesis is weakness and loss of strength (on one side), whereas hemiplegia is complete loss of strength (on one side)

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36
Q

True or false: Ataxia is the loss of ability to execute or carry out skilled movements and gestures.

A

False

Ataxia is the lack of muscle control or coordination.

What is described in the question is aPraxia.

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37
Q

Luna recently had a stroke is now has difficulty forming words, often producing nonsensical speech. This is known as:

A. Global aphasia
B. Broca’s aphasia
C. Wernicke’s aphasia

A

B

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38
Q

Tyson is 3 days post-CVA and has difficulty understanding speech. This is known as:

A. Global aphasia
B. Broca’s aphasia
C. Wernicke’s aphasia

A

C

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39
Q

Finn was in a head-on collision and suffered a hemorrhagic stroke during surgery. Upon waking up, she experienced severe impairments in speech and was unable to understand her mother. Her mother gave her a pen and paper hoping that might help them communicate better, but when Finn handed the notepad back to her, her mother was not able to understand what Finn wrote because the notepad had a disorganization of lines. This is known as:

A. Global aphasia
B. Broca’s aphasia
C. Wernicke’s aphasia

A

A

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40
Q

Luke is recovering from a stroke and slowly improving in his speech, however, his speech is slightly unclear, likely due to muscle weakness. This is called…

A. Aphasia
B. Agnosia
C. Dysphonia
D. Dysarthria

A

D

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41
Q

What is the gold standard treatment for ischemic stroke?

A. Norepinephrine
B. Tissue plasminogen activator
C. Carotid endarterectomy
D. Mechanical thrombectomy

A

B

tPA (B) is gold standard when combined WITH mechanical thrombectomy…trick question!

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42
Q

If Oscar had a traumatic brain injury and had no response, what level would he be on the Rachos Los Amigos Scale?

A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

A

A

Level I is the most severe; means “no response”

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43
Q

If Oscar had a traumatic brain injury and had a confused and agitated response, what level would he be on the Rachos Los Amigos Scale?

A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

A

D

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44
Q

If Oscar had a traumatic brain injury and had a localized response, what level would he be on the Rachos Los Amigos Scale?

A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

A

C

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45
Q

If Oscar had a traumatic brain injury and had a generalized response, what level would he be on the Rachos Los Amigos Scale?

A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

A

B

46
Q

How many levels are there in The Rachos Los Amigos Scale?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

A

D

47
Q

Which of the following is NOT a criterion for the classification of TBI?

A. Structural imaging
B. Glasgow coma scale (GCS)
C. Ranchos Los Amigos Scale (RLAS)
D. Loss of consciousness
E. Alteration of mental state

A

C

48
Q

According to the Glasgow Coma Scale, a grade 3-8 TBI is:

A. Comatose, unable to follow commands, often associated with other traumatic injuries
B. Able to follow commands but confused and may have emotional episodes and neurological deficits
C. A brief loss of consciousness (LOC), no focal neurological signs

A

A

49
Q

According to the Glasgow Coma Scale, a grade 13-15 TBI is:

A. Comatose, unable to follow commands, often associated with other traumatic injuries
B. Able to follow commands but confused and may have emotional episodes and neurological deficits
C. A brief loss of consciousness (LOC), no focal neurological signs

A

C

50
Q

According to the Glasgow Coma Scale, a grade 9-12 TBI is:

A. Comatose, unable to follow commands, often associated with other traumatic injuries
B. Able to follow commands but confused and may have emotional episodes and neurological deficits
C. A brief loss of consciousness (LOC), no focal neurological signs

A

B

51
Q

What is the difference between a focal and diffuse brain injury?

A

Focal: Subdural hematoma,

Diffuse: contusion (brain “bruise”), coup (site of impact), contracoup (opposite of impact)

52
Q

True or false: A diffuse axonal injury occurs when nerve fibers shear or tear and is always visible on the MRI.

A

FALSE

Trick question! The first part is true, however, it is NOT initially present; it’s only present on more modern imaging techniques, such as the DTI.

53
Q

How is heterotopic ossification related to TBI?

A

After a TBI (or any traumatic injury to the CNS) formation of bone in soft tissues can occur, especially around large joints

54
Q

True or false: MS is caused by damage to the Schwann cells resulting in dysfunction in communication between the brain and the body.

A

False

MS is caused by damage to the myelin sheath resulting in dysfunction in communication between the brain and the body.

55
Q

True or false: MS is a disorder of the central nervous system.

A

True

56
Q

True or false: Bladder and bowel problems can be associated with MS.

A

True

57
Q

What is the “MS hug”?

A

An uncomfortable, sometimes painful feeling of tightness or pressure, usually around the stomach or chest

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of MS?

A. Fatigue
B. Numbness/tingling
C. Narcolepsy
D. Vertigo
E. Brain Fog

A

C

59
Q

True or false: MS can affect speech or breathing.

A

True

60
Q

Match the following:

A. Upper motor neuron (UMN)
B. Lower motor neuron (LMN)

____ originates in cerebral cortex
____ innervates target muscles
____ originates in anterior horn
____ synapses in anterior horn

A

A originates in cerebral cortex
B innervates target muscles
B originates in anterior horn
A synapses in anterior horn

61
Q

The UMN/LMN connection allows muscles to ______________ and contributes to ______ and ________ reflexes.

A

contract
tonic
clonic

62
Q

The corticospinal tract is composed of two tracts:
A. _________________
B. _________________

  1. Describe what each tract governs (sensory or motor function-wise)
  2. Describe what you would see clinically if damaged
A

A. Lateral corticospinal tract
B. Anterior corticospinal tract

  1. LCST - skilled limb movement; ACST - postural control (bilateral trunk)
  2. Paralysis, increased muscle tone, increased deep tendon reflexes,
63
Q

The dorsal columns are composed of two fasciculi:
A. _________________
B. _________________

  1. Describe what you would see clinically if damaged
A

A. cuneate fasciculus
B. gracilis fasciculus

  1. Sensory ataxia, loss of joint proprioception, loss of proprioception, loss of vibratory sense
64
Q

The spinothalamic tracts are composed of two tracts:
A. _________________
B. _________________

  1. Describe what you would see clinically if damaged
A

A. Lateral spinothalamic tract
B. Anterior spinothalamic tract

A. Decreased or loss of pain/temp sensation on the contralateral side

65
Q

If you had a C5 spinal cord injury (SCI), what movement would be preserved (all others below would NOT be preserved)?

A. Elbow flexion
B. Wrist extension
C. Elbow extenion
D. Finger Flexion
E. Diaphraghm

A

A

66
Q

If you had a C8 spinal cord injury (SCI), what movement would be preserved (all others below would NOT be preserved)?

A. Elbow flexion
B. Wrist extension
C. Elbow extenion
D. Finger Flexion
E. Diaphraghm

A

D

67
Q

If you had a C7 spinal cord injury (SCI), what movement would be preserved (all others below would NOT be preserved)?

A. Elbow flexion
B. Wrist extension
C. Elbow extenion
D. Finger Flexion
E. Diaphraghm

A

C

68
Q

If you had a C3 spinal cord injury (SCI), what movement would be preserved (all others below would NOT be preserved)?

A. Elbow flexion
B. Wrist extension
C. Elbow extenion
D. Finger Flexion
E. Diaphraghm

A

E

NOTE: A C4 injury will mean impaired diaphragm function, reduced ability to fill the lungs to vital capacity, and a reduced cough.

69
Q

If you had a C6 spinal cord injury (SCI), what movement would be preserved (all others below would NOT be preserved)?

A. Elbow flexion
B. Wrist extension
C. Elbow extenion
D. Finger Flexion
E. Diaphraghm

A

B

70
Q

If you had a T1 through T12 spinal cord injury (SCI) would you be able to maintain posture? Walk?

A

Posture: No
Walk: Impaired; especially the lower you go, and especially with impaired posture

71
Q

If you had a L5 spinal cord injury (SCI), what movement would be preserved (all others below would NOT be preserved)?

A. Hip flexion
B. Hip extension
C. Ankle dorsiflexion
D. Toe extension

A

D

72
Q

If you had a L4 spinal cord injury (SCI), what movement would be preserved (all others below would NOT be preserved)?

A. Hip flexion
B. Hip extension
C. Ankle dorsiflexion
D. Toe extension

A

C

73
Q

If you had a L2 spinal cord injury (SCI), what movement would be preserved (all others below would NOT be preserved)?

A. Hip flexion
B. Hip extension
C. Ankle dorsiflexion
D. Toe extension

A

A

74
Q

If you had a L3 spinal cord injury (SCI), what movement would be preserved (all others below would NOT be preserved)?

A. Hip flexion
B. Hip extension
C. Ankle dorsiflexion
D. Toe extension

A

B

75
Q

What SCI would be damaged to affect bladder and bowel function?

A

S2-S5

76
Q

Central cord syndrome results in:

A. Contralateral loss of pain/temp sensation and ipsilateral loss of motor control, proprioception, and vibratory sensation
B. Loss of motor function, loss of pain/temp sensation
C. Lower motor neuron weakness below injury, upper motor neuron spasticity above injury, LE less impacted
D. Lower motor neuron flaccid paralysis with partial or complete loss of sensation

A

C

77
Q

Brown Sequard syndrome results in:

A. Contralateral loss of pain/temp sensation and ipsilateral loss of motor control, proprioception, and vibratory sensation
B. Loss of motor function, loss of pain/temp sensation
C. Lower motor neuron weakness below injury, upper motor neuron spasticity above injury, LE less impacted
D. Lower motor neuron flaccid paralysis with partial or complete loss of sensation

A

A

78
Q

Anterior cord syndrome results in:

A. Contralateral loss of pain/temp sensation and ipsilateral loss of motor control, proprioception, and vibratory sensation
B. Loss of motor function, loss of pain/temp sensation
C. Lower motor neuron weakness below injury, upper motor neuron spasticity above injury, LE less impacted
D. Lower motor neuron flaccid paralysis with partial or complete loss of sensation

A

B

79
Q

Cauda Equina syndrome results in:

A. Contralateral loss of pain/temp sensation and ipsilateral loss of motor control, proprioception, and vibratory sensation
B. Loss of motor function, loss of pain/temp sensation
C. Lower motor neuron weakness below injury, upper motor neuron spasticity above injury, LE less impacted
D. Lower motor neuron flaccid paralysis with partial or complete loss of sensation

A

D

80
Q

What is the ASIA scale?

A

A standardized scale to assess the sensory and motor levels which were affected by the spinal cord injury

It predicts function and neural recovery

81
Q

Motor testing requires ____ key muscles: _______ upper limb and ______ lower limb.

A

10 (key muscles)
5 (upper limb)
5 (lower limb)

82
Q

If you were grading a manual muscle test and a person had normal strength, what would their grade be?

A

5

83
Q

If you were grading a manual muscle test and a person had full ROM against gravity, without resistance, what would their grade be?

A

3

84
Q

If you were grading a manual muscle test and a person had no visible or palpable contraction, what would their grade be?

A

0

85
Q

True or false: Sensory grading is on a scale of 0 to 5.

A

False

0 (absent), 1 (impaired), 2 (normal)

86
Q

True or false: Orthostatic hypotension is a condition in which your blood pressure suddenly drops when you stand up from a seated or lying position.

A

True

87
Q

With a complete SCI, what OT approach would you use?

A

Compensatory (e.g., tenodesis)

88
Q

With an incomplete SCI, what OT approach would you use?

A

Compensatory and remediation

89
Q

True or false: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis results in death approximately 2 to 5 years from onset.

A

True

90
Q

True or false: Familial ALS is the most common type of ALS.

A

False

Sporadic ALS is (90%)

91
Q

True or false: Familial ALS is the most common type of ALS.

A

False

Sporadic ALS is (90%)

92
Q

ALS affects all but which of the following anterior horn and CN motor nuclei cells?

A. CN III
B. CN VII
C. CN X
D. CN XI
E. CN XII

A

A

Oculomotor neurons are typically spared

93
Q

True or False: In ALS, lower motor neurons degenerate while upper motor neurons demyelinate with sclerosis along the LCST and ACST.

A

True

94
Q

True or false: ALS is neurodegenerative, progressing to paralysis without remission.

A

True

95
Q

ALS presents with all but which of the following:

A. Impaired eye movements
B. Upper motor neuron signs
C. Lower motor neuron signs
D. Impaired respiratory functions

A

A

96
Q

Progressive polyneuropathy is related to which neuromuscular/movement disorder?

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. Parkinson’s

A

B

97
Q

Progressive neurodegeneration resulting in paralysis and eventual death is related to which neuromuscular/movement disorder?

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. Parkinson’s

A

C

98
Q

Progressive neuromuscular junction dysfunction is related to which neuromuscular/movement disorder?

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Guillain-Barré syndrome
C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
D. Parkinson’s

A

A

99
Q

Autonomic dysfunction, neuromuscular respiratory failure, cranial nerve weakness, and symmetrical weakness of the extremities that can improve over days to months are the clinical presentation of…

A

Gillain-Barré Syndrome

100
Q

True or false: Myasthenic crisis can result in quadriparesis or respiratory arrest.

A

True

101
Q

True or false: Huntington’s disease is caused by a gene mutation and results in progressive degeneration of neurons in the brain.

A

True

102
Q

Involuntary movements (chorea), progressive dementia, attentional deficits, restlessness, and apathy are the characteristics of this autosomal dominant disorder named…

A

Huntington’s disease

103
Q

This degenerative disorder of the basal ganglia is caused by a loss of dopamine neurons in the substantia nigra resulting in inhibition of the motor cortex and overactivity in the limbic system.

A

Parkinson’s

104
Q

Resting tremor, plastic (“lead pipe”) rigidity, cogwheel rigidity, bradykinesia/akinesia, diminished postural reflexes, depression, dementia, autonomic dysfunction and fatigue are characteristics of which neurodegenerative disease?

A

Parkinson’s

105
Q

What is plastic rigidity?

A

Constant resistance throughout ROM

106
Q

What is cogwheel rigidity?

A

brief, palpable jerks, accompanied by tremor

107
Q

What is chorea?

A

Irregular, involuntary “dance-like” movements

108
Q

Radioulnar symptoms in dermatomes distribution caused by a herniation in the foramen of C6 can produce weakness and atrophy and/or sensory deficits in which area?

A. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand, and medial scapular area
B. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm and forearm, intermediate aspect of hand, and medial scapular area
C. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm and medial scapular area
D. Ulnar (medial) aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand, and medial scapular area

A

A

B is indicative of a C7 herniation.
C is indicative of a C5 herniation.
D is indicative of a C8 herniation.

109
Q

Radioulnar symptoms in dermatomes distribution caused by a herniation in the foramen of C7 can produce weakness and atrophy and/or sensory deficits in which area?

A. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand, and medial scapular area
B. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm and forearm, intermediate aspect of hand, and medial scapular area
C. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm and medial scapular area
D. Ulnar (medial) aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand, and medial scapular area

A

B

A is indicative of a C6 herniation.
C is indicative of a C5 herniation.
D is indicative of a C8 herniation.

110
Q

Radioulnar symptoms in dermatomes distribution caused by a herniation in the foramen of C8 can produce weakness and atrophy and/or sensory deficits in which area?

A. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand, and medial scapular area
B. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm and forearm, intermediate aspect of hand, and medial scapular area
C. Radial (lateral) aspect of the arm and medial scapular area
D. Ulnar (medial) aspect of the arm, forearm, and hand, and medial scapular area

A

D

A is indicative of a C6 herniation.
B is indicative of a C7 herniation.
C is indicative of a C5 herniation.

Clinical Conditions II: Physical Health (7 decks)

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