01 exam udemy Flashcards
Assumption identification and documentation should happen as early as possible in the project. This helps the team plan more effectively. All of the following are assumptions except for which one?
A. Planning on agreeable weather for a construction project
B. Allowing 10 percent of the time for travel delays
C. Planning on completing the project work during daylight hours only
D. A predetermined budget of $125,000
D. A predetermined project budget is a cost constraint. A, B, and C are incorrect because each is an assumption.
Assumption identification and documentation should happen as early as possible in the project. This helps the team plan more effectively. All of the following are assumptions except for which one?
A. Planning on agreeable weather for a construction project
B. Allowing 10 percent of the time for travel delays
C. Planning on completing the project work during daylight hours only
D. A predetermined budget of $125,000
Stakeholder identification is a process that should start as early as possible in the project and continue through the project closure. This activity ensures that stakeholders are engaged and managed throughout the entire project life cycle. When does a stakeholder exert the most influence over a project? A. At the project’s start B. During the project’s execution C. During the project’s planning phase D. During the project’s closing phase
A. Stakeholders have the most influence on a project’s success at the start of the project. B, C, and D are incorrect because all are false statements.
Stakeholder identification is a process that should start as early as possible in the project and continue through the project closure. This activity ensures that stakeholders are engaged and managed throughout the entire project life cycle. When does a stakeholder exert the most influence over a project? A. At the project’s start B. During the project’s execution C. During the project’s planning phase D. During the project’s closing phase
You are the project manager of an industrial expansion in your city. Which one of the following groups could be viewed as a negative stakeholder?
A. The finance department that will pay for the expansion
B. An environmental group that is opposed to expansion
C. The city council that believes the expansion may bring more jobs to the community
D. The change control board for your project because they do not want changes to the project scope
B. Because the environmental group is opposed to your project, they are viewed as a negative stakeholder. A is incorrect. The finance department is a stakeholder, but they are likely positive since they are part of your organization. C is incorrect. The city council is a positive stakeholder because they are in favor of your project. D is also incorrect. The change control board is also a stakeholder, but they will likely be positive given they’re part of your organization.
You are the project manager of an industrial expansion in your city. Which one of the following groups could be viewed as a negative stakeholder?
A. The finance department that will pay for the expansion
B. An environmental group that is opposed to expansion
C. The city council that believes the expansion may bring more jobs to the community
D. The change control board for your project because they do not want changes to the project scope
Stakeholder identification is essential to effective project managers. All of the following are key stakeholders on every project except for which one? A. The project manager B. The project management team C. Influencers D. Government agencies
D. Because government agencies are not key stakeholders on every project. A is incorrect because the project manager is a key stakeholder on every project. B is incorrect because the project management team is a key stakeholder on every project. C is also incorrect because influencers are key stakeholders on every project.
Stakeholder identification is essential to effective project managers. All of the following are key stakeholders on every project except for which one? A. The project manager B. The project management team C. Influencers D. Government agencies
You are a project management consultant to the DWD Project. The team on the project is concerned about stakeholder identification and stakeholder management. They want to define the roles and responsibilities for stakeholder management. Who identifies project stakeholders and determines their requirements for the project? A. The project champion B. The project team C. Influencers D. The project sponsor
B. The project team is responsible for identifying stakeholders and determining the requirements for the project. A, C, and D are incorrect because these are all false statements.
You are a project management consultant to the DWD Project. The team on the project is concerned about stakeholder identification and stakeholder management. They want to define the roles and responsibilities for stakeholder management. Who identifies project stakeholders and determines their requirements for the project? A. The project champion B. The project team C. Influencers D. The project sponsor
A project has been initiated to implement quality improvement throughout your organization. You have been assigned the role of project manager. Which one of the following is needed first for this quality improvement project? A. A quality management plan B. Quality control mechanisms C. A project charter D. A communications management plan
C. All projects, regardless of their intent, first need a project charter. A is incorrect. While a quality management plan will likely be needed, a project charter comes first. B is incorrect because a project charter is needed before quality controls. D is also incorrect because a communications management plan will likely be needed, but only after the project charter has been issued.
A project has been initiated to implement quality improvement throughout your organization. You have been assigned the role of project manager. Which one of the following is needed first for this quality improvement project? A. A quality management plan B. Quality control mechanisms C. A project charter D. A communications management plan
You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with management to ensure that every project in the organization has a standard project charter. What is the primary concern of a project charter?
A. To authorize the project
B. To identify the project manager
C. To determine the project budget and schedule
D. To launch the project
A. All projects, regardless of their intent, first need a project charter. The charter authorizes the project. B is incorrect because the primary concern of the charter is authorize the project charter, and then it names the project manager. C is incorrect because the project charter does not determine the project schedule and budget. D is also incorrect. While one could argue that a charter launches the project, they’d be wrong. The question asks for the primary concern of the charter, which is to authorize the project.
You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with management to ensure that every project in the organization has a standard project charter. What is the primary concern of a project charter?
A. To authorize the project
B. To identify the project manager
C. To determine the project budget and schedule
D. To launch the project
A project charter has been written for your project which spans multiple departments within your matrix-structured organization. Who should actually charter this project?
A. You, the project manager
B. The functional managers of each affected department
C. An entity outside of the project but within the organization
D. The project management team
C. All projects should be chartered and authorized external to the project and with the power to execute decisions for resources and time. A is incorrect. The project manager needs authority from a higher entity within the organization. B is incorrect. There should be one entity that charters the project. This scenario will likely cause power struggles for the project resources and deliverables. D is also incorrect because the project management team does not authorize the project.
A project charter has been written for your project which spans multiple departments within your matrix-structured organization. Who should actually charter this project?
A. You, the project manager
B. The functional managers of each affected department
C. An entity outside of the project but within the organization
D. The project management team
You are a project manager for your organization. One of the managers is refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance? A. A project manager B. A risk management plan C. Project scope D. A project charter
D. The functional manager is likely not allowing her employees to work on the project because there is no charter requiring the manager to do so. A is incorrect because you are the project manager. B is incorrect because the risk management plan is not applicable to this scenario. C is also incorrect. The project scope may be missing, but it is not as important as the project charter, which authorizes the project.
You are a project manager for your organization. One of the managers is refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance? A. A project manager B. A risk management plan C. Project scope D. A project charter
As project manager, you will be managing a politically charged and expensive project. However, you anticipate that managers from around the company will try to use the project team for their own aims rather than focus on the goal of the project. Given this, who should charter the project?
A. The project manager
B. The functional manager that is perceived to have the most power
C. An entity that is at an organization level and that is appropriate for authorizing the project’s funding
D. The primary customer affected by the project’s outcome
C. The project should be chartered by an entity outside of the project organization that can authorize the project funding. A is incorrect because you are already the project manager. B is incorrect because the functional manager may not have the authority to authorize resources and funds for the project. D is also incorrect. The primary customer isn’t always the project sponsor. In addition, the question does not allude to which customer is affected by the project the most, so one must consider that the customer could be outside of the organization altogether.
As project manager, you will be managing a politically charged and expensive project. However, you anticipate that managers from around the company will try to use the project team for their own aims rather than focus on the goal of the project. Given this, who should charter the project?
A. The project manager
B. The functional manager that is perceived to have the most power
C. An entity that is at an organization level and that is appropriate for authorizing the project’s funding
D. The primary customer affected by the project’s outcome
Beth is the project manager of the NQL Project for her company and she’s working with the project management team to draft the project charter. In Beth’s charter, she should define all except one of the following in order for the project charter to be approved. Which one does not need to be defined?
A. The project manager and the authority level
B. Anticipated quality standards
C. Summary milestones
D. A summary budget
B. Anticipated quality standards are not part of the project charter requirements. The project charter should define the project purpose, project objectives, high-level requirements, assumptions and constraints for the project, risks, project boundaries, milestones, budget, stakeholder list, approval requirements, project manager, and the project sponsor. A is incorrect. The project manager and level of authority is one of the project charter requirements. C is incorrect because summary milestones is one of the project charter requirements. D is also incorrect because a summary budget is one of the project charter requirements.
Beth is the project manager of the NQL Project for her company and she’s working with the project management team to draft the project charter. In Beth’s charter, she should define all except one of the following in order for the project charter to be approved. Which one does not need to be defined?
A. The project manager and the authority level
B. Anticipated quality standards
C. Summary milestones
D. A summary budget
The project manager reports that the project is progressing according to scope. Management asks to change a few requirements with the scope. Which plan details how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed in the project? A. The scope management plan B. The change control system C. The communications management plan D. The requirements management plan
D. The requirements management plan defines everything when it comes to identifying, documenting, and controlling project requirements. A is incorrect because the scope management plan defines just the details of the project scope and how it is defined and controlled. B is incorrect because the change control system is the process for all of change management. C is also incorrect because the communications management plan does not detail how changes to the scope will be documented.
The project manager reports that the project is progressing according to scope. Management asks to change a few requirements with the scope. Which plan details how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed in the project? A. The scope management plan B. The change control system C. The communications management plan D. The requirements management plan
You are the project manager of a large construction project you are completing for another organization. You and the project team have finished the requirements-gathering process and are creating the work breakdown structure for the project. The customer informs you, however, that they need to increase the size of the building by 10,000 square feet. They are willing to accept the fee and time schedule change. What must happen next?
A. The project scope must be revised.
B. The project must be started over.
C. Nothing. The project manager can add the 10,000 square feet to the WBS.
D. The change must be managed through the cost control system.
A. Revisions are a special type of project schedule change, and cause the project start date and, more likely, the project end date to be changed. Revisions typically stem from project scope changes. B is incorrect. The project has really just started because the WBS hasn’t even been created yet. Thus, it isn’t necessary to scrap the project and start over at this point. C is incorrect. The project manager cannot simply add the additional requests into the WBS. They must be added to the project scope, documented, planned for, and then migrated into the WBS. D is also incorrect. A cost control system may not be created at this point. In addition, the project is being completed for another entity and they demand the change.
You are the project manager of a large construction project you are completing for another organization. You and the project team have finished the requirements-gathering process and are creating the work breakdown structure for the project. The customer informs you, however, that they need to increase the size of the building by 10,000 square feet. They are willing to accept the fee and time schedule change. What must happen next?
A. The project scope must be revised.
B. The project must be started over.
C. Nothing. The project manager can add the 10,000 square feet to the WBS.
D. The change must be managed through the cost control system.
You are the project manager of a large construction project. You and your project team are planning a method to control changes during the construction project, and both of you realize that changes often happen in the field—changes that may be different than what the blueprints in the office reflect. The goal of your planning activity is a way to track actual changes in the field and reflect those changes in the blueprints in the office. You want consistency between what’s actually being constructed and what the blueprints in the office reflect. What is this process called? (Choose the best answer.) A. Project management planning B. Change assessment C. Scope validation D. Configuration management
D. This is an example of configuration management, which seeks consistency in tracking and monitoring approved changes in a project. A is incorrect. Though this is part of project planning, it does not fully answer the question. B is incorrect. This is not a valid choice for this question because no changes have been proposed yet; the project team is simply planning on how configuration management should work within their project. C is incorrect. Scope validation happens with the customer and seeks acceptance of the project work.
You are the project manager of a large construction project. You and your project team are planning a method to control changes during the construction project, and both of you realize that changes often happen in the field—changes that may be different than what the blueprints in the office reflect. The goal of your planning activity is a way to track actual changes in the field and reflect those changes in the blueprints in the office. You want consistency between what’s actually being constructed and what the blueprints in the office reflect. What is this process called? (Choose the best answer.) A. Project management planning B. Change assessment C. Scope validation D. Configuration management
In most projects, change is inevitable. Changes must be considered for their impact on the project as a whole, documented, and tracked throughout the entire project. Which system would track how project deliverables are controlled, changed, and approved?
A. The change control system
B. The project management information system
C. The change management system
D. The scope management system
A. The change control system seeks to control how deliverables are controlled, changed, and approved. B is incorrect because this is not a valid answer for this question. C is incorrect because this, too, is not a valid answer for this question. D is also incorrect because this is also not a valid answer for this question.
In most projects, change is inevitable. Changes must be considered for their impact on the project as a whole, documented, and tracked throughout the entire project. Which system would track how project deliverables are controlled, changed, and approved?
A. The change control system
B. The project management information system
C. The change management system
D. The scope management system
Kevin is the project manager of the BQA Project for his organization and he’s working with management and the project team to define the change control system. All of the following activities should be planned as part of the change control system except for which one?
A. Methods to identify that a change has occurred (or must occur)
B. The process for reviewing and approving requested changes
C. A method for documenting the impact of requested changes
D. A methodology to track team personnel changes
D. Changes to the team personnel are not part of the change control system. A, B, and C are incorrect. None of them are valid answers for the question because each is part of the change control system.
Kevin is the project manager of the BQA Project for his organization and he’s working with management and the project team to define the change control system. All of the following activities should be planned as part of the change control system except for which one?
A. Methods to identify that a change has occurred (or must occur)
B. The process for reviewing and approving requested changes
C. A method for documenting the impact of requested changes
D. A methodology to track team personnel changes
You and the project team are creating the change control system for your project. Marcy, a project team member, wants to know why there is so much emphasis on creating and documenting the change control system. Which one of the following is the best answer to Marcy’s query?
A. A documented change control system is required by management.
B. A documented change control system is required by the project customer.
C. A documented change control system allows the project to improve because the impact of each change must be considered before it is approved.
D. A documented change control system allows the project’s profitability to improve because each change may affect the profit and loss of the project.
C. A change control system requires that each change request be evaluated and its impact on the project considered before approving the change request. A is incorrect. While this is likely true in many organizations, it is not the best answer for this question. B is also incorrect. The project customer may not know or realize that a change control system exists. In addition, this is not the best answer for Marcy’s question. D is incorrect as well. This is not a valid answer for this question because not every project has a profit and loss statement (consider micro projects and not-for-profit endeavors).
You and the project team are creating the change control system for your project. Marcy, a project team member, wants to know why there is so much emphasis on creating and documenting the change control system. Which one of the following is the best answer to Marcy’s query?
A. A documented change control system is required by management.
B. A documented change control system is required by the project customer.
C. A documented change control system allows the project to improve because the impact of each change must be considered before it is approved.
D. A documented change control system allows the project’s profitability to improve because each change may affect the profit and loss of the project.
You are the project manager of the Absolute Quality Company. You are working with your project team to determine the best approach for identifying and analyzing project risks. Which of the following is not a risk diagramming technique? A. Influence diagrams B. A network diagram C. A process flowchart D. Cause-and-effect diagrams
B. A network diagram does not help identify risks but is instead a tool used in activity sequencing to identify precedents and dependencies. A is incorrect because influence diagrams are graphical representations showing causal influences and can help identify risks. C is incorrect because process flowcharts show how elements of a system interrelate and can help identify risks. D is incorrect as well. Cause-and-effect diagrams are also known as Ishikawa or fishbone diagrams and can help identify risks.
You are the project manager of the Absolute Quality Company. You are working with your project team to determine the best approach for identifying and analyzing project risks. Which of the following is not a risk diagramming technique? A. Influence diagrams B. A network diagram C. A process flowchart D. Cause-and-effect diagrams
Risks should be identified as early as possible in the project and then analyzed and tracked for their outcomes and in-depth planning. The risk register contains all but one of the following. Which doesn’t it include? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Root causes of risks C. Updated risk categories D. A list of potential responses
A. Qualitative risk analysis is not contained in the risk register. B is incorrect because root causes of risks describe the fundamental conditions or events that give rise to the risk, and are included in the risk register. C is incorrect because the process of identifying risk can lead to new categories of risk and these are included in the risk register. D is also incorrect. Potential responses may be identified during the risk identification process and are included in the risk register.
Risks should be identified as early as possible in the project and then analyzed and tracked for their outcomes and in-depth planning. The risk register contains all but one of the following. Which doesn’t it include? A. Qualitative risk analysis B. Root causes of risks C. Updated risk categories D. A list of potential responses
You are the project manager of the GGJ Project and you’re working with your project team to create the project’s risk management plan. Which one of the following items is NOT part of the risk management plan? A. Budgeting B. Risk categories C. The risk register D. Methodology
C. The risk register is not part of the risk management plan but rather the output of the risk identification process. A is incorrect because it assigns resources and cost estimates for risk management activities and is therefore part of the risk management plan. B is incorrect because risk categories provide a structure that ensures a comprehensive process to identify risks to a consistent level of detail and is, therefore, part of the risk management plan. D is incorrect because a methodology defines the approach, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management and is thus part of the risk management plan.
You are the project manager of the GGJ Project and you’re working with your project team to create the project’s risk management plan. Which one of the following items is NOT part of the risk management plan? A. Budgeting B. Risk categories C. The risk register D. Methodology
You are the project manager of a new project, the sponsor thinks that there may be unidentified risks in the project. Which of the following items is not an input to the risk identification process? A. Organizational process assets B. Pareto charts C. The project scope statement D. The risk management plan
B. While Pareto charts are useful for quality control, they are not specific inputs to the risk identification process. A is incorrect. Organizational process assets are an input to risk identification because information on prior projects may be available, including actual data and lessons learned. C is incorrect. The project scope statement is an input to risk identification because any uncertainty in project assumptions should be evaluated as a potential cause of risk. D is incorrect. The risk management plan is a key input to risk identification, including roles and responsibilities, provisions for risk management activities in the budget and schedule, and categories of risk.
You are the project manager of a new project, the sponsor thinks that there may be unidentified risks in the project. Which of the following items is not an input to the risk identification process? A. Organizational process assets B. Pareto charts C. The project scope statement D. The risk management plan
Barry is working with his project team and key stakeholders to identify project risks. Which of the following items is a tool or technique for risk identification?
A. Control charts
B. Defect repair review
C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats (SWOT) analysis
D. A product analysis
C. This technique ensures examination of the project from each of the SWOT perspectives to increase the breadth of considered risks. It is therefore an effective risk identification technique. A is incorrect. The purpose of control charts is to determine whether or not a process is stable, or has predictable performance. Thus, it is not a risk identification technique. B is incorrect. Defect repair review is an action taken by the quality control department to ensure defects are repaired. It is therefore not a risk identification technique. D is also incorrect. Product analysis uses techniques like product breakdown to help define the scope of a project rather than identify risks.
Barry is working with his project team and key stakeholders to identify project risks. Which of the following items is a tool or technique for risk identification?
A. Control charts
B. Defect repair review
C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats (SWOT) analysis
D. A product analysis
You are the project manager of the new server project for your company. This project will replace 128 network servers on your company’s network. Your project sponsor has requested that you keep her informed of the outcomes of the quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following is a common quantitative risk analysis technique? A. Risk categorization B. Expected monetary value analysis C. A probability-impact matrix D. A risk register
B. Expected monetary value analysis is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. Therefore, it is a quantitative analysis technique. A is incorrect. Risk categorization determines areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty, but it is not a quantitative analysis technique. C is incorrect because this matrix prioritizes risks for further quantitative analysis. D is incorrect because the risk register is an output of the risk identification process and is not a quantitative analysis technique.
You are the project manager of the new server project for your company. This project will replace 128 network servers on your company’s network. Your project sponsor has requested that you keep her informed of the outcomes of the quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following is a common quantitative risk analysis technique? A. Risk categorization B. Expected monetary value analysis C. A probability-impact matrix D. A risk register
Which quantitative analysis diagramming technique can help the project manager make the best decision by evaluating a situation and the implication of each variable? A. Alternatives identification B. The precedence diagramming method C. The arrow diagramming method D. A decision tree
D. This is a decision tree diagram that describes a situation and the implications of each of the available choices with the costs and rewards of each choice. A is incorrect. Alternatives identification is a technique used to generate different approaches to perform the work of the project rather than a quantitative risk analysis technique. B is incorrect. The precedence diagramming method is a way to construct the project schedule and thus is not a quantitative risk analysis technique. C is incorrect. The arrow diagramming method is a way to construct the project schedule network diagram and is therefore not a quantitative risk analysis technique.
Which quantitative analysis diagramming technique can help the project manager make the best decision by evaluating a situation and the implication of each variable? A. Alternatives identification B. The precedence diagramming method C. The arrow diagramming method D. A decision tree
Which risk diagramming technique can help predict project cost based on probability and cost of risk? A. Cost simulation B. The Pareto chart C. An Ishikawa diagram D. A decision tree
A. Through numerous iterations, this chart describes the cumulative distribution of results from a cost simulation. B is incorrect because a Pareto chart is a quality control technique. C is incorrect because an Ishikawa diagram is used for root cause analysis rather than quantitative risk analysis. D is also incorrect because a decision tree diagram is a quantitative risk analysis technique, but this is not what is shown in the diagram.
Which risk diagramming technique can help predict project cost based on probability and cost of risk? A. Cost simulation B. The Pareto chart C. An Ishikawa diagram D. A decision tree
You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but your functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are operating in a functional environment, you’d like some compromise with your functional manager. Which individual has the power in a functional organization? A. The project manager B. The customer C. The functional manager D. The program manager
C. The functional manager has the power in a functional organization. A is incorrect. The project manager has limited power in a functional organization and may even be known as a project coordinator or team leader. B is incorrect. Although the customer sets the project requirements, they have little project management authority. D is incorrect because a program manager won’t likely exist in a functional organization.
You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but your functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are operating in a functional environment, you’d like some compromise with your functional manager. Which individual has the power in a functional organization? A. The project manager B. The customer C. The functional manager D. The program manager
Your project plan may not be approved due to the amount of working capital your project would require to move into execution. Working capital is defined as which one of the following?
A. Funds that have been invested into a project that is failing to meet performance objectives
B. Funds available to invest in a new project
C. Funds the project will generate before the project is even completed
D. The amount of funds the monies would have earned if they were invested in a savings account rather than in a project
B. Working capital is the money an organization has to run the business and invest in new opportunities—which includes projects. A is incorrect. This explanation describes sunk costs. C is incorrect. This explanation describes the return on investment for the project. D is incorrect. This explanation describes the time value of money.
Your project plan may not be approved due to the amount of working capital your project would require to move into execution. Working capital is defined as which one of the following?
A. Funds that have been invested into a project that is failing to meet performance objectives
B. Funds available to invest in a new project
C. Funds the project will generate before the project is even completed
D. The amount of funds the monies would have earned if they were invested in a savings account rather than in a project
You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but a functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are operating in a strong matrix environment, you’d like some compromise with your functional manager. Which individual has more power in a strong matrix organization? A. The project manager B. The customer C. The functional manager D. The program manager
A. The project manager has the power in a strong matrix organization. B is incorrect. Although the customer sets the project requirements, they have little project management authority. C is incorrect because the functional manager has limited power in a strong matrix organization. D is incorrect because a program manager may not even exist in a strong matrix organization.
You and your project team have just created the proposed project plan, but a functional manager disagrees with you on many areas of it. Because you are operating in a strong matrix environment, you’d like some compromise with your functional manager. Which individual has more power in a strong matrix organization? A. The project manager B. The customer C. The functional manager D. The program manager
Alice is the project manager of the LAB Project for her company. She’s working with her project team to create the project management plan. Which of the following statements about the project plan is true?
A. A project plan is not needed for all projects.
B. A project plan cannot be changed during the project implementation.
C. Management must approve the project plan.
D. Customers have the final say regarding the project plan’s approval.
C. Management must approve all project plans. A is incorrect. All projects need a project plan. B is incorrect. Project plans can, and often are, changed during project implementation. D is incorrect. Customers have input, but not the final say on a project plan’s approval.
Alice is the project manager of the LAB Project for her company. She’s working with her project team to create the project management plan. Which of the following statements about the project plan is true?
A. A project plan is not needed for all projects.
B. A project plan cannot be changed during the project implementation.
C. Management must approve the project plan.
D. Customers have the final say regarding the project plan’s approval.
Why should the project manager and the project team invite the stakeholders to participate in the project planning sessions?
A. Actually, the project stakeholders should not be involved in the project planning because their presence may stifle creativity among the project team members.
B. The project stakeholders are usually the individuals that are paying for the project work, so they should be involved in the planning sessions.
C. The project stakeholders must be present to monitor the planning sessions in case the project team moves away from their requirements. This way they can correct the discussion and keep the planning on track for their deliverables.
D. The stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in developing the project plan.
D. Stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in developing the project plan. A is incorrect because this isn’t true. B is incorrect. While this statement may be true in many instances, it is not the best reason to involve stakeholders in the project planning sessions. C is also incorrect. This is not true because the goal of involving stakeholders is to use their knowledge about the deliverable they want, not to direct the project team in their discussion on how to best create the deliverables.
Why should the project manager and the project team invite the stakeholders to participate in the project planning sessions?
A. Actually, the project stakeholders should not be involved in the project planning because their presence may stifle creativity among the project team members.
B. The project stakeholders are usually the individuals that are paying for the project work, so they should be involved in the planning sessions.
C. The project stakeholders must be present to monitor the planning sessions in case the project team moves away from their requirements. This way they can correct the discussion and keep the planning on track for their deliverables.
D. The stakeholders have skills and knowledge that can be leveraged in developing the project plan.
Your project is just beginning and you have invited all of the key stakeholders, the project team, and members of management to participate in an initial meeting. What is this type of meeting called? A. A requirements-gathering meeting B. A risk identification meeting C. A kick-off meeting D. A team development meeting
C. A project kick-off meeting gets the project moving and identifies the individuals involved in the project. A is incorrect. This is not the requirements-gathering meeting, though project requirements may be touched on. B is incorrect because this is not a meeting for risk identification. D is also incorrect because this is not a team development meeting.
Your project is just beginning and you have invited all of the key stakeholders, the project team, and members of management to participate in an initial meeting. What is this type of meeting called? A. A requirements-gathering meeting B. A risk identification meeting C. A kick-off meeting D. A team development meeting
You are the project manager for your company and you’ve recently been assigned to a new high-profile project. When should the project kick-off meeting happen?
A. When the project manager has the project team assembled for the first time
B. When the project manager has approved the project plan
C. When management has approved the initial project plan
D. At the start of scope validation
C. The project kick-off meeting happens after the initial project plan has been approved. A is incorrect because this does not answer the question as well as C. B is incorrect because the project manager does not necessarily approve the project plan—management does. D is incorrect; this is not a valid statement because scope validation is an inspection-drive process that aims for the project customer to accept the project work.
You are the project manager for your company and you’ve recently been assigned to a new high-profile project. When should the project kick-off meeting happen?
A. When the project manager has the project team assembled for the first time
B. When the project manager has approved the project plan
C. When management has approved the initial project plan
D. At the start of scope validation
You are the project manager for your company and you’re managing a new project. You want to schedule a kick-off meeting but your project sponsor doesn’t want to do this. Why should you host a kick-off meeting?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet.
B. It allows the project to begin.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the project’s purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.
C. The project kick-off meeting happens so that the participants can all understand the project’s purpose. A is incorrect because while this may be a true statement for many projects, it is not the primary purpose of the project’s kick-off meeting. B is incorrect because the project charter is technically what launches the project, not the kick-off meeting. D is incorrect because this is not the primary purpose of the project’s kick-off meeting.
You are the project manager for your company and you’re managing a new project. You want to schedule a kick-off meeting but your project sponsor doesn’t want to do this. Why should you host a kick-off meeting?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet.
B. It allows the project to begin.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the project’s purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.
Beth wants to host a project kick-off meeting for her new project. Which of the following statement about the project kick-off meeting is false?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet one another.
B. Only the project team should attend.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the project’s purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.
B. All of the key stakeholders should attend the project kick-off meeting, not just the project team. A is incorrect because this is true of the project kick-off meeting. C is incorrect because this is true of the project kick-off meeting. D is incorrect because this is true of the project kick-off meeting.
Beth wants to host a project kick-off meeting for her new project. Which of the following statement about the project kick-off meeting is false?
A. It allows all the stakeholders to meet one another.
B. Only the project team should attend.
C. It ensures that all of the participants understand the project’s purpose.
D. It builds morale for all of the stakeholders.
A project manager has added time between two activities. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Lag B. Lead C. Crashing D. Fast-tracking
A. Lag time is waiting time. When a project manager adds time between activities, he is adding lag. B is incorrect. Lead is subtracting time between activities. C is incorrect because crashing adds resources to activities so they can finish faster. D is incorrect because fast-tracking changes the relationship between activities so they can finish faster.
A project manager has added time between two activities. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Lag B. Lead C. Crashing D. Fast-tracking
You are working with a vendor that is completing some of the project activities. Some of the vendor’s activities are on the critical path. Which one of the following statements about the critical path is true?
A. The critical path is the path with the most activities.
B. The critical path is the path with zero float.
C. The critical path is the path with the least lag.
D. The critical path is the path with critical activities.
B. The critical path is the path with zero float. A is incorrect. A path can have many activities and not be the critical path. C is also incorrect. While lag can increase a project’s duration, a path with the least lag does not make it the critical path. D is incorrect because this is not a valid answer.
You are working with a vendor that is completing some of the project activities. Some of the vendor’s activities are on the critical path. Which one of the following statements about the critical path is true?
A. The critical path is the path with the most activities.
B. The critical path is the path with zero float.
C. The critical path is the path with the least lag.
D. The critical path is the path with critical activities.
You are a project manager for your organization and are working on assigning project team members to activities. You must complete an activity by a predetermined date. Currently, with four project team members assigned to the activity, the work will take 40 hours. You know that by adding eight project team members to the work, the task won’t necessarily be reduced to 20 hours. This is because of which one of the following? A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation B. The law of diminishing returns C. Parkinson’s Law D. Theory Z
B. The law of diminishing returns affects the yield of work in relation to work duration. A is incorrect because Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation deals with hygiene agents and motivating agents. C is incorrect because Parkinson’s Law states that work will expand to fulfill the time allotted to it. D is also incorrect because Ouchi’s Theory Z believes in cooperative management.
You are a project manager for your organization and are working on assigning project team members to activities. You must complete an activity by a predetermined date. Currently, with four project team members assigned to the activity, the work will take 40 hours. You know that by adding eight project team members to the work, the task won’t necessarily be reduced to 20 hours. This is because of which one of the following? A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation B. The law of diminishing returns C. Parkinson’s Law D. Theory Z
You are the project manager of a two-year project for your company. You’re working with the project team to identify the constraints and assumptions of the project. Your project sponsor comes to the analysis meeting and wants to know when the largest percentage of the project budget will be spent. What should you tell the project sponsor? A. During the initiation processes B. During the planning processes C. During the execution processes D. During the control processes
C. The largest percentage of the project budget will be spent during the project execution processes. A is incorrect. The initiation processes do not require the bulk of the project budget. B is incorrect because the planning processes do not require the bulk of the project budget. D is also incorrect because the control processes do not require the bulk of the project budget.
You are the project manager of a two-year project for your company. You’re working with the project team to identify the constraints and assumptions of the project. Your project sponsor comes to the analysis meeting and wants to know when the largest percentage of the project budget will be spent. What should you tell the project sponsor? A. During the initiation processes B. During the planning processes C. During the execution processes D. During the control processes
You are the project manager of an interior decorating project. Currently, the project plan calls for the painter to prime the walls for painting, wait four hours for the walls to cure, and then begin the painting process. However, due to humidity, the walls are taking four hours longer to cure than planned. The painting activities are on the critical path. Which one of the following is an acceptable solution for this problem that won’t change the project end date?
A. Add lead time to the painting activity.
B. Add lag time to the painting activity.
C. Change the relation of other activities so the primer can cure faster.
D. Examine the network diagram to determine if the relationships between activities can be changed. If so, move the painting activities to later in the project.
D. Because the critical path cannot be expanded, the only logical choice is to attempt to move the activities to later in the project. The project team should focus on other activities while the primer cures. A is incorrect because lead time subtracts time from the scheduled start time of activities. B is incorrect. Lag time will increase the time of the painting activities. C is also incorrect because changing the relationship of activities will not help the primer cure faster.
You are the project manager of an interior decorating project. Currently, the project plan calls for the painter to prime the walls for painting, wait four hours for the walls to cure, and then begin the painting process. However, due to humidity, the walls are taking four hours longer to cure than planned. The painting activities are on the critical path. Which one of the following is an acceptable solution for this problem that won’t change the project end date?
A. Add lead time to the painting activity.
B. Add lag time to the painting activity.
C. Change the relation of other activities so the primer can cure faster.
D. Examine the network diagram to determine if the relationships between activities can be changed. If so, move the painting activities to later in the project.
You are the project manager of a building restoration project. You have elected to add more workers to an activity on the critical path so the project can finish on time. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Risk management B. Time management C. Crashing D. Fast-tracking
C. Crashing allows the project manager to add resources to an activity to complete it faster. This does not always work because some activities have a fixed duration. A is incorrect. This is not risk management. Fast-tracking, not crashing, introduces new risk for projects. B is incorrect because this is not an example of time management. D is also incorrect. Fast-tracking allows activities that should start in succession to overlap so the project may finish sooner. Fast-tracking may also use lead time.
You are the project manager of a building restoration project. You have elected to add more workers to an activity on the critical path so the project can finish on time. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Risk management B. Time management C. Crashing D. Fast-tracking
You are the project manager of a project to create a training manual. The project is running late. You elect to change the relationship of several activities from finish-to-start to start-to-start so the project may complete on schedule. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Crashing B. Fast-tracking C. Rolling wave planning D. Expert judgment
B. Fast-tracking changes the relationships of activities so the project may finish sooner than expected. A is incorrect. Crashing allows the project manager to add resources to the project work in order to complete it sooner than expected. C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning allows planning to be completed based on the conditions within the project in waves or successions. D is also incorrect because this is not an example of expert judgment.
You are the project manager of a project to create a training manual. The project is running late. You elect to change the relationship of several activities from finish-to-start to start-to-start so the project may complete on schedule. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Crashing B. Fast-tracking C. Rolling wave planning D. Expert judgment
Ned is the project manager of the NQA Project and he’s using earned value management to show project performance. He learns, however, that his project has an SPI of .80. A project with an SPI of .80 means what? A. The project is behind schedule. B. The project is ahead of schedule. C. The project is losing money. D. The project is 80 percent complete.
A. A schedule performance index of .80 means the project is behind schedule. The closer to “1” the SPI is, the better the project. B is incorrect because an SPI of .80 means the project is behind schedule, not ahead. C is also incorrect. While the project likely will result in being over budget due to the labor demands to complete the project, the SPI deals with the project schedule. D is incorrect as well since an SPI does not reflect the percentage complete of the project.
Ned is the project manager of the NQA Project and he’s using earned value management to show project performance. He learns, however, that his project has an SPI of .80. A project with an SPI of .80 means what? A. The project is behind schedule. B. The project is ahead of schedule. C. The project is losing money. D. The project is 80 percent complete.
A project is moving toward completion. Janet, an engineer on the project, has identified a risk that can cause the project to stop if the pressure in a valve goes below 80 percent. The 80 percent pressure is known as what? A. Risk B. The management horizon C. Risk impact D. The threshold
D. The 80 percent mark is known as a threshold. A is incorrect because the 80 percent mark is not the risk. The risk comes after the threshold is passed. B is incorrect because the management horizon is the point in time when the project has paid for the investment. C is also incorrect because risk impact is the effect the risk event has on the project’s success.
A project is moving toward completion. Janet, an engineer on the project, has identified a risk that can cause the project to stop if the pressure in a valve goes below 80 percent. The 80 percent pressure is known as what? A. Risk B. The management horizon C. Risk impact D. The threshold
The first phase of a project has been completed. The project manager reports the results of the project to management and they elect to stop the project. The end of the first phase of completion is also known as which one of the following? A. The kill point B. Progressive elaboration C. Rolling wave planning D. Project scheduling
A. Based on the end result of a phase, management or the customer may elect to kill a project. B is incorrect. Progressive elaboration is the refinement of the project concept as the project progresses. C is incorrect. Rolling wave planning is the successions of planning that happen throughout a project based on conditions and results of the project work. D is incorrect because this is not an example of project scheduling.
The first phase of a project has been completed. The project manager reports the results of the project to management and they elect to stop the project. The end of the first phase of completion is also known as which one of the following? A. The kill point B. Progressive elaboration C. Rolling wave planning D. Project scheduling
Which of the following can best be used to determine the true progress of a project?
A. Variance reports
B. Baselines
C. Change requests approved versus declined
D. Interviews with the project team
B. Baselines can be used to compare what is actual against what was predicted. A is incorrect because variance reports don’t necessarily reflect project progress. C is incorrect because change requests do not reflect the progression of a project. D is also incorrect because interviews with the project team may not reflect the project’s overall progress.
Which of the following can best be used to determine the true progress of a project?
A. Variance reports
B. Baselines
C. Change requests approved versus declined
D. Interviews with the project team
A performance report leads to a change request. Which one of the following is the most likely reason why a performance report can lead to a change request?
A. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to cancel the project.
B. The project is not performing well, so a change request is submitted to the project manager.
C. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to remove the project manager and replace him with a more experienced project manager.
D. The project is performing well, so additional requirements are added to the project scope.
B. When a project is going badly, operating beyond its budget, or off schedule, changes may be made to reduce the project scope or to add quality activities to ensure the product is correct. A is incorrect. Projects are not canceled via change requests. C is incorrect. Change requests are not made for administrative changes. D is also incorrect. A well-performing project should stay on course with no changes to project scope.
A performance report leads to a change request. Which one of the following is the most likely reason why a performance report can lead to a change request?
A. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to cancel the project.
B. The project is not performing well, so a change request is submitted to the project manager.
C. The project is not performing well, so a change request is made to remove the project manager and replace him with a more experienced project manager.
D. The project is performing well, so additional requirements are added to the project scope.
Management wants to know how long the project work will take. The project manager uses a similar project to predict the duration of the current project work. The project manager is using which form of estimating? A. Parametric B. Analogous C. Bottom-up D. Expert judgment
B. Because the project manager is using another similar project to predict the duration of the current project, he is using the analogous method. A is incorrect because parametric estimating is based on parameters, such as units, metric tons, and so on. C is incorrect. Bottom-up estimates start at zero and take in all costs for each activity. D is also incorrect because this is not the best answer for the question.
Management wants to know how long the project work will take. The project manager uses a similar project to predict the duration of the current project work. The project manager is using which form of estimating? A. Parametric B. Analogous C. Bottom-up D. Expert judgment
Quality assurance is needed in every project based on your organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors. Which of the following statements best defines quality assurance?
A. Work results are monitored to see if they meet relevant quality standards. If the results do not meet the quality standards, the project manager applies root cause analysis to determine the cause of the poor performance and then eliminates the cause.
B. The overall performance is evaluated to ensure the project meets the relevant quality standards.
C. The project performance is measured and evaluated, and corrective actions are applied to improve the product and the project.
D. It is an international standard that helps organizations follow their own quality procedures.
B. Quality assurance maps to an organization’s quality policy and is typically a managerial process. A is incorrect because this statement defines quality control. C is incorrect because this statement defines quality improvement. D is also incorrect because this statement defines ISO 9000.
Quality assurance is needed in every project based on your organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors. Which of the following statements best defines quality assurance?
A. Work results are monitored to see if they meet relevant quality standards. If the results do not meet the quality standards, the project manager applies root cause analysis to determine the cause of the poor performance and then eliminates the cause.
B. The overall performance is evaluated to ensure the project meets the relevant quality standards.
C. The project performance is measured and evaluated, and corrective actions are applied to improve the product and the project.
D. It is an international standard that helps organizations follow their own quality procedures.
You are preparing for quality assurance with your quality department and the project team. Which of the following tools cannot be used with quality assurance? A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation B. Benefit cost analysis C. Flowcharting D. Design of experiments
A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation is based on motivating agents and hygiene agents and is not applied to quality assurance. B is incorrect because benefit cost analysis can be applied to quality assurance. C is incorrect because flowcharting can be applied to quality assurance. D is also incorrect. Design of experiments is a tool that can be applied to quality assurance.
You are preparing for quality assurance with your quality department and the project team. Which of the following tools cannot be used with quality assurance? A. Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation B. Benefit cost analysis C. Flowcharting D. Design of experiments
Your project is running late and you need to make a decision about whether you should purchase a piece of software or have your project team build the software. Thus, you need to complete a make-or-buy analysis for a procurement decision. In which process is the make-or-buy analysis used? A. Contract closeout B. Source selection C. Purchase planning D. Initiating
C. You are creating a make-or-buy analysis to determine the need to complete the work in-house or send the work to a vendor. At this point in the project, you are completing procurement planning. A is incorrect. This is not done in contract closeout. B is incorrect because source selection will happen if the decision is made to buy the product or service. D is incorrect because solicitation will happen if the result of the analysis is to buy the product or service from a vendor.
Your project is running late and you need to make a decision about whether you should purchase a piece of software or have your project team build the software. Thus, you need to complete a make-or-buy analysis for a procurement decision. In which process is the make-or-buy analysis used? A. Contract closeout B. Source selection C. Purchase planning D. Initiating
Management has demanded a change to your project scope but this change has a risk that management is not willing to accept. They recommend you buy errors and omissions insurance. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Mitigation B. Transference C. Avoidance D. Countermeasure
B. Purchasing insurance as a response to a risk is transference. A is incorrect because mitigations are actions taken to reduce the impact or probability of a risk event. C is incorrect because avoidance avoids the project risk. D is also incorrect because countermeasures are actions taken to neutralize the risk impact.
Management has demanded a change to your project scope but this change has a risk that management is not willing to accept. They recommend you buy errors and omissions insurance. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Mitigation B. Transference C. Avoidance D. Countermeasure
You are a project manager for your organization. You have procured four staff members from a vendor to help with the project work. Two of these staff members are no longer needed on the project. Which document will determine how the procured project team members may be excused from the project?
A. The contract between your organization and the vendor
B. The staffing management plan
C. The scope management plan
D. The schedule management plan
A. The contract will determine how long the project team members will be allowed to, or are required to, stay on the project. B is incorrect. The staffing management plan will concur with the contract details to determine how procured resources are released from the project. C is incorrect because the scope management plan determines how the project scope may be changed. D is incorrect because the schedule management plan determines how changes to the schedule will be managed.
You are a project manager for your organization. You have procured four staff members from a vendor to help with the project work. Two of these staff members are no longer needed on the project. Which document will determine how the procured project team members may be excused from the project?
A. The contract between your organization and the vendor
B. The staffing management plan
C. The scope management plan
D. The schedule management plan
You are hosting a bidders’ conference. Which one of the following is the best approach for managing the session?
A. Require all vendors to present their pricing information during the session.
B. Allow vendors time to ask questions to clarify the project requirements.
C. Allow vendors time to negotiate the pricing.
D. Allow the contract manager to negotiate with the bidders.
B. Vendors should have ample time to ask questions to clarify the project requirements. A is incorrect. Vendors likely will not have pricing information during the bidders’ conference. C is incorrect because vendors will not negotiate pricing in the conference. D is also incorrect because the contract manager may handle negotiations with bidders, but the negotiation process does not happen at the bidders’ conference.
You are hosting a bidders’ conference. Which one of the following is the best approach for managing the session?
A. Require all vendors to present their pricing information during the session.
B. Allow vendors time to ask questions to clarify the project requirements.
C. Allow vendors time to negotiate the pricing.
D. Allow the contract manager to negotiate with the bidders.
You are the project manager of a construction project. You have procured an electrician to complete the wiring for the project. The electrician reports that he is finished with the services you have hired him to complete. Which one of the following must you do next in regard to the electrician? A. Complete the invoice B. Pay the invoice C. Inspect the work results D. Sign off on the work
C. Once the vendor reports that the work is complete, the project manager should inspect the work. This inspection can be done firsthand, if the project manager is qualified, or by another qualified person or group. A is incorrect because the vendor completes the invoice for the buyer. B is incorrect. The project manager will pay the invoice according to the project contract—and after the work is verified as complete. D is also incorrect.
You are the project manager of a construction project. You have procured an electrician to complete the wiring for the project. The electrician reports that he is finished with the services you have hired him to complete. Which one of the following must you do next in regard to the electrician? A. Complete the invoice B. Pay the invoice C. Inspect the work results D. Sign off on the work
The project manager will sign off on the work once it has been inspected and deemed acceptable. The project has been completed and management wants to know exactly how much money has been spent with each vendor on the project. Which of the following is most likely to happen in this situation?
A. An audit of the project plan
B. An audit of the quality of the project
C. An audit of the procurement documents
D. An audit of the project team members’ work
C. Management will likely want to complete an audit of the procurement records. A is incorrect because a project plan audit is not needed. B is incorrect. While the quality of the project work is needed, it will not help management ascertain where the monies have been spent in the project. D is also incorrect. The project team members’ work may be audited for quality and completeness, but it will not answer management’s question about the finances.
The project manager will sign off on the work once it has been inspected and deemed acceptable. The project has been completed and management wants to know exactly how much money has been spent with each vendor on the project. Which of the following is most likely to happen in this situation?
A. An audit of the project plan
B. An audit of the quality of the project
C. An audit of the procurement documents
D. An audit of the project team members’ work
You are the project manager for your organization and you’re starting the project process of conducting project procurements. Which of the following is an example of a screening system?
A. An organizational breakdown structure
B. An independent estimate
C. A requirement for the seller to have a PMP® on staff
D. A weighted model
C. The requirement for the vendor to have a PMP® on staff can be used as a screening system to filter out vendors that do not have the proper qualifications. A is incorrect because an organizational breakdown structure shows how the organization is decomposed into departments, groups, managers, and other functional-based components. B is incorrect because an independent estimate is used to compare vendors’ bids on the project work. D is also incorrect because a weighted model scores vendors in different categories of qualification.
You are the project manager for your organization and you’re starting the project process of conducting project procurements. Which of the following is an example of a screening system?
A. An organizational breakdown structure
B. An independent estimate
C. A requirement for the seller to have a PMP® on staff
D. A weighted model
You are a project manager for your organization, but one of the managers is refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance? A. The project manager B. The risk management plan C. The project scope D. The project charter
D. The functional manager likely isn’t allowing her employees to work on the project because there is no charter requiring the manager to do so. A is incorrect because you are the project manager. B is incorrect because the risk management plan is not applicable to this scenario. C is also incorrect. The project scope may be missing, but it is not as important as the project charter, which authorizes the project.
You are a project manager for your organization, but one of the managers is refusing to allow her employees to spend time on your project. Which one of the following is likely to be missing from your project in this instance? A. The project manager B. The risk management plan C. The project scope D. The project charter
You are a project manager in a weak matrix. You have recently completed the project schedule. You must now get the project schedule approved so that the resources can be officially assigned to their project work. Which one of the following stakeholders will need to approve the project schedule?
A. Functional managers
B. The project champion
C. Project team members
D. No one. The project manager has autonomy on the project in this structure.
A. The functional managers in a weak matrix will have to approve the project schedule. B is incorrect because the project champion does not approve the project schedule. C is incorrect. The project team does not approve the project schedule; they may provide input, but not approval. D is also incorrect because the project manager has limited authority in a weak matrix structure.
You are a project manager in a weak matrix. You have recently completed the project schedule. You must now get the project schedule approved so that the resources can be officially assigned to their project work. Which one of the following stakeholders will need to approve the project schedule?
A. Functional managers
B. The project champion
C. Project team members
D. No one. The project manager has autonomy on the project in this structure.
Management says that your project is taking too long to complete. Which one of the following is the best solution to this problem?
A. Add lead time
B. Add lag time
C. Add qualified resources to the critical path
D. Fast-track the project
C. When there are unused resources that can help, the project manager should add these resources to the critical path to reduce the duration of the activities. A is incorrect because lead time is not the best solution. B is incorrect because lag time will cause the project to last longer. D is also incorrect. Fast-tracking the project will shorten the project duration, but it also increases risk. Plus, adding unused resources is the best solution to attempt first.
Management says that your project is taking too long to complete. Which one of the following is the best solution to this problem?
A. Add lead time
B. Add lag time
C. Add qualified resources to the critical path
D. Fast-track the project
You are a project manager for your organization. You are currently determining the physical resources, the amount of resources needed, and when the resources will be needed in the project schedule. This is called which one of the following? A. Resource selecting B. Source selection C. Resource planning D. Resource process selection
C. Resource planning considers the resource pool, resource availability, resource costs, and resource calendars against the project calendar, scheduled activities, and overall need for particular resources to determine what is the best resource for a given activity. A is incorrect. Resource selecting is simply choosing which resource is appropriate for the project team or the project work. B is incorrect. Source selection is a procurement process to determine which vendor is the best choice for the project work. D is incorrect because this answer is an invalid choice and is not appropriate.
You are a project manager for your organization. You are currently determining the physical resources, the amount of resources needed, and when the resources will be needed in the project schedule. This is called which one of the following? A. Resource selecting B. Source selection C. Resource planning D. Resource process selection
David is a project manager for his company and he’s reviewing the defined change control processes as part of his company’s enterprise environmental factors. In his review, he sees that changes to the project’s product are controlled by a particular system. Which of the following systems will control changes to the project’s product? A. The scope configuration system B. The change configuration system C. The product scope D. The configuration management system
D. The configuration management system controls changes to the functional and physical characteristics of a product or component. A, B, and C are incorrect because they are not valid choices for this question.
David is a project manager for his company and he’s reviewing the defined change control processes as part of his company’s enterprise environmental factors. In his review, he sees that changes to the project’s product are controlled by a particular system. Which of the following systems will control changes to the project’s product? A. The scope configuration system B. The change configuration system C. The product scope D. The configuration management system
You are the project manager for your organization. Marcy, the sponsor of the project, has asked that you use a different grade of materials for your project. She believes the current materials used are of lesser quality than the materials she proposes. The customer demands the highest quality on the project deliverable. This change in materials will cause the project costs to increase by 20 percent. Which one of the following best describes the cost of the materials? A. Gold plating B. Cost of quality C. The project management cost D. Discretionary costs
B. The cost to quality is the best choice. The expense of the better materials is attributed to the better product the project will create. A is incorrect. Gold plating is the act of adding work, additional materials, or more-expensive-than-needed materials to drive up the project cost for personal gain. C is incorrect. This is not an example of project management costs. D is incorrect. These are not discretionary costs but costs attributed to the cost of the quality as demanded by the customer.
You are the project manager for your organization. Marcy, the sponsor of the project, has asked that you use a different grade of materials for your project. She believes the current materials used are of lesser quality than the materials she proposes. The customer demands the highest quality on the project deliverable. This change in materials will cause the project costs to increase by 20 percent. Which one of the following best describes the cost of the materials? A. Gold plating B. Cost of quality C. The project management cost D. Discretionary costs
You are a project manager for a manufacturing company. There are several OSHA guidelines that must be met on your project. These OSHA guidelines ensure the safety of the project team members. Which of the following is the most appropriate reference to these guidelines? A. Constraints B. Assumptions C. Standards D. Regulations
D. OSHA guidelines are requirements your project must meet. A is incorrect. While some project managers may view these regulations as constraints, regulations are a better description for the rules. If the project manager does not follow these regulations, it may cause fines, penalties, and even injuries or death to the project team members. B is incorrect because these are not assumptions. C is incorrect. Standards are optional, while OSHA regulations are not optional.
You are a project manager for a manufacturing company. There are several OSHA guidelines that must be met on your project. These OSHA guidelines ensure the safety of the project team members. Which of the following is the most appropriate reference to these guidelines? A. Constraints B. Assumptions C. Standards D. Regulations
Finish this statement: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is planned into a project, not inspected in. A. Quality B. Safety C. Control D. Teamwork
A. Quality is planned into a project from the start. Inspections prove its existence. B is incorrect. While safety is important, it is not the correct answer. Safety adherence may be inspected in a project when you consider construction projects, electrical wiring projects, or similar work. C is incorrect because control is not a viable choice. D is incorrect. Teamwork is developed, planned, and hoped for, but this is not the best choice for the question.
Finish this statement: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is planned into a project, not inspected in. A. Quality B. Safety C. Control D. Teamwork
Dean’s company uses ISO 9000 as part of its manufacturing environment. Dean has been asked to incorporate an ISO 9000 approach to his projects. What is ISO 9000?
A. A quality management system
B. A quality control system
C. A management approach to implement quality on customer projects
D. A method of following procedures created internally by an organization
D. ISO 9000 is not a quality system, but a method of following procedures created internally tbyan organization. A is incorrect because ISO 9000 is not a quality management system. B is incorrect because ISO 9000 is not a quality control system. C is incorrect because ISO 9000 is an organization-wide approach, not just a project-centric one.
Dean’s company uses ISO 9000 as part of its manufacturing environment. Dean has been asked to incorporate an ISO 9000 approach to his projects. What is ISO 9000?
A. A quality management system
B. A quality control system
C. A management approach to implement quality on customer projects
D. A method of following procedures created internally by an organization
You are the project manager of the Call Center Improvement Project. The project calls for training all 320 call center representatives on the new software your project team will be installing. Part of the project also involves an improvement in the customer service support of the call center agents. You and the call center manager have set operational definitions for the call center. Which one of the following is an operational definition?
A. All customer service reps will complete the required training.
B. All customer service reps will complete the required training within 30 days.
C. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute.
D. All customer service reps will answer telephone calls with their name and a standard greeting.
C. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute is an example of an operational definition because it has a given metric. A, B, and D are incorrect because these are examples of project requirements.
You are the project manager of the Call Center Improvement Project. The project calls for training all 320 call center representatives on the new software your project team will be installing. Part of the project also involves an improvement in the customer service support of the call center agents. You and the call center manager have set operational definitions for the call center. Which one of the following is an operational definition?
A. All customer service reps will complete the required training.
B. All customer service reps will complete the required training within 30 days.
C. A live operator will answer all inbound telephone calls within one minute.
D. All customer service reps will answer telephone calls with their name and a standard greeting.
The project manager and a quality engineer have completed a six-month analysis of production in a manufacturer’s environment. The quality engineer now wants to plot out the results to identify trends. Which one of the following is the chart or diagram that will best satisfy the request? A. A Pareto chart B. An Ishikawa diagram C. A control chart D. A flowchart
C. A control chart will allow the quality engineer and the project manager to plot out the results to find assignable causes for variances. A is incorrect because a Pareto chart maps out the causes and frequency of quality problems. B is incorrect because an Ishikawa diagram is a cause-and-effect diagram used to determine root-cause analysis. D is incorrect because a flowchart shows the relation of components within a system and how a process works through a system.
The project manager and a quality engineer have completed a six-month analysis of production in a manufacturer’s environment. The quality engineer now wants to plot out the results to identify trends. Which one of the following is the chart or diagram that will best satisfy the request? A. A Pareto chart B. An Ishikawa diagram C. A control chart D. A flowchart
Quality must first be defined before it can be achieved. There is a cost factor to the achievement of quality and a cost factor for poor quality. Which of the following is NOT an example of the cost of poor quality? A. Rework B. Corrective actions C. Safety measures D. A loss of customers
C. Safety measures are a cost of the conformance to quality. If the measures are not taken, accidents may happen and the project may then be stopped for investigation, rework, and other measures. A is incorrect. Rework is an example of the cost of nonconformance to quality. When work is unacceptable, it has to be corrected. B is incorrect. Corrective actions are part of the cost of nonconformance to quality. When work, performance, and other components are unacceptable, corrective actions steer the project back online. D is also incorrect because when customers get frustrated due to quality issues, they will find other providers.
Quality must first be defined before it can be achieved. There is a cost factor to the achievement of quality and a cost factor for poor quality. Which of the following is NOT an example of the cost of poor quality? A. Rework B. Corrective actions C. Safety measures D. A loss of customers
As a project manager and a PMP® candidate, you should be able to discern quality assurance and quality control. Which of the following statements about quality control is true?
A. Quality control is the process of the project customer accepting the project deliverables.
B. Quality control is the process of ensuring the project deliverables are in alignment with the project scope.
C. Quality control is the process of obtaining customer acceptance of the work.
D. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work.
D. Quality control is focused on the correctness of the work. A, B, and C are incorrect because these statements describe scope validation.
As a project manager and a PMP® candidate, you should be able to discern quality assurance and quality control. Which of the following statements about quality control is true?
A. Quality control is the process of the project customer accepting the project deliverables.
B. Quality control is the process of ensuring the project deliverables are in alignment with the project scope.
C. Quality control is the process of obtaining customer acceptance of the work.
D. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work.
Monitoring and controlling the project is the process of ensuring the project plans are executed accurately. The quality management plan must be understood in order to track its effectiveness in the project. Which one of the following do the quality management plans not dictate? A. Quality control B. Quality assurance C. Quality improvement D. Six Sigma programs
D. Not all companies will use a quality management program like Six Sigma. A is incorrect because quality control is detailed in the quality management plan. B is incorrect because quality assurance is also detailed in the quality management plan. C is incorrect as well. Quality improvement is detailed in the quality management plan.
Monitoring and controlling the project is the process of ensuring the project plans are executed accurately. The quality management plan must be understood in order to track its effectiveness in the project. Which one of the following do the quality management plans not dictate? A. Quality control B. Quality assurance C. Quality improvement D. Six Sigma programs
What is the difference between quality control and scope validation?
A. Quality control is done by the customer after the project has been completed.
B. Scope validation is done by the project team to ensure that the project has been completed according to the project scope.
C. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control while the project team does scope validation.
D. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control without the customer, and then scope validation with the customer.
D. Quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work, while scope validation is concerned with the customer accepting the work. A, B, and C are incorrect because all of these statements are false.
What is the difference between quality control and scope validation?
A. Quality control is done by the customer after the project has been completed.
B. Scope validation is done by the project team to ensure that the project has been completed according to the project scope.
C. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control while the project team does scope validation.
D. Both are inspection-driven, but the project manager facilitates quality control without the customer, and then scope validation with the customer.
You are the project manager of the Sales Automation Project. Jennifer, a project team member, has learned that the vendor you are purchasing a phone system from as part of this project will likely be two months late on half of the order. Which subsidiary plan should be updated? A. The risk management plan B. The risk response plan C. The procurement management plan D. The scope management plan
B. Responses to risks are identified and documented in the risk response plan. A is incorrect because the risk management plan details how risk analysis, risk identification, and other risk-related management activities will proceed. It does not include the responses to individual risk. C is incorrect. The procurement management plan does not need to be updated based on this scenario. The question does not indicate that a different vendor is needed. D is incorrect. The scope management plan does not need to be changed because there is no indication of changes, or threats of changes, to the project scope.
You are the project manager of the Sales Automation Project. Jennifer, a project team member, has learned that the vendor you are purchasing a phone system from as part of this project will likely be two months late on half of the order. Which subsidiary plan should be updated? A. The risk management plan B. The risk response plan C. The procurement management plan D. The scope management plan
Risks are identified, monitored, tracked, and responded to. One element which must also be identified is a risk trigger. What is a risk trigger?
A. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a secondary risk.
B. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a residual risk.
C. A risk trigger is a plan to respond to risk events.
D. A risk trigger is a sign or symptom that risks have occurred or are about to occur.
D. These are warning signs or symptoms that a risk has occurred or is about to occur. A is incorrect because a secondary risk can be created by solutions to a different risk in the project. B is incorrect. Residual risks are smaller risks caused by response to other risks. C is incorrect because a risk trigger is not a plan to respond to the risk event.
Risks are identified, monitored, tracked, and responded to. One element which must also be identified is a risk trigger. What is a risk trigger?
A. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a secondary risk.
B. A risk trigger is a risk that causes a residual risk.
C. A risk trigger is a plan to respond to risk events.
D. A risk trigger is a sign or symptom that risks have occurred or are about to occur.
You are the project manager for a construction project. One of the identified risks within the project has a 20 percent chance of happening. If the risk occurs, it will cost your project an additional $150,000. Given this, what is the contingency amount you’ll need for this risk event?
A. $150,000
B. $30,000
C. $75,000
D. Zero. The risk is not real until it occurs.
B. The risk has a 20 percent chance of happening and will cost the project $150,000. Twenty percent of $150,000 is $30,000—the expected amount of contingency. A is incorrect. $150,000 is 100 percent of the risk event occurring. C is incorrect. $75,000 is based on a 50 percent likelihood of the risk occurring. D is incorrect because the risk is real even if the risk event does not occur.
You are the project manager for a construction project. One of the identified risks within the project has a 20 percent chance of happening. If the risk occurs, it will cost your project an additional $150,000. Given this, what is the contingency amount you’ll need for this risk event?
A. $150,000
B. $30,000
C. $75,000
D. Zero. The risk is not real until it occurs.
You are the project manager for a large project that spans several of your organization’s sites. There are many risks identified throughout the project in each of the sites of the project. Which one of the following is the most effective method of dealing with the project risks?
A. Create risk owners for each of the project risks.
B. Buy insurance for each of the identified risks.
C. The project manager will need to travel to each of the sites as the risk event is coming into the project schedule.
D. The project manager will need to schedule the risk events so that no risk events overlap at any one time.
A. Risk owners can monitor, respond to, and communicate on risk events. B is incorrect. Buying insurance, also known as transference, may not be an affordable or available solution for all the risks within the project. C is incorrect. This is not feasible because multiple risks may overlap each other in the schedule. In addition, the project manager’s presence won’t address the risk event itself. D is incorrect. This also is not a feasible option. A project may have multiple risks on multiple paths. It would be highly unlikely for the project manager to schedule activities so that activities with risks do not overlap.
You are the project manager for a large project that spans several of your organization’s sites. There are many risks identified throughout the project in each of the sites of the project. Which one of the following is the most effective method of dealing with the project risks?
A. Create risk owners for each of the project risks.
B. Buy insurance for each of the identified risks.
C. The project manager will need to travel to each of the sites as the risk event is coming into the project schedule.
D. The project manager will need to schedule the risk events so that no risk events overlap at any one time.
You are the project manager of a large construction project. There are several pieces of work within the project that you have procured to a vendor. The smaller contracted work is completed through a time and materials contract. What stipulation must exist within the contract in order to prevent inherent risks in the project? A. A deadline B. It should not exceed specifications C. The costs per hour D. The total costs for the procured work
B. A time and materials (T&M) contract needs a Not to Exceed (NTE) stipulation. A is incorrect because not all T&M contracts have deadlines. C is incorrect because the costs per hour is a prerequisite for this type of contract. D is incorrect. Not all T&M contracts have a total cost for the projected work. This is why the NTE clause is needed.
You are the project manager of a large construction project. There are several pieces of work within the project that you have procured to a vendor. The smaller contracted work is completed through a time and materials contract. What stipulation must exist within the contract in order to prevent inherent risks in the project? A. A deadline B. It should not exceed specifications C. The costs per hour D. The total costs for the procured work
You are the project manager of a project to install new wireless devices at more than 900 retail stores throughout North America. One of the identified risks in the project is that some of the stores may receive interference from other outlets in the shopping area. Mary, an installer of the wireless devices, has identified a store she is working on that is receiving interference from other signals in the area. The risk response you have planned is to install a slightly higher-cost radio device. This risk response that Mary should now implement is which one of the following? A. A countermeasure B. A mitigation C. A transference D. A contingency plan
D. Contingency planning requires additional funding and time set aside for the risk event. A is incorrect because a countermeasure is an action to neutralize the risk event. B is incorrect because mitigation is steps taken to reduce the impact and likelihood of the risk event. C is also incorrect. Transference moves the risk ownership to a third party.
You are the project manager of a project to install new wireless devices at more than 900 retail stores throughout North America. One of the identified risks in the project is that some of the stores may receive interference from other outlets in the shopping area. Mary, an installer of the wireless devices, has identified a store she is working on that is receiving interference from other signals in the area. The risk response you have planned is to install a slightly higher-cost radio device. This risk response that Mary should now implement is which one of the following? A. A countermeasure B. A mitigation C. A transference D. A contingency plan
Not all risk responses are managed internally because some risks can be solved through purchases and outsourcing. For example, errors and omission insurance is an example of which risk response? A. Trigger B. Threshold C. Transference D. Countermeasure
C. Transference transfers the risk to someone else. A is incorrect because a trigger is a sign that a risk event has occurred or is about to occur. B is incorrect because thresholds are metrics that mean a risk event is occurring as conditions pass the preset mark. D is also incorrect because countermeasures are actions to neutralize the risk event.
Not all risk responses are managed internally because some risks can be solved through purchases and outsourcing. For example, errors and omission insurance is an example of which risk response? A. Trigger B. Threshold C. Transference D. Countermeasure
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. This project is scheduled to last two years and has a budget of $1,250,000. You have identified a new risk in your project. What must be updated? A. The risk response plan B. The work breakdown structure C. The risk register D. The scope statement
C. When a new risk has been identified, the risk register must be updated. A is incorrect. The risk response may need to be updated—if there is to be a response to the identified risk. The first step is to update the risk register. B is incorrect because the WBS does not need to be updated since the project scope has not changed. D is also incorrect because the scope statement is not updated as a result of risk discovery.
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your company. This project is scheduled to last two years and has a budget of $1,250,000. You have identified a new risk in your project. What must be updated? A. The risk response plan B. The work breakdown structure C. The risk register D. The scope statement
As a PMP®, you should be familiar with the project management processes and their components. Which one of the following is NOT an input to risk control? A. The project management plan B. The work breakdown structure C. The risk register D. Work performance data
B. The WBS is not an input to risk monitoring and control. A is incorrect because the project management plan, specifically its risk management plan, is an input to risk monitoring and control. C is incorrect. The risk register is an input to risk monitoring and control. D is incorrect because work performance data is also an input to risk monitoring and control.
As a PMP®, you should be familiar with the project management processes and their components. Which one of the following is NOT an input to risk control? A. The project management plan B. The work breakdown structure C. The risk register D. Work performance data
Your project is moving toward closure and several risks that have been identified did not come into fruition. What should be updated? A. The historical records B. The work breakdown structure C. The risk register D. The risk response plan
C. When a risk has been identified, it is documented in the risk register. The risk is then tracked through the risk register. A is incorrect. Historical records are records of events that have occurred before this project began. Your project is creating future historical records. B is incorrect because the WBS is not updated. D is incorrect because the risk response is not updated.
Your project is moving toward closure and several risks that have been identified did not come into fruition. What should be updated? A. The historical records B. The work breakdown structure C. The risk register D. The risk response plan
Controlling project risks is an ongoing activity to ensure that the risk status has not changed. Controlling risks also includes the proper and quick reaction to the risk event should the event’s status change in the project. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for risk control?
A. To determine if project assumptions are still valid
B. To identify trends within risk identification
C. To determine if the contingency reserve is adequate
D. To determine if vendor contracts are valid
D. The contract type is determined as part of the procurement process. A, B, and C are incorrect because these are not valid reasons for risk monitoring and control. Project managers will need to test assumptions for risks, identify risk trends, and evaluate the contingency reserve of risk events.
Controlling project risks is an ongoing activity to ensure that the risk status has not changed. Controlling risks also includes the proper and quick reaction to the risk event should the event’s status change in the project. Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for risk control?
A. To determine if project assumptions are still valid
B. To identify trends within risk identification
C. To determine if the contingency reserve is adequate
D. To determine if vendor contracts are valid
You and your project team have just completed the Warehouse Construction Project. For the project to be officially complete, what must happen next?
A. Quality inspections
B. You must sign off on the project mechanisms
C. Scope validation
D. Contract closeout
C. Scope validation is the process of obtaining formal acceptance. A is incorrect. While scope validation uses inspections, it is not only concerned with quality, but with the fulfillment of the requirements. B is incorrect because the sign-off of the project mechanisms is not an applicable choice. D is incorrect because contract closeout can happen throughout the project when vendors have completed their project obligations, not just at the project’s conclusion.
You and your project team have just completed the Warehouse Construction Project. For the project to be officially complete, what must happen next?
A. Quality inspections
B. You must sign off on the project mechanisms
C. Scope validation
D. Contract closeout
Scope validation must be documented and communicated with the project team and project stakeholders to ensure the timing and scheduling of the event. When does scope validation happen? A. Only at the end of the project B. At the end of each project phase C. With each deliverable D. As the customer sees fit
B. Scope validation is the assurance that the project deliverables have met the project scope. A is incorrect because scope validation does not happen only at the end of a project. C is incorrect because each deliverable does not demand a scope validation. D is also incorrect. Scope validation happens as phases or projects are completed, not only when the customer sees fit.
Scope validation must be documented and communicated with the project team and project stakeholders to ensure the timing and scheduling of the event. When does scope validation happen? A. Only at the end of the project B. At the end of each project phase C. With each deliverable D. As the customer sees fit
You are the project manager of the GDS project. The project is in month seven and is scheduled to last 15 months. Management has decided to cancel the project altogether due to circumstances outside of your control and does not hold you responsible for the project cancellation. Which of the following statements best describes scope validation in this case?
A. Scope validation should be measured against the deliverables that were created up to the point of the project’s cancellation.
B. Scope validation should be deemed successful because management canceled the project due to circumstances outside of your control.
C. Scope validation is not needed because the scope was never fulfilled.
D. Scope validation is not needed unless the project is more than 50 percent complete.
A. Although the project has been canceled, scope validation should take place for the deliverables up to the point the project was canceled. B is incorrect. Scope validation is still needed although management canceled the project due to outside circumstances. C is also incorrect. Although the scope was never completed, scope validation is still needed. D is incorrect because this is not a valid option for the question.
You are the project manager of the GDS project. The project is in month seven and is scheduled to last 15 months. Management has decided to cancel the project altogether due to circumstances outside of your control and does not hold you responsible for the project cancellation. Which of the following statements best describes scope validation in this case?
A. Scope validation should be measured against the deliverables that were created up to the point of the project’s cancellation.
B. Scope validation should be deemed successful because management canceled the project due to circumstances outside of your control.
C. Scope validation is not needed because the scope was never fulfilled.
D. Scope validation is not needed unless the project is more than 50 percent complete.
Which one of the following is NOT a component of administrative closure?
A. Activities needed to satisfy project completion
B. Rework
C. Operational transfer of the project’s product
D. Lessons learned
B. Rework is not an output of administrative closure. If rework is needed, the project or phase cannot be closed. A is incorrect. You’ll need to complete all of the planned activities in order to do administrative closure. C is incorrect. Once the project is completed, the operational transfer of the product must happen so the project can be closed and resources released. D is incorrect because lessons learned are also part of administrative closure.
Which one of the following is NOT a component of administrative closure?
A. Activities needed to satisfy project completion
B. Rework
C. Operational transfer of the project’s product
D. Lessons learned
You are the project manager of the NHX Project. The project has several vendors. Vendor ABC has completed their work according to the terms of the contract. What should happen next?
A. Whatever the terms of the contract call for
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Lessons learned
A. The terms of the contract should be followed here since they may have provisions for an audit, payment procedures, and forms that the vendor may have to complete to be paid. B is incorrect. Just because a vendor has completed work on the project does not mean the project needs scope validation at this point. C is incorrect. The question does not state that the entire project is finished so this answer is not valid. D is incorrect. Lessons learned are important, but this is not the best choice for the question.
You are the project manager of the NHX Project. The project has several vendors. Vendor ABC has completed their work according to the terms of the contract. What should happen next?
A. Whatever the terms of the contract call for
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Lessons learned
You and the vendor are in a dispute about the work within the project. The vendor is demanding payment for work they completed. You disagree with their demands. What is the likely outcome of this scenario?
A. Unresolved claims may be subject to litigation
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Procurement audits
A. Unresolved claims may result in litigation. B is incorrect. Just because you and a vendor have a disagreement about the completed work on the project does not mean the project needs scope validation at this point. C is incorrect. The question does not state that the entire project is finished, so this answer is not valid. D is incorrect. A procurement audit may show your internal process for procurement, but it does not resolve the issue between you and the vendor.
You and the vendor are in a dispute about the work within the project. The vendor is demanding payment for work they completed. You disagree with their demands. What is the likely outcome of this scenario?
A. Unresolved claims may be subject to litigation
B. Scope validation
C. Project closure
D. Procurement audits
You are the project manager of a customer relationship management program that will involve people from all parts of your organization. Your project team will include representatives of people from all parts of the company. Functional managers need to know when their workers will be released from your project. Which one of the following is the subsidiary project plan that documents this information? A. The human resources management plan B. The staffing management plan C. The WBS D. The cost control plan
B. The staffing management plan will account for the employees’ time on the project. A is incorrect because this is not a valid plan. C is incorrect. The WBS is not a project plan. D is also incorrect because the cost control plan is not a valid choice.
You are the project manager of a customer relationship management program that will involve people from all parts of your organization. Your project team will include representatives of people from all parts of the company. Functional managers need to know when their workers will be released from your project. Which one of the following is the subsidiary project plan that documents this information? A. The human resources management plan B. The staffing management plan C. The WBS D. The cost control plan
Marcy is no longer needed on your project. You are the project manager in a projectized organization operating under a PMO. How can Marcy be released from the project team?
A. Marcy cannot be released. A projectized team is on the project full-time through project completion.
B. Marcy cannot be released. A PMO requires that project team members stay on the project until the project is completed.
C. The project manager may elect to remove Marcy.
D. The project manager should meet with the PMO to remove Marcy from the project team.
D. When a project team member is no longer needed on a project team in a projectized structure, the project manager should follow the operations of the PMO if it exists. A is incorrect because this is not a valid statement. B and C are incorrect because neither of these is a valid answer for this question.
Marcy is no longer needed on your project. You are the project manager in a projectized organization operating under a PMO. How can Marcy be released from the project team?
A. Marcy cannot be released. A projectized team is on the project full-time through project completion.
B. Marcy cannot be released. A PMO requires that project team members stay on the project until the project is completed.
C. The project manager may elect to remove Marcy.
D. The project manager should meet with the PMO to remove Marcy from the project team.
Elizabeth is a project team member and she doesn’t want to complete the lessons learned documentation on this project. Elizabeth doesn’t see the value in the documentation or the process. What is the point of the lessons learned documentation?
A. It keeps the project manager focused on the project work.
B. It maintains communication with management.
C. It ensures that all of the project work is complete.
D. It allows other project managers to learn from this project.
D. Lessons learned are documents used for future reference. They allow other project managers to learn from the current project. A is incorrect. The project plan and scope statement keep the project manager focused on the project work, not the lessons learned documentation. B is incorrect. Various reports are used to communicate with management, not lessons learned documentation. This is not to say that management won’t review the lessons learned documentation; it’s just not the best answer for the question. Management will expect reports and other communications to keep them informed. C is also incorrect. Lessons learned do not ensure that the project work is complete. Scope validation, peer reviews, and other mechanisms can ensure that the project work is complete.
Elizabeth is a project team member and she doesn’t want to complete the lessons learned documentation on this project. Elizabeth doesn’t see the value in the documentation or the process. What is the point of the lessons learned documentation?
A. It keeps the project manager focused on the project work.
B. It maintains communication with management.
C. It ensures that all of the project work is complete.
D. It allows other project managers to learn from this project.
Which process includes the documentation of the project’s success or failure? A. Configuration management B. Administrative closure C. Quality control D. Scope validation
B. Administrative closure includes the creation of the final project report. A is incorrect. Configuration management documents and controls the functions and features of the project’s product. C is incorrect because quality control is concerned with the correctness of the work. D is incorrect because scope validation is concerned with the acceptance of the work.
Which process includes the documentation of the project’s success or failure? A. Configuration management B. Administrative closure C. Quality control D. Scope validation
All projects should include a final project report that’s archived as part of the project’s organizational process assets. Why should the final project report be archived? (Choose the best answer.)
A. In case the customer has a change to the project scope
B. In case the project’s finances are ever called into question
C. In case the organization needs to update the project’s product
D. In case future project teams need the project’s information to help them complete their project
D. Current project records become future historical information. A is incorrect because the project scope is completed when the final report is created. B is incorrect because financial audits typically happen before the final report is created. C is also incorrect. Though this is often true, it is not the best answer.
All projects should include a final project report that’s archived as part of the project’s organizational process assets. Why should the final project report be archived? (Choose the best answer.)
A. In case the customer has a change to the project scope
B. In case the project’s finances are ever called into question
C. In case the organization needs to update the project’s product
D. In case future project teams need the project’s information to help them complete their project
Which of the following is NOT a source of conflict within a project? A. Project priorities B. Schedule C. Personality conflicts D. Quality
D. There are seven common conflicts within a project: project priorities, schedule, resources, cost, administrative procedures, technical issues, and personality conflicts. A, B, and C are incorrect because these are all sources of conflict.
Which of the following is NOT a source of conflict within a project? A. Project priorities B. Schedule C. Personality conflicts D. Quality
Which of the following is not an example of contributing to the project management knowledge base?
A. Giving a lecture on project risk management
B. Writing articles on project management topics
C. Referring a friend to the PMI website for information on obtaining the PMP® title
D. Publishing a book on project management methodologies
C. Referring a friend to PMI’s website for info on the PMP® certification is helpful, but it is not an example of contributing to the project management knowledge base. A is incorrect. Giving a lecture is an example of contributing to the project management knowledge base. B is incorrect because writing articles is an example of contributing to the project management knowledge base. D is incorrect because publishing a book on project management methodologies is an example of contributing to the project management knowledge base.
Which of the following is not an example of contributing to the project management knowledge base?
A. Giving a lecture on project risk management
B. Writing articles on project management topics
C. Referring a friend to the PMI website for information on obtaining the PMP® title
D. Publishing a book on project management methodologies
You have written a book on project management that’s for sale in bookstores and through websites. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. A conflict of interest if you are a PMP®
B. A breach of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
C. An example of contributing to the project management knowledge base
D. An example of providing the public with information on the PMP® career and certification
C. Writing and publishing a book on project management is an example of contributing to the project management knowledge base. A is incorrect. This is not a conflict of interest if you’re a PMP®. You’re helping others learn about project management. B is incorrect. This is not a breach of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. D is incorrect. The question does not state that there is career-related information available.
You have written a book on project management that’s for sale in bookstores and through websites. This is an example of which one of the following?
A. A conflict of interest if you are a PMP®
B. A breach of the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
C. An example of contributing to the project management knowledge base
D. An example of providing the public with information on the PMP® career and certification
You have created a newsletter for your company that provides monthly information on PMP® certification, project management methodologies, and how your company is implementing project management. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Ensuring integrity B. Contributing to the knowledge base C. Applying professional knowledge D. Balancing stakeholder interests
B. Although this may be a small, limited contribution, it is still a reference for others on project management methods and application. A is incorrect because this is not an example of ensuring integrity. C is incorrect. This is not an example of applying professional knowledge—this is sharing professional knowledge. D is also incorrect because this is not an example of balancing stakeholder interests.
You have created a newsletter for your company that provides monthly information on PMP® certification, project management methodologies, and how your company is implementing project management. This is an example of which one of the following? A. Ensuring integrity B. Contributing to the knowledge base C. Applying professional knowledge D. Balancing stakeholder interests
You are teaching a project management class for your project team members. This class is an example of which one of the following in regard to professional responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. A contribution to the project management knowledge base
D. You are enhancing your own competence through additional education. A is incorrect because this is not a valid answer in regard to the professional responsibility. B is incorrect. Project management is already a respectable career track. C is also incorrect because this is not an example of a conflict of interest.
You are teaching a project management class for your project team members. This class is an example of which one of the following in regard to professional responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. A contribution to the project management knowledge base
You are taking a project management class to help you better prepare to be a project manager. This class is an example of which one of the following in regard to professional responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. Enhancing individual competence
D. You are enhancing your own competence through additional education. A is incorrect because this is not a valid answer in regard to the professional responsibility. B is incorrect because project management is already a respectable career track. C is also incorrect because this is not an example of a conflict of interest.
You are taking a project management class to help you better prepare to be a project manager. This class is an example of which one of the following in regard to professional responsibility?
A. Informing others about project management principles
B. Helping the profession grow into a respectable career track
C. A conflict of interest with applying professional knowledge
D. Enhancing individual competence
You are a new project manager for your organization. Your company does not have the resources to send you to a project management training class at this time. Which one of the following is not a method you could use to enhance your individual competence until you can complete formal training?
A. Do nothing. You cannot enhance your competence without formal training.
B. Read historical information from past projects.
C. Emulate successful project managers.
D. Serve as an assistant to another project manager.
A. This is not an acceptable answer. There is almost always something you can do to enhance your skills. B is incorrect. Reading historical information from past projects can teach a new project manager many things. C is incorrect because emulating a successful project manager is an excellent way to achieve your goals. D is also incorrect because serving as an assistant to an accomplished project manager provides valuable training.
You are a new project manager for your organization. Your company does not have the resources to send you to a project management training class at this time. Which one of the following is not a method you could use to enhance your individual competence until you can complete formal training?
A. Do nothing. You cannot enhance your competence without formal training.
B. Read historical information from past projects.
C. Emulate successful project managers.
D. Serve as an assistant to another project manager.
