Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biomedical Sciences BS22001 > πŸ’ͺ🏻&πŸ€” > Flashcards

πŸ’ͺ🏻&πŸ€” Flashcards

1
Q

A band

A

DARK
stacked set of thick filaments (myosin) + portion of thin filaments (actin)

actin overlaps on both ends of the thick filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

H zone

A

lighter area in the middle of the A band, where the thin filaments do not reach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

M line

A

extends vertically down the middle of the A band; is in the middle of the H zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

I band

A

LIGHT

remaining portions of the thin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Z line

A

dense, vertical line, located in the middle of each I band;

flat cytoskeletal disc that connects the thin filaments of two adjoining sarcomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

sarcomere

A

smallest unit of skeletal muscle that can undergo muscle contraction;
area between two Z lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Transverse (T) tubules
location?
runs from _______ to the _______ of the muscle fibre => ____ (slow/rapid) spread of the AP

A

at the junction of A and I band, where surface membrane dips into the muscle fibre;
runs from surface to the central portions of the muscle fibre => rapid spread of the AP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is modified _______ that consists of fine network of ____________ enclosed compartments surrounding each myofibril like a __________ [think clothing]

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) is modified ENDOPLASMIC RETICULUM that consists of fine network of INTERCONNECTED MEMBRANE enclosed compartments surrounding each myofibril like a MESH SLEEVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
lateral sacs (terminal cisternae)
separated from adjacent T tubules by \_\_\_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_ [substance] storages;
the spread of \_\_\_\_ down a T tubule triggers release of \_\_\_\_ [substance] from the SR into \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ [substance/organelle in the cell]
A

separated from adjacent T tubules by a slight gap, Ca2+ storages;
the spread of AP down a T tubule triggers release of Ca2+ from the SR into cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

foot proteins aka ryanodine receptors

A

bridge the gap between lateral sacs and T tubules, are Ca2+ release channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
dihydropyridine receptors
are also called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
why are they called dihydropyridine?
nature of their work?
what electrical activity activates these channels?
A

= T tubule receptors;
can be blocked by the drug dihydropyridine
voltage-gated sensors;
local depolarisation activates these channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

AP –> local depolarisation –> T tubule receptors trigger the opening of _______ –> opening of the ________ not directly associated with the ________ –> Ca2+ released into _______ β€”> exposure of the ______ on the ____ molecules so that they can link with ________ cross bridges –> beginning of the cross bridge cycle

A 
ryanodine receptors
ryanodine receptors
T tubule receptors
cytosol
binding sites
actin
myosin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cardiac muscle AP

________ plateau = _________ contraction => ________ (adequate/inadequate) ejection time

plateau due to activation of ________ channels (why this name?)

A

PROLONGED plateau = PROLONGED contraction => ADEQUATTE ejection time

plateau due to activation of L-TYPE Ca2+ channels (L because opened for Long)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

actin is build from chains that….

A

intertwine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

tropomyosin looks like a _____ [sewing kit], physically covers ______

A

thread like

actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

troponin is made up of 3 subunits, what does each bind to?

A

one binds to tropomyosin
one to actin
one combines with Ca2+ ions released from lateral sacs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Myosin looks like ______ [sports gear], _____ is twisted

globular head has two sites, what does each bind to?

A

like a golf club
shaft is twisted
globular head has two sites: one for binding of actin, the other one for myosin ATPase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A band (during contraction)

A

stays same width (A band = thick filaments, hence stays the same)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
I band (during contraction)
width \_\_\_\_ (decr./same/incr.)
\_\_\_\_\_\_ filaments are \_\_\_\_ overlapping \_\_\_\_\_ filaments
A

width πŸ”½

THIN filaments are NO LONGER overlapping THICK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

H zone (during contraction)

A

width πŸ”½ (thick filaments not overlapping thin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cross bridge cycle has 4 steps:

A

binding
power stroke
detachment
binding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(1st) Binding [of the cross bridge cycle]

what binds to what?

A

myosin cross bridge binds to actin molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Power stroke [of the cross bridge cycle]
what happens?
what is the consequence?

A

cross bridge bends, pulling thin myofilament inward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Detachment [of the cross bridge cycle]
it happens at the end of what?
what happens later?

A

cross bridge detaches at end of power stroke and returns to normal conformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(2nd) Binding [of the cross bridge cycle]

what binds to what? what is the next step?

A

cross bridge binds to more distal actin molecule;

cycle repeats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CNS (____) β€”> ______ β€”-> _____ & ______ & _______ & _______

A 
central nervous system
PNS = peripheral nervous system
somatic efferent
enteric (ENS)
autonomic (ANS)
somatic and visceral afferent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ANS β€”-> ______ & ______

A

sympathetic division

parasympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

SNS transmitters (2), specify order

A

pregangionic neurone: ACh (cholinergic)

postganglionic neurone: usually NA = noradrenaline (adrenergic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PSNS transmitters (2), specify order

A

pregangionic neurone: ACh (cholinergic)

postganglionic neurone: ACh (cholinergic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ACh is synthesised by…

A

choline acetyltransferase (CAT)🐱🐱🐱

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ACh is degraded to _____ and _____ by

A

acetate
choline

acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
type of G protein: \_\_\_\_
G protein coupled receptor: M1
action: \_\_\_\_\_\_
affected organ(s): stomach
effect on the organ: \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Gq
simulation of phospholipase C
πŸ”Ό acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
type of G protein: Gi
G protein coupled receptor: \_\_\_\_
action: inhibition of adenylyl cyclase & \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
affected organ(s): heart
effect on the organ: \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

M2
opening of K+ channels
πŸ”½ rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

type of G protein: Gq
G protein coupled receptor: _____
action: simulation of phospholipase C
affected organ(s): salivary glands [effect?], ______ [contraction]

  • _______ is indirectly relaxed by ____ receptor activation due to release of ______ from neighbouring endothelial cells
A

M3
increased secretion
visceral smooth muscle

Vascular smooth muscle
M3
nitric oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q 
type of G protein: Gs
G protein coupled receptor: \_\_\_\_
action: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
affected organ(s): heart
effect on the organ: \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Ξ²1
stimulation of adenylyl cyclase
πŸ”Ό rate & force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
type of G protein: \_\_\_\_
G protein coupled receptor: Ξ²2
action: stimulation of adenylyl cyclase
affected organ(s): \_\_\_\_\_\_
effect on the organ: \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Gs
bronchial and vascular smooth muscle
relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
type of G protein: Gq
G protein coupled receptor: \_\_\_\_
action: stimulation of phospholipase C
affected organ(s): \_\_\_\_\_
effect on the organ: \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Ξ±1
vascular smooth muscle
contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q 
type of G protein: \_\_\_\_\_
G protein coupled receptor: Ξ±2
action: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
affected: NorAd release
effect: \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Gi
inhibition of adenylyl cyclase
inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

NorAd is reuptaken by two transporters:

A 
uptake 1 (U1), and 
uptake 2 (U2)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

NorAd is metabolised by two enzymes:

A 
monoamine oxidase (MAO,) and
catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

examples of synergistic muscles (synergists) in upper limb (2 pairs)

A

biceps brachii & brachialis

triceps brachii & anconeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

examples of flexors in upper limb (2)

A

Biceps brachii

brachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

examples of extensors in upper limb (2)

A

triceps brachii

anconeus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

axial muscles control…

A

movements of the trunk (maintaining posture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

proximal (or girdle) muscles are found in _____, ______, ______ and ______

they [action]

A

the shoulder, elbow, pelvis and knee

mediate locomotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

distal muscles move ______, _____, and ______

they [action]

A

the hands
feet
digits

allow fine manipulation of objects by the hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Axons of LMNs (lower motor neurones) exit the spinal cord in _________

A

the ventral roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Each ventral root joins with a ________ to form a ___________ (30 pairs) which
contains sensory and motor fibres

A

dorsal root

mixed spinal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Motor neurones

belong to a spinal segment: _______ (C) ______, _______ (T) _______, ______ (L) ______ and ______ (S) _____

A

cervical 1-8
thoracic 1-12
lumbar 1-5
sacral 1-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Motor neurones are not distributed equally within the spinal cord: greater number in the ________ (______) supplying the arm and _________ (______) supplying leg

A 
cervical enlargement (C3 - T1)
lumbar enlargement (L1-S3)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Motor neurones that innervate distal and proximal musculature are mainly in __________ of the spinal cord, whereas those innervating the axial musculature _________

A

lumbar-sacral segments

occur at all levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

motor unit

A

alpha motor neurone + all the skeletal muscle fibres that it innervates;
the smallest functional component of the motor system

53
Q

motor neurone pool

A

collection of alpha motor neurones that innervate a single muscle

54
Q

LMNs innervating axial muscles ____ to those innervating distal muscles

A

medial

55
Q

LMNs innervating flexors _____ to those supplying extensors

A

dorsal

56
Q

3 sources of input to an alpha motor neurone that regulate its activity are:

A
  • central terminals of dorsal root ganglion cells whose axons innervate the muscle spindles
  • upper motor neurones (UMNs) in the motor cortex and brain stem
  • spinal interneurones
57
Q

Slow-oxidative (Type I) Fibres:
ATP derived from ______
_____ (slow/fast) contraction and relaxation
_____ (βœ…/❌)fatigue resistant β€œ______” because of high _____ content

A 
oxidative phosphorylation
slow
βœ…
"red meat"
myoglobin
58
Q

Fast (Type II) Fibres – type IIa
ATP derived from ______
_____ (slow/fast) contraction and relaxation
_____ (βœ…/❌)fatigue resistant
_____ (pale/red) and _____ (βœ…/❌) well vascularised

A 
oxidative phosphorylation
fast
βœ…
red
βœ…
59
Q 
Fast (Type II) Fibres -- type IIx
ATP derived from \_\_\_\_\_\_
\_\_\_\_\_ (slow/fast) contraction
\_\_\_\_\_ (βœ…/❌)fatigue resistant
\_\_\_\_\_ (pale/red) and \_\_\_\_\_ (βœ…/❌) well vascularised
"\_\_\_\_\_\_"
A 
glycolysis
fast
❌
pale
❌
white meat
60
Q

origin

A

end of the muscle attached to the more stationary part of the skeleton

61
Q

insertion

A

end attached to the skeletal part that moves

62
Q

contractile response (twitch) has 3 parts:

A

lag -> contraction -> relaxation

63
Q

twitch

A

when a muscle fibre is restimulated after complete relaxation, 2nd twitch = 1st twitch, magnitude-wise

64
Q

twitch summation

A

when a muscle fibre is restimulated before complete relaxation and a 2nd twitch is added on to 1st

65
Q

tetanus / tetanic πŸš’πŸ—»πŸ’₯

A

when a muscle fibre is stimulated so rapidly that it doesn’t have an opportunity to relax at all between stimuli,
a maximum sustained contraction occurs

66
Q

For a muscle to shorten during contraction, the tension developed in the muscle must _____ the forces that oppose movement of the bone to which the muscle’s insertion is attached

A

exceed

67
Q

example of load…

A

is the weight of the object being lifted

68
Q

two primary types of contraction:

A 
isotonic contraction (lift object)
isometric contraction (hold object)
69
Q

isotonic contraction = muscle tension _______ (changes/remains constant) and the muscle length _______ (changes/remains constant)

A

remains constant

changes

70
Q

Isometric contraction:
the muscle length _______ (changes/remains constant), so tension develops at ________ (increasing/constant) muscle length

A

remains constant

at constant muscle length

71
Q

the two types of isotonic contractions are:

A

concentric

eccentric

72
Q

concentric contraction

A

muscle shortens under load

73
Q

eccentric contraction

A

muscle lengthens under load

74
Q

Skeletal muscle can be attached to:

  • _____
    • _____ (e.g. ______)
    • _____ (e.g. ______)
  • _____
    • _____ (e.g. ______)
    • _____ (e.g. ______)
  • _____
    • _____ ( [how?], e.g. ______)
A

Bone at each end
crossing one joint (e.g. deltoid)
crossing multiple joints (e.g. semimembranosus)

Bone at one end
and a different type of structure at the other (e.g. extraocular eye muscles)
or nothing at the other (tongue)

Itself (forming a circle; e.g. sphincter)

75
Q

____ is a rigid structure capable of moving around a pivot point known as _____

A

lever

fulcrum (Krum z HP)

76
Q

_____ function as levers, the _____ serve as fulcrums and the _____ provide the force to move the bones to produce directed movement

A

bones
joints
muscles

77
Q

Levers can be used so that a small force can move a much bigger force i.e. ___________

A

mechanical advantage

78
Q

There are four parts to a simple lever:

A

lever arm
pivot
effort
load

79
Q

there are 3 classes of levers:

A 
class 1 lever
class 2 lever
class 3 lever
80
Q 
Class 1 lever
\_\_\_\_\_\_----\_\_\_\_\_\_----\_\_\_\_\_\_
commonly known as "\_\_\_\_\_\_" and "\_\_\_\_\_\_"
\_\_\_ (βœ…/❌) mechanical advantage
e.g. \_\_\_\_\_
\_\_\_\_\_ (large/small) load
\_\_\_\_\_ (large/small) range
A 
effort pivot load 
β€œSee-saw”; β€œCrowbar”
βœ…
neck & head
large & small, hence mechanical advantage
81
Q

Class 2 lever
______β€”-______β€”-______
commonly known as β€œ______”
Effort force ______(>/

A 
pivot load effort
β€œWheelbarrow”
<
βœ…
standing on the tippy toes
82
Q

Class 3 lever
______β€”-______β€”-______
commonly known as β€œ______”
___ (βœ…/❌) mechanical advantage, as effort ______(>//

A 
pivot effort load
β€œShovel”
❌
greater than
larger and greater
arm &amp; forearm
small &amp; large, hence mechanical disadvantage
83
Q

types of joints (6):

A 
ball-and-socket joint (pectoral gridle + arm)
pivot joint (elbow)
saddle joint (wrist)
ellipsoid joint (fingers)
hinge joint (knee)
plane joint (ankle)
84
Q

joints that alter position during movement, which influences their β€œlever status” tend to ______ mechanical disadvantage, e.g. _____

A

minimise

knee

85
Q

Synovial fluid in cavity β€” 2 functions

A

lubricates the joint

provides nourishment for cartilage

86
Q

Capsule & synovial membrane β€” 2 functions

A

hold joint together

membrane makes synovial fluid

87
Q

Articular cartilage β€”- 2 functions

A 
cushions impact (flexibility function)
protects bone
88
Q

intrinsic ligaments – where?

A

part of capsule

89
Q

extrinsic ligaments β€”- where?

A

outside capsule

knee joint

90
Q

ligaments β€”- 2 functions

A

hold bones together, prevent unwanted movement

91
Q

the myotatic reflex

A

when a skeletal muscle is pulled, it pulls back

92
Q

Change in length (and rate of change) is registered by a sensory organ within the muscle, __________; this contributes to non-conscious ____________

A

the muscle spindle

proprioception

93
Q

spindles consist of (4):

A
  • a fibrous capsule
  • intrafusal muscle fibres
  • sensory afferents that innervate the intrafusal fibres
  • gamma motor neurone efferents that innervate the intrafusal fibres
94
Q

describe sensory afferents

A

innervate the intrafusal fibres

Ia class, myelinated and very fast conducting

95
Q

Striking of the _____ tendon with a ______ [item] causes a β€˜______’ [behaviour] underpinned by the _______ [type of reflex]

A

patellar
tendon hammer
knee jerk
myotatic reflex

96
Q

reflex [definition]

A

rapid, automatic response generated by the circuitry of the spinal cord

97
Q

reflex [function]

A
  • controlling automatic behaviour

- important role in voluntary movement

98
Q

the myotatic reflex is a ___*___, the only one in humans

___*___ is (2):

A

*monosynaptic reflex arc
rapid
most prominent in extensor muscles

99
Q

the myotatic reflex can be used to assess…

A

the functional integrity of the spinal cord at specific levels

100
Q

Muscle (joint) assessed: biceps (elbow)

Spinal level assessed: __

A

C5-C6

101
Q

Muscle (joint) assessed: _____

Spinal level assessed: C5-C6

A

supinator (wrist)

102
Q

Muscle (joint) assessed: triceps (elbow)

Spinal level assessed: __

A

C7

103
Q

Muscle (joint) assessed: ______

Spinal level assessed: L3-L4

A

quadriceps (knee)

104
Q

Muscle (joint) assessed: ____

Spinal level assessed: S1

A

gastrocnemius (ankle)

105
Q

intrafusal fibres can be subdivided on the basis of morphology and function into (1+2+1):

A
  • Nuclear bag fibres
    • Bag 1 or dynamic
    • Bag 2 or static
  • Chain fibres
106
Q

characteristics of bag 1 or dynamic

A

very sensitive to the rate of change of muscle length

innervated by dynamic gamma motor neurones

107
Q

characteristics of bag 2 or static

A

more sensitive to the absolute length of the muscle

innervated by static gamma motor neurones

108
Q

characteristics of chain fibres

A

sensitive to the absolute length of the muscle

innervated by static gamma motor neurones

109
Q

types of afferent fibre that innervate the intrafusal fibres (2):

Both sets of afferents respond to stretch, but the _____
are more sensitive to _______ and _______ are more sensitive to _________

A

Ia afferents
II fibres

Ia fibres
rate of change

II fibres
absolute length of the intrafusal fibres

110
Q

afferent fibre that innervate the intrafusal fibres – Ia afferents [description]

A

form a primary annulospiral nerve ending winding around the centre of all intrafusal fibres

111
Q

afferent fibre that innervate the intrafusal fibres – II fibres

A

are more slowly conducting, form flowerspray endings on all intrafusal fibres except the bag 1 dynamic type

112
Q

RESPONSE TO SELECTIVE ACTIVATION OF STATIC AND DYNAMIC GAMMA MOTOR NEURONES – Ia fibre

A

responds to both the rate of change of muscle length (dynamic response) and absolute length (steady state, or static response) of the muscle

113
Q

RESPONSE TO SELECTIVE ACTIVATION OF STATIC AND DYNAMIC GAMMA MOTOR NEURONES – Stimulation of static gamma fibre

A

causes steady state, or static response, to πŸ”Ό

114
Q

RESPONSE TO SELECTIVE ACTIVATION OF STATIC AND DYNAMIC GAMMA MOTOR NEURONES – Stimulation of dynamic gamma fibre

A

enhances the dynamic response to stretch

115
Q

only static gamma motor neurones are active when…

A

an activity involves muscle length to change slowly and predictably

116
Q

only dynamic gamma motor neurones are active during…

A

behaviours in which muscle length changes rapidly and unpredictably

117
Q

free nerve endings
location:
characteristics:

A

location: found in capsule and connective tissue
characteristics: most numerous
HT [high threshold] & SA [slowly adapting]
nociceptive function

118
Q

Golgi-type endings
location:
characteristics:

A

location: only in ligaments
HT [high threshold] & SA [slowly adapting]
protective role?

119
Q

Paciniform endings
location:
characteristics:

A

location: found in periosteum near the articular attachments and the fibrous part of the joint capsule
characteristics: LT [low threshold] & SA [slowly adapting]
acceleration detectors

120
Q

Ruffini endings
location:
characteristics:

A

location: mainly in joint capsule
characteristics: LT [low threshold] & SA [slowly adapting]
static position and speed of movements

121
Q

Proprioceptive information arises from (3):

A
  • Muscle spindles
  • Golgi tendon organs
  • Joint receptors
122
Q

Spinal interneurons receive input from (4):

A
  • primary sensory axons (e.g. Ia and Ib fibres)
  • descending axons from the brain
  • collaterals (branches) of lower motor neurones
  • other interneurons
123
Q

Inhibitory interneurons mediate:

A
  • the inverse myotatic response

- reciprocal inhibition between extensor and flexor muscles

124
Q

Excitatory interneurons mediate 2 reflexes:

A

the flexor reflex

the crossed extensor reflex

125
Q

The flexor reflex

Noxious stimulus causes limb to flex by (2):

A
  • contraction of flexor muscles via excitatory interneurones

- relaxation of extensor muscles via excitatory and inhibitory interneurones

126
Q

Crossed extensor reflex
Noxious stimulus causes limb to extend by (2):

This reflex enhances postural support during withdrawal of a foot from a painful stimulus (you do not fall over!)

A
  • contraction of extensor muscles via excitatory interneurones
  • relaxation of flexor muscles via excitatory and inhibitory interneurones
127
Q

excitation-contraction coupling

A

the way in which the muscle converts an AP (electrical stimulus) into a contraction (mechanical response)

128
Q

latent period

A

time delay between AP and muscle contraction

Biomedical Sciences BS22001 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions