Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vet Public Health and Epidemiology > Zoonotic Diseases: Test 1 > Flashcards

Zoonotic Diseases: Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How are humans infected with

Toxoplasma gondii?

A

Oocysts in soil and kitty litter

or by

Bradyzoites encysted in PORK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which zoonotic disease causing agent is a protozoan and can be found within the intestinal cells of cats?

A

Toxoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Epidemiologists believe this zoonotic disease

comes from cumulative exposure to undercooked meants and not just soil exposure

A

Toxoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F

Toxoplasma infections are usually asymptomatic in immune competent children and adults

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If a pregnant woman is avoiding eating pork, gardening, and cleaning her cat’s litterbox,

she is worried about

A

Toxoplasma gondii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A parasitic nematode that is migratory during its larval stages causes diseases known as

A

Larval migrans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the most common cause of

human toxocariasis

and in most cases is asymptomatic?

A

Visceral larval migrans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Children are at risk for toxocariasis because

of these two common eating conditions

A

Pica

Geophagia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is toxocariasis prevented?

A

Regular antihelminthic tx of dogs, cats, and pups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This is known as the

“Raccoon Roundworm”

A

Baylisascaris procyonis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The most common form of larval migrans that occurs with infection of the raccoon roundworm, or

Baylisascaris procyonis

are

A

Ocular and Neurologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Dogs can function as _____ or _____ hosts

in the life cycle of the raccoon roundworm

A

Alternate definitive hosts

or intermediate hosts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the definitive host of

  • Taenia saginata*
  • Taenia solium*

The Beef and Pork tapeworms?

A

HUMANS are the DH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the name of the fish tapeworm in which

humans are the definitive host?

A

Diphyllobothrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How are cestode zoonoses spread to

a human definitive host?

A

Humans, as a definitive host, contract cestode zoonoses by

eating meat from intermediate hosts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Humans function as what type of host in the following

cestode zoonoses?

  • Echinococcus granulosis*
  • Echinococcus multilocularis*
  • Taenia solium (Cysticercosis)*
A

Humans are the intermediate hosts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are humans infected with cestode zoonoses

if they play the role of intermediate host in the cestode life cycle?

A

Humans, as intermediate hosts, contract cestode

zoonoses by eating larvated cestode EGGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Human symptoms of cestode zoonoses caused

by ingesting cestode larvated eggs

are caused by the _____

A

cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Individual, large, fluid-filled cysts in multiple tissues

A

Hydatid cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What causes hydatid cyst disease

and where are the cysts often found?

A

Echinococcus granulosus

Cysts often found in LIVER and sometimes brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Echinococcus granulosus, or “Cystic Echinococcus”

is a disease largely associated with what industry?

A

Sheep industry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the intermediate hosts in the life cycle of the pathogen that causes

Hydatid cyst disease?

A

Sheep and moose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the definitive host in a disease caused by

Echinococcus granulosus?

A

Dogs and Wolves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is the sylvatic cycle of Hydatid Cyst Disease

maintained?

A

Through Wolves and Moose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Treating a dog every 6 weeks with _______

is a way to control Cystic (Hydatid) Echinococcus

A

Praziquantel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A disease characterized by multilocular, small, solid cysts in the liver which then metastasize to the lungs?

A

Alveolar cyst disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What causes Alveolar Cyst Disease?

A

Echinococcus multilocularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

This disease, rare in North America, with an up to 75% fatality rate, has been emerging (re-emerging) in Europe in recent years

A

Echinococcus multilocularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How can domestic dogs and cats get

Alveolar Cyst Disease?

A

Ingestion of hunted rodents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Foxes and Rodents maintain the natural cycle of

A

Echinococcus multilocularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

T/F:

A human can contract Toxoplasma and Toxocara canis via ingestion of infected meat

A

TRUE!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the major determining factor of if a bacterial agent can be used as a bioweapon?

A

Its ability to be aerosolized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Francisella tularensis is also called

A

Rabbit Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the primary, long-term reservoir of

Rabbit Fever?

A

RABBITS are the RESERVOIR!

(Rodents and Lagomorphs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which animal is most likely to contract

Francisella tularensis?

A

Domestic CATS

also sheep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does a cat contract tularemia?

A

By eating infected rodents or lagomorphs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How does a sheep contract tularemia?

A

Tick-borne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How does a human contract tularemia?

A

Usually ticks

but also

DIRECT CONTACT with animals or carcasses

and sometimes Aerosol exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Xenopsylla cheopsis is

a vector for this disease

A

PLAGUE!

Yersinia pestis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the primary cycle of Yersinia pestis?

A

Rodent-Flea-Rodent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How does a cat contract the plague?

A

By hunting and eating infected rodents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How would a human contract the plague caused by Yersinia pestis?

A

Flea Bite

Aerosol

DIRECT from animal blood or abscesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Necrotic eschar at skin entry

is indicative of

A

The PLAGUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which two reportable diseases would be on your differential list

if you have an outdoor cat with

fever, lethargy, sepsis, and anorexia?

A

Plague and Tularemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Lymphadenopathy in the cervical region of an

outdoor cat in addition to febrile symptoms and sepsis

could be caused by which agents?

A
  • Yersinia pestis*
  • Francisella tularensis*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

MAJOR CAUTION is necessary when taking aspirates of this organ of a cat infected with Yersinia pestis

and Francisella tularensis

A

Lymph node aspirates

are high infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Wool Sorter’s Disease is caused by

A

Bacillus anthracis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

This spore-forming bacterium is a threat to veterinarians via 2 modes of transmission.

What are they?

A

Aerosol

Percutaneous via BLOOD from infected animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Most vet cases of Anthrax are seen in what species?

A

Cattle!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the initial reservoir of Bacillus anthracis?

A

Soil!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do Bacillus anthracis and Yersinia pestis

have in common in regards to clinical signs?

A

Both form necrotic eschars at the site of entry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What happens after anthrax spores enter the host?

A

Spore germinate and cause sepsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)

comes right before massive edema, shock, and death caused by

_________ from Bacillus anthracis spores

A

exotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How can you tell if a cow found dead in a field was an anthrax fatality?

A

Blood not clotted

Rapid bloating

Lack of rigor

Bleeding from orifices

Spores in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the asymptomatic reservoir host

of Hantavirus?

A

Rodents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Transmission is primarily aerosol in this worldwide disease caused by inhalation of urine, feces, and potentially saliva of rodents

A

Hantavirus

57
Q

What is the secondary mode of transmission for Hantavirus?

A

Bite from a rodent!

58
Q

The “New World Disease” in humans

is also known as

A

HPS

Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome

59
Q

Which Hantavirus syndrome of humans is more fatal?

A

HPS

Fatal in 40% of human cases

60
Q

Fever, chills, muscle pain, and headache followed by

increased vascular permeability

A

HPS

Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome

61
Q

HFRS, the “old world” disease, characterized by

petechial hemorrhaging, renal damage and

cardiovascular shock, stands for ______ and is caused by ______

A

Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome

caused by

HANTAVIRUS

62
Q

What are the reservoirs for pulmonary fungal infection

disease causing agents?

A

Birds and bats

63
Q

Humans, dogs, and cats that are infected with

this pathogen

are not infective because their body temperature is too high for sporulation

A

Fungal pulmonary infectious agents

  • Blastomyces*
  • Coccidioides*
  • Cryptococcus*
  • Histoplasma*
64
Q

What is the reservoir of Coccidioides immitis?

A

SOIL!

65
Q

Coccidioides immitis infects and _____ in

humans, dogs, cats, cattle, and horses

A

amplifies

66
Q

The reservoir of this fungal pathogen is

the soil and buildings with

bird feces or bat guano

A

Histoplasmosis

67
Q

This fungal pathogen can infect humans, cats, and dogs, and is 90% asymptomatic. Bird feces and bat guano are implicated as the reservoir

A

Histoplasmosis

68
Q

Both Histoplasmosis and Blastomyces dermatitides

are soil fungi associated with bird feces and bat guano and can both infect humans, cats, and dogs.

Which one can also infect horses?

A

Blastomyces dermatitides

69
Q

Family Orthomyxoviridae causes this

zoonotic virus

A

Influenza

70
Q

Which animals can transmit influenza to humans?

A

Birds and Swine ONLY

71
Q

What is the reservoir for Avian Influenza?

A

Wild birds

72
Q

This animal is susceptible to both human and avian strains of influenza and is often called a

viral mixing vessel

A

Swine

73
Q

How do people get influenza?

A

Direct and indirect contact (contaminated surfaces)

74
Q

How do swine give influenza to each other?

A

Aerosolization, Direct contact

75
Q

How do wild birds get influenza A?

A

Fecal-oral

Saliva

Nasal secretions

76
Q

Upper respiratory and reproductive organs are affected in this strain of influenza

A

LPAI

Low Pathogenicity Avian Influenza

77
Q

Q fever (Abattoir fever) is caused by

A

Coxiella burnetti

78
Q

People that work with pregnant sheep are at risk of contracting

A

Q Fever (Coxiella burnetti)

79
Q

How is Coxiella burnetti transmitted?

A

In birth products, milk

feces, urine

Aerosol

Tickborne

80
Q

A sheep farmer noticed that his sheep were

not eating, and some were aborting their lambs.

about 3 weeks later, he got a fever, chills and sweats, and a persistent headache. What is the pathogen responsible?

A

Coxiella burnetti

81
Q

How do birds get Chlamydiosis?

A

Fecal-oral route

82
Q

What types of birds is Chlamydiosis most common in?

A

Psittacine birds:

Parrots and Cockatiels

83
Q

How does a human get Psittacosis or Chlamydiosis?

A

DIRECT HANDLING of an infected bird!

84
Q

A lady comes in to a doctor’s office and says that she’s been feeling sick. She has a headache, cough, and muscle pain with shortness of breath. She also said she was very sensitive to light.

As the lady checked the time on her phone, the doctor noticed a picture of her pet parrot on the background

and then knew exactly what she had.

What is causing her illness?

A

Chlamydophilia psittaci

85
Q

This was first noted in China in 2003 and was originally a bat coronavirus. It jumped to civets and then eventually humans during wild animal markets

A

SARS

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome

86
Q

John Snow said _____ was transmitted via

fecal-oral route in the water supply.

He also made a bullseye map when he went door to door mapping the cases of this disease

A

CHOLERA

87
Q

Robert Koch isolated this bacteria and is responsible for the beginning of Germ Theory

A

Anthrax

88
Q

Pasteur is responsible for developing this, which he first tested in ruminants

A

Vaccines

89
Q

What causes Typhoid fever?

A

Salmonella typhi

90
Q

Typhoid Mary was this type of carrier

A

Asymptomatic carrier!

91
Q

Ronald Ross discovered that _____ was transmitted by mosquitoes

A

Malaria

92
Q

Walter Reed discovered that _____ was transmitted by mosquitoes

A

Yellow Fever

93
Q

What is the reservoir host of West Nile Virus?

A

Birds

94
Q

What are the incidental hosts for West Nile Virus?

A

Humans and horses

95
Q

When a microbe is replicating but not yet enough for the host to become infectious

A

Latent Period

96
Q

When a microbe is replicating but not yet

symptomatic

A

Incubation period

97
Q

Rabies, West Nile, EEV and Influenza H5N1

are all in Stage ___ of pathogen emergence

A

Stage 2

98
Q

What are the reservoirs of West Nile and EEEV?

A

Birds

99
Q

Humans, horses, and dogs are dead end hosts in

these Stage 2 (of pathogen emergence) diseases

A

West Nile

EEEV/WEEV

100
Q

What are the reservoirs for Rabies?

A

Carnivores and Bats

101
Q

What is the dead-end host of Influenza H5N1 (Bird Flu)

A

Humans

102
Q

Name two Stage 3 diseases of pathogen emergence

A
  • Mycobacterium bovis*
  • Nipah Virus*
103
Q

What is the reservoir for Mycobacterium bovis?

A

Cattle, Bison, and Elk

104
Q

How do humans contract Mycobacterium bovis?

A

Via the respiratory route

(poor human to human transmission)

105
Q

Fruit bats are the reservoir for this disease in Stage 3 of pathogen emergence

A

Nipah Virus

106
Q

What is the major manifestation of Nipah Virus infection in humans?

A

Encephalitis

107
Q

What is the reservoir for SARS?

A

Fruit bats!

108
Q

SARS and H1N1 “Swine Flu” are both in

Stage __ of Pathogen Emergence

A

4

109
Q

HIV/AIDS, a Stage 5 disease of Pathogen Emergence,

originated from

A

Non-human primates

110
Q

Measles, a Stage 5 disease of Pathogen Emergence,

originated in

A

Cattle

111
Q

Smallpox, a Stage 5 disease of Pathogen Emergence,

originated in

A

Camels

112
Q

Dengue Fever, a Stage 5 disease of Pathogen Emergence, originated in

A

Old World Primates

113
Q

Yellow fever, a Stage 5 disease of Pathogen Emergence, originated in

A

African primates

114
Q

Zoonotic diseases comprise ___% of all diseases that infect humans

A

61%

115
Q

Zoonotic diseases comprise ___% of all emerging diseases

A

75%

116
Q

What ratio of supervisors to workers is the IDEAL

as recommended by NIMS (National Incident Management System: Directive 5)?

A

1 supervisor : 5 workers

117
Q

What is the persistently infected wildlife reservoir

of FMD (foot and mouth disease)?

A

Cape Buffalo

118
Q

What species is considered the “disease indicator” for FMD?

A

Cattle

119
Q

What species serves as the

Amplifying Host

for FMD?

A

Pigs!

120
Q

Sheep and goats are lucky because they rarely

suffer signs from FMD. They are known as

_______ hosts for FMD

A

Maintenance Hosts

121
Q

T/F:

FMD can cause serious disease in horses and donkeys

A

FALSE!

Equids are NOT affected by FMD

122
Q

Severe signs in animals housed on concrete including neurological signs

are indicative of this vesicle causing disease

A

Swine Vesicular Disease

123
Q

Horses are only affected by one vesicular disease.

Which one is it?

A

Vesicular stomatitis

124
Q

FMD can cause abortions in this species

A

Cattle

125
Q

FMD can reside in the pharyngeal tissue of cattle for

___ to ___ months

A

6 - 24 months

126
Q

FMD can reside in the pharyngeal tissue of

sheep and goats for

__ to __ months

A

4 - 6 months

127
Q

This paramyxovirus that affects ruminants has been eradicated world wide

A

Rinderpest

128
Q

You go to a piggery and see some of the piglets

huddling together. You notice cyanosis and erythematous lesions on the huddling piglets.

What is the first disease on your differential list?

A

Classical Swine Fever

(Pestivirus)

129
Q

What is the incubation period of African Swine Fever?

A

5 - 19 days

130
Q

Picornaviridae, which is antigenically related to human

coxsackievirus B5, causes this disease

A

Swine Vesicular Disease (SVD)

131
Q

FMD is ____ severe than SVD in pigs

A

FMD is MORE severe than Swine Vesicular Disease

132
Q

This disease affects cows and has an incubation period of 2 to 8 years with 100% mortality rate

A

BSE

133
Q

How is Newcastle Disease transmitted?

A

Direct contact with feces or respiratory secretions

or

Indirect contact with feed, water, equipment, or human clothing

134
Q

A chicken farmer has noticed that his hens are not producing as many eggs as normal. All of a sudden, almost 1/2 his flock dies off, over a course of two days and a few more die throughout the rest of the week.

Now, some of the birds are walking funny and can’t keep their balance (neuro signs).

What is causing this chicken die-off?

A

Newcastle Disease

135
Q

Which subtypes of LPAI can mutate into HPAI?

A

H5 or H7

136
Q

What surface antigen is responsible for attachment

for Influenza A Bird Flu?

A

Hyaluronidase

137
Q

Which surface antigen is responsible for viral release

for Influenza A Bird Flu?

A

Neuraminidase

138
Q

What is the most common clinical sign in humans

infected with HPAI?

A

Conjunctivitis

139
Q

Asymptomatic domestic ducks are the asymptomatic reservoirs of this strain of influenza, which causes

pneumonia and high fatalities in humans?

A

H5N1 (Bird Flu)

Vet Public Health and Epidemiology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions