Definitions: Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Diseases with animal reservoirs

A

Zoonosis

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2
Q

The study of the distribution and determinants

of disease and other health outcomes in

animal populations

A

Epizootiology

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3
Q

Chronic infections with minimal symptoms caused by pathogens

A

Balanced pathogenicity

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4
Q

A habitat in which a pathogen normally

lives, grows, and multiplies

A

Reservoir

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5
Q

A pathogen

that undergoes changes or multiplies

while inside this living organism.

This activity is required for transmission

A

Biological vector

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6
Q

Disease caused by invasion and multiplication

of a living agent in/on a host

A

Infectious disease

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7
Q

Invasion, but not multiplication, of a living agent

in/on a host

A

Infestation

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8
Q

Disease that is transmissible from

one animal to another

via

direct or airborne routes

A

Contagious disease

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9
Q

Disease caused by an agent capable of transmission

by direct, airborne, OR INDIRECT routes

from an infected person, animal, reservoir, or fomites

A

Communicable disease

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10
Q

A curve that represent the number of NEW

cases of a disease over time

A

Epidemic curve

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11
Q

An epidemic curve representative of

CONTAGIOUS Diseases

and

exposure is followed by waves of cases

A

Propagated source

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12
Q

An epidemic curve that can determine

max, average, and minimum incubation times

and

exposure is at the same time from the same source

A

Common source single point exposure

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13
Q

An epidemic curve where exposure is

from the same source but at different times

and

this curve cannot determine incubation times

A

Common source with intermittant exposure

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14
Q

Factors that help determine the probability,

distribution, or severity of disease

in a population of animals.

An example is host susceptibility.

A

Determinant

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15
Q

A major contributing factor, usually a necessary one,

that helps determine the status of a disease in a population

A

Primary determinant

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16
Q

A predisposing or enabling factor that makes a disease more or less LIKELY

A

Secondary Determinant

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17
Q

This factor must always be present in order for

a disease to occur

A

primary determinant

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18
Q

If antimicrobial resistance is obtained

de novo,

what does that mean?

A

Resistance is obtained

through mutation

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19
Q

This is entirely determined by genotype

A

Genetic disease

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20
Q

This is partially determined by genotype

A

Genetic susceptibilities

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21
Q

The idea that infectious diseases can be contained if the population’s resistance to disease is

high enough

A

Herd Immunity

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22
Q

A previously unknown disease that suddenly

appears in a population

A

Emerging disease

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23
Q

A known disease that suddenly appears in

a NEW population

A

Emerging disease

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24
Q

A known disease, previously on the decline, that is

becoming more common and will

likely continue to do so

A

Re-emerging disease

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25
Q

A stage of pathogen emergence in which

the pathogen is

exclusive to a single species

A

Stage 1

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26
Q

A stage of pathogen emergence in which

an animal can infect humans and other animals,

but there is no transfer among them

(Dead-end host)

A

Stage 2

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27
Q

A stage of pathogen emergence in which

an animal can infect humans and other animals

and there are a few cycles of transmission

among them

A

Stage 3

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28
Q

A stage of pathogen emergence in which

an animal can infect humans and other animals

and there is sustained transmission among them

A

Stage 4

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29
Q

A stage of pathogen emergence in which

a pathogen is exclusive to a new species

A

Stage 5

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30
Q

The malicious attempt to disrupt or destroy the

agricultural industry or food supply of

a population through the use of plant or animal pathogens

A

Agroterrorism

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31
Q

An attempt to prevent hazards from developing

into disasters altogether or to reduce the effects

of disasters when they occur

A

Mitigation

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32
Q

Actions taken to provide emergency assistance, save lives, minimize property damage, and speed recovery

A

Response

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33
Q

A team intended for use by LOCAL governments

for rapid response to a local event

and utilizes local resources

A

CART

County Animal Response Team

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34
Q

Interagency organizations dedicated to

helping during animal emergencies

and run as a public-private partnership

A

SART

State Animal Response Team

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35
Q

A federal level veterinary team that operates under

AVMA and provides assistance to state animal health authorities and functions to provide

early assessment volunteer teams, basic treatment

volunteer teams, and training

A

VMAT

Vet Medical Assistant Team

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36
Q

Part of the Department of Health and Human Services

National Disaster Medical Team.

A fully supported federal government team comprised of private citizens that have been approved as intermittent federal employees during a disaster and have professional expertise in the areas of vet med, public health, and research

A

NVRT

National Vet Response Team

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37
Q

Part of the USDA’s Animal and Plant Health

Inspection Service (APHIS),

this agency was established to respond to exotic disease outbreaks and other disasters that affect livestock, poultry, companion animals, and wildlife.

These people are considered temporary USDA APHIS employees

A

NAHERC

National Animal Health Emergency Response Corp

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38
Q

One of 7 uniformed services (not an armed service)

consisting of more than 6,500 health professionals and 100+ veterinarians whose officers are dedicated to PH promotion, response, science, and disease prevention

A

US Public Health Service

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39
Q

Part of the Department of Homeland Security,

this agency establishes a comprehensive, national, all-hazards approach to

domestic incidence response

A

NRF

National Response Framework

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40
Q

Part of Homeland Security Presedential Directive-5,

this is a core set of concepts, principles, and terminology for

incident command and the coordination of multiple agencies; It also mandates the use of the

Incident Command System (ICS)

A

NIMS

National Incident Management System

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41
Q

A system with a top-down structure standardized for

multi-agency cooperation and is mandated by

NIMS (National Incident Management System)

A

ICS

Incident Command System

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42
Q

Veterinarians are involved in which 2 of the 5

management functions of the ICS (Incident Command System)?

A

Operations and Planning

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43
Q

A disease that the government actively monitors

A

Regulatory animal disease

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44
Q

The veterinary equivalent to WHO (World Health Org)

that maintains a list of internationally reportable animal diseases, WAHID, and requires member countries to

report cases of reportable disease within 24 hours

A

OIE

(World Organization for Animal Health)

45
Q

A database of diseases, events, and notification systems all associated with animal health

and

is mainted by the OIE (World Org for Animal Health)

A

WAHID

World Animal Health Information Database

46
Q

The US federal agency that is responsible for

surveillance of foreign disease introduction, and surveillance and eradication of diseases

in the US

A

USDA

US Department of Agriculture

47
Q

The veterinarian the USDA employs in every state

that is responsible for investigating potential

FADs (Foreign Animal Diseases) and overseeing

other animal health programs

A

AVIC

Area Vet In Charge

48
Q

The agency responsible for inspecting agricultural products and meat for foodborne disease,

managing nationwide control programs for selected enzootic diseases, and regulates all animal imports and exports in the US

A

USDA

US Dept. of Agriculture

49
Q

The only lab in the US that can officially diagnose

a FAD (Foreign Animal Disease) that is run by the USDA

A

NVSL

National Veterinary Services Lab

50
Q

A USDA-lead certification program for

clinical vets that requires knowledge of:

the signs of FADs and reportable diseases,

proper procedures for vax and testing animals for regulated diseases,

how to fill out legal documents, and who to report diseases to, when and how

A

Federal USDA Accreditation

51
Q

This category of USDA federal accreditation requires

3 units of supplemental training every 3 years

to maintain accreditation and is only inclusive of

small companion animals like dogs, cats, and rabbits, and

lab animals, non-human primates, and wildlife

A

Category 1

52
Q

This category of USDA accreditation

requires 6 units of supplemental training every 3 years

to maintain accreditation and includes all animals without exclusions like food and fiber species (ruminants and pigs) and horses, as well as zoo animals.

A

Category II

53
Q

Risk = Probability x _______

A

Severity

54
Q

Risk = Hazard __ Outrage

A

Hazard + Outrage

PLUS!!

55
Q

A probability or threat of any negative occurrence or loss that is caused by external or internal

vulnerabilities and that

may be avoided

through preemptive action

A

Risk

56
Q

How much harm a risk is likely to do

A

Hazard

57
Q

How upset a risk is likely to make people

A

Outrage

58
Q

There is a _____ correlation between a risk’s

Hazard and Outrage

A

LOW

59
Q

Combination of thought and emotion

associated with risk

A

Risk perception

60
Q

Acceptance–> Fear–>Denial–>Panic

are

human reactions to ______

A

risk

61
Q

According to Sandman’s 4 tasks of Risk Communication,

when Hazard is HIGH

and

OUTRAGE is LOW

what is the task?

A

Precaution advocacy

“Watch out!”

62
Q

According to Sandman’s 4 tasks of Risk Communication,

when both hazard AND outrage are HIGH,

what is the task to be done?

A

Crisis communication

63
Q

Precrisis - Initial -Maintenance- Resolution - Evaluation

are the 5 parts of what?

A

The Risk Communication Life Cycle

64
Q

A roadmap for displaying detailed hierarchically

organized responses to anticipated questions

or concerns

A

Message Mapping

(Vincent Covello Ph.D)

65
Q

According to Message Mapping,

how many key messages and supporting facts

should you have?

A

3 key messages

and

3 supporting facts

(less than 3 seconds a message)

66
Q

Diseases that humans get from other humans

and have a human reservoir

A

Anthroponoses

67
Q

Infectious diseases that people get from animals

either directly or indirectly

and

animals are the ultimate reservoir for the disease

A

Zoonoses

68
Q

___% of US households have at least 1 pet

A

62%

69
Q

An animal that is used for surveillance of

zoonotic diseases or disease in a different species?

A

Sentinel animals

70
Q

Zoonotic diseases a human can get from a bird

(list 5)

A

Chlamydia psittaci

West Nile

Cryptococcus

Newcastle DZ

Avian Influenza (A)

71
Q

Zoonotic diseases a human can get from a rodent

or Lagomorph (6)

A

Hantavirus

  • Yersinia pestis*
  • Francisella tularensis*

Rabies

Lepto

Lyme Dz

72
Q

Zoonotic diseases that humans can get from horses

A
  • Salmonella*
  • Cryptosporidium*

WEEV, EEEV, VEE (mosquito vectors)

73
Q

Toxoplasma gondii, Pasteurella, Yersinia pestis, and Francisella tularensis

are zoonotic diseases that humans can get from
____________

A

CATS!

TYPF

74
Q

Coxiella burnetii, Anthrax, Mycobacterium bovis, Campylobacter, Crypotosporidium, and Brucella

are all zoonotic diseases that humans can get from

_________

A

FOOD ANIMALS

CCCBAM

75
Q

T/F:

Mycobacterium is a zoonoses that humans can get from fish

A

TRUE

76
Q

Systematic continuous observation of populations

and collection and analysis of data from varied sources for rapid detection and timely response to

important health events

A

Surveillance

77
Q

What is the purpose of surveillance?

A

Rapid detection of disease outbreaks

Support dz control and eradication

Assess population health and safety of food

Produce info about the disease

Evaluate dz control and biosecurity programs

78
Q

Detection, Response, Communication, and Information Production are the 4 components of

what?

A

Surveillance

79
Q

The type of surveillance that is

initiated by the sample provider

A

Passive surveillance

80
Q

Which is the most common type of surveillance?

A

PASSIVE surveillance

81
Q

Reportable disease programs

Sero-surveys at auction markets

and

Diagnostic lab submission

are all examples of which type of surveillance?

A

PASSIVE

because it is

reporting at the discretion of the owner

82
Q

Involved and committed effort of the veterinarian or health authority to ID subjects for data or samples

A

ACTIVE surveillance

83
Q

Which types of surveillance are capable of

early detection of emerging diseases?

A

Passive and Sentinel

84
Q

Chickens are sentinels for

human risk of

A

EEEV and WEEV

85
Q

Which type of surveillance is capable of making

a valid estimate of the amount and importance

of a disease in the population?

A

ACTIVE surveillance

86
Q

Only taking samples from downer cattle for

BSE testing, is what type of surveillance?

A

Targeted surveillance

87
Q

A dairy farm has an outbreak of Bovine TB

in its facility. Can you get sick from drinking the

pasteurized milk?

A

NO! Milk is safe, but meat is not

88
Q

A surveillance system that lists human diseases that are reportable at the national level and is a collaboration of the CSTE and CDC?

A

NNDSS

National Notifiable Diseases Surveillance System

89
Q

CSTE stands for?

A

Council of State and Territorial Epidemiologists

90
Q

Reports data every week that is

sent in by state health departments

A

MMWR

Morbidity Mortality Weekly Report

91
Q

The CDC program that tracks evolving health problems by collecting many types of data like from emergency rooms, and pharmaceutical sales?

It is real time and web based

A

BioSense

92
Q

The active surveillance network for foodborne disease in the US and is part of the CDCs Emerging Infections Program (EIP)

A

FoodNet

93
Q

This system, created by the USDA APHIS

collects, analyzes, and disseminates data across the US about animal health, management and productivity

and collects data using BOTH PASSIVE AND ACTIVE SURVEILLANCE

A

NAHMS

National Animal Health Monitoring System

94
Q

Maintaining a healthy population by preventing disease occurrence is _____ prevention

A

primary

95
Q

Control is similar to ______ prevention

A

secondary

96
Q

Attempts to minimize damage after a disease has occurred is _____ prevention

A

secondary

97
Q

Mastitis control program is an example of

_____ prevention

A

tertiary

rehabilitation after primary and secondary preventions have failed

98
Q

Test and slaughter programs and stamping out

are examples of ____ prevention

A

secondary

99
Q

Vaccinations, meat inspection, and border security are examples of ____ prevention

A

primary

100
Q

A disease agent that has been completely removed from an area of concern has undergone

________ eradication

A

total

101
Q

Elimination of a disease organism from the reservoirs of importance to humans and their domestic animals

A

Practical eradication

102
Q

An example of a disease that has undergone

Practical Eradication is __________

and it is still present in raccoons, skunks, bats, and foxes

A

Canine Rabies

103
Q

_____ have latent periods followed by infectious periods

while

______ have incubation periods followed by symptomatic periods

A

INFECTIONS: latent–>infectious

DISEASES: incubation–>symptomatic

104
Q

________ renders infected individuals as

non-shedders

A

Vaccination

105
Q

National litigation concerned with

prevention, detection, control, and eradication

of diseases and pests of animals

A

Animal Health Act

106
Q

What 3 organizations are responsible for

animal health litigation internationally?

A

WTO (World Trade Organization

SPS (Sanitary and Phytosanitary Agreement)

OIE (World Animal Health Organization)

107
Q

Which agency’s mission is to

protect the health and value of American agriculture and natural resources

and who’s responsible for

developing science-based standards in animal health

A

USDA APHIS

108
Q

Where is the USDA APHIS

FOREIGN Animal Disease Diagnostic Lab?

A

Plum Island

109
Q

This agency sets standards for the

national surveillance program

and

administer the NAHMS

(national animal health monitoring system)

A

CEAH

Centers for Epidemiology and Animal Health

(Fort Collins, CO)