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Your mom's house COPY Flashcards

1
Q

Bomb threats: post blast, who does communications immediate advise?

A

Dispatches Patrol and Supervisor and notifies ARMOR Supervisor.

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2
Q

Bomb threats: post blast, a minimum BLANK foot perimeter is placed from any item visually identified as evidence.

A

300 ft

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3
Q

Driving: When do Sergeants do checkrides?

A

With one week of assignment except for FTEP grads.

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4
Q

All hazard: Who does the AAR, what is the time limit, and where does it go.

A

The IC does it within 10 calendar days and forwards it to EMS.

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5
Q

Bomb threats: for threats against HQ, communications notifies the WC and the watch desk. Who emails the DC’s, CBRNE LT, SNCTC capt., Comms Capt., and executive LT?

A

The watch commander

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6
Q

FFE: Who requests the Area LT or WC (if LT unavailable) for confirmed protesters?

A

Communications, all OTHER requests are made through communications from the IC

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7
Q

CBRNE: Who commands police operations on a CBRNE incident? Who do they request/notify via communications??

A

The Area LT or IC is in command. Notifications will be made to the NV CBRNE Supervisor

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8
Q

Foot pursuits: What does the first responding officer that is not actively engaged in immediate apprehension do?

A

Establish a 360 perimeter.

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9
Q

Driving: Sergeants will conduct web-based UMLV Evoc training how often?

A

Annually

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10
Q

Driving: when may officers not wear their safety belt?

A

When traveling less than 15 miles per hour and expecting to take immediate police action once the vehicle has stopped.

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11
Q

Bomb threats: how should evacuations be done?High rise?What criteria?He needs to go?

A

High rise - 2 floors above and below the deviceCriteria- FBI Bomb threat standoff cardWho- anyone in the Mandatory zone! Other MAY shelter in place. Note:failure to respond to an evacuation order is a violation of NRS 475.070

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12
Q

Hostage Plan:A Patrol Supervisor does what?-PERV

A

Perimeter- in and out, stops vehicle/foot traffic if required.EvacuatesVerbal- establishes initial communication (not negotiating)Radio- requests a dedicated channel.

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13
Q

FFE: The IC will:CDSCBA

A

C: Crime, determine if law is violated and need to moveD: dispersal order S: call SAT teamC: establish command postB: create and maintain buffer zoneA: organize arrest team, possibly notify DSD

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14
Q

Accidents: The involved member may be at fault but the collision was unavoidable considering all circumstances.

A

Excusable

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15
Q

All Hazards: What does a does a Sergeant do?CSN - AAR

A

C- Establish Command/if necessaryS - Staff positions of ICSN - Notify LT or WC if absent (comms does this, just Ensure it gets done)AAR- complete ICS AAR

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16
Q

Bomb threats: at a THREAT, who notifies CBRNE supervisor, CT, SNCTC, WC, LT, and SGT?

A

Communications

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17
Q

CBRNE - What does the first supervisor on scene do? C-ESPN

A

C- Establish command postS - safety sweep of areaP- perimeterE- evacuationsN - make notifications via communications

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18
Q

Bomb threats: post blast, very VERY conservatively, when change the scene be entered?

A

STRICT emergency actions to prevent loss of life.

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19
Q

All Hazard: Whenever transfer of command occurs, it will be communicated….

A

To dispatch over the radio.

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20
Q

FFE: If protest is related to an organized labor union, who is contacted?

A

SIS

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21
Q

Barricaded subjects:3 prong

A
  1. Criminal act or immediate threat to selves and public.
  2. Refuses to submit to arrest and may be armed.
  3. At a position of advantage or in the open where police approach would precipitate an adverse reaction.
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22
Q

Barricaded subject:What does a supervisor do? P(S)erv

A 
P - inner/outer perimeter
S - Gather intel and evaluate the need for SWAT.
E - Evacuations and record!
R - request dedicated channel.
V - Verbal contact safely!
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23
Q

Driving: when will a sergeant do a blue team for an officer?

A

If the officer is incapacitated.

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24
Q

When will a supervisor attend ARB?

A

When it is a mandatory appearance at the vehicle collision board

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25
Q

CBRNE - When can members enter a contaminated area?

A

When utilising proper protective equipment and when trained in its use.

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26
Q

Foot pursuits: is the supervisor’s presence required to exercise control of the pursuit?

A

No

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27
Q

Accidents: The involved member performed in accordance with policy, procedures, training standards and the law.

A

Non-preventable

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28
Q

Hostage Plan: For a confirmed hostage situation, Communications will immediately:

A

Notify the SWAT commander and advise the field supervisor of the notification.

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29
Q

Hostage and barricade: Who notifies LT or WC?

A

Communications, all other requests by comms are through the field supervisor

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30
Q

Foot pursuit: supervisors shall take command, control and coordinate. When WILL they respond? (6)

A
  1. Injury to officer2. Injury to citizen3. Injury to suspect4. Entry to residence/structure regardless of occupancy.5. Any reportable force regardless of injury.6. Unusual occurrence that warrants oversight.
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31
Q

Bomb threats: at a bomb threat, unattended item, or suspicious item, this is done at the initial arrival location and at the CP.

A

25-foot and 100-foot search. Use a EDD if available.

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32
Q

All hazard: When May units self dispatch to an incident in a neighbouring area command?

A

When incident occurs close to the border and they are already in close proximity. Also, when requested by coms, Primary, or supervisor

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33
Q

Driving: Accident.

A

One or more vehicle, Injury/ complaint of injuryDeath750 or more

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34
Q

Bomb threats: What will a supervisor do at a post blast scene?PSPD

A

P- contact CBRNE for instruction regarding perimeter and other scene concerns. S- determine appropriate support personnel for scene SECURITY. P- maintain PERIMETER until released by Ranking CBRNE or the investigator functioning as liaison for NV cbrne. D- determine need for DOG to search for secondary device, CBRNE May also make this request.

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35
Q

Accidents: The involved member violated policy, procedures, trading standards or the law.

A

Preventable

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36
Q

Driving: What does a commissioned supervisor do at an accident?IN ? CBR

A

I - Investigate N - notify traffic for vehicle, 750, injury, pinching, PIT Block.? - Supervisor report of vehicle incident (incident, no other vehicle involved) C - Check ride for all “preventable” before allowed to resumeB - blue team (prior to end of shift) R - refer to litigation section

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37
Q

Bomb threats: for an unattended item, suspicious package, or 445, What does the field supervisor do? CEOS

A

C- Establish command/brief CBRNE Supervisor. E- when you or higher request CBRNE, a responsible person from the establishment is contacted and evacuations are done! O- assigns additional OFFICER to the primary location. S- remain at SCENE to prevent unauthorized access to the device.

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38
Q

EDS training for FTOs v. Supervisors.

A

Annual for FTOs, Biennial for supervisors.

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39
Q

FFE: Dispersal Order is read how many times in what increments?

A

3 separate times in 10 minute increments. Name and time is recorded.

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40
Q

Hostage Plan: Who completes Officers Reports and forwards them to the SWAT section for the AAR?

A

A) Primary Unit B) Patrol CP Recorder C)CNT D) SWAT Unit

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41
Q

Bomb threats: For threats against vehicles, officers should inspect how and when do they notify?

A

Do a preliminary threat assessment prior to approachingVisually! Don’t open any doors, the trunk, or hood. Notify CBRNE if anything suspicious is located.

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42
Q

Foot pursuit: at the termination point, supervisors should (2)

A

Respond to termination point and direct post pursuit activity. Conduct after action reviews with officers involved as a practical and should consider debriefing at a suitable time.

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43
Q

Barricaded subject: Suicidal barricades involve subjects who pose:

A

An immediate or demonstrated threat to the public.

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44
Q

Foot pursuit: What justification is needed to engage in a foot pursuit?

A

Reasonable suspicion.

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45
Q

FFE: Who completes Officers Reports and sends them to the SAT team supervisor for the AAR?

A

A) Primary Responding Unit
B) CP recorder
C) Sat Team Section

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46
Q

Foot pursuit: Supervisors WILL

A

Make every effort to respond to a foot pursuit to monitor its progress and outcome.

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47
Q

Star protocol- what is the criteria for a supervisors response to the call (3)

A
  1. Credible information that the subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon. (Not simulated or unseen.)
  2. Subject is acting in a threatening manner with the weapon.
  3. This will not include open carry or pocket knives, when carrying is the sole justification for the call.
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48
Q

Star protocol- how many officers at a minimum will be dispatched?

A

3

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49
Q

Star protocol - what will the patrol supervisor do?SOAP -AA

A

Self dispatch or ensure a supervisor takes your spot! If unavailable
Oversee- responsible for tactics and supervision.
A - acknowledges and responds
P- plan, determine tools LL, rifle, arrest team etc.
A - request ANSEC work up when necessary ( you call or designate an officer)
A - if legitimate threat, AAR placing a hazard on the location and subject involved

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50
Q

Star protocol - what is significant about the 3rd arriving officer on star?

A

They will form an arrest team and consider LL for someone armed with a weapon.

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51
Q

Star protocol - if the call resulted in a legitimate threat what does the supervisor do at the conclusion?

A

AAR- hazard of property and person

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52
Q

Social media: speech on or off duty BLANK is not protected speech

A

Pursuant to official duties.

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53
Q

Social media: members are free to express themselves as private citizens in matters of public concern to the degree that their speech does not:

A
  1. Impair working relationships of the department for which loyalty and confidentiality are important. 2. Impede performance. 3. Impair discipline or harmony of coworkers. 4. Negatively impact the departments ability to serve
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54
Q

Social media: members will not disseminate in any way information obtained:

A

As a result of their employment, without written permission if the sheriff or his designee

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55
Q

Who approves department social media sites?

A

A DC or designee. PIO approves and registers. A member of the bureau/section monitors and identifies themselves to the PIO

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56
Q

On department sanctioned sites, officers will make no statements about suspects/arrestees, pending prosecutions or disseminate any personnel or confidential info without:

A

Expressed written permission

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57
Q

Potential social media uses include:

A

Investigation tool, community engagement, and time-sensitive notifications

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58
Q

BWC: For application of reportable force, except use of deadly force, what does a supervisor do to investigate? (6 +)

A
  1. Access the video on scene in the presence of the involved officer(s).2. Record the citizen interview.3. Not record subject officer during the investigation.4. Review the video with the involved officer asa practical prior to use of force report being completed, if an involved officer is unavailable at the scene.5. Ensure review of BWC is documented in narrative. Video is labeled and categorised appropriately.6. Review position of camera to ensure it is appropriately placed.**if your officer captures a U of F of a specialized unit, coordinate with their Sgt the review prior to concluding at scene investigation
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59
Q

BWC: For an SOC, a Supervisor will:

A
  1. Interview complainant first when possible and record.
  2. Don’t record subject officer. 3. Access video on scene, COMPLAINANT DOESN’T SEE THIS! 4. Notate BWC available and was reviewed accordingly in SOC or contact…which ever is appropriate. 5. Take appropriate action if false reporting crimes unlawful (ICR and notify IAB criminal team).
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60
Q

BWC: officers have discretion to deactivate their camera, what are instances listed in policy? (4)

A
  1. At a request of a citizen, when appropriate. Record the request and your response. 2. A citizen with standing in a consensual residence. This may be a contingency. 3. Victims or witness when uncomfortable. Audio only may be an option.4. Be mindful of locations, worship, daycares, law offices.
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61
Q

BWC: OIS or use of deadly force, can officers view the footage?

A

Only for exigent circumstances, otherwise not until FIT/CIRT view it.

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62
Q

BWC: ois or use of deadly force, involved may view who’s prior to walkthrough or statement?Witness may view?

A

Involved: just their own. Witness: just their own.

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63
Q

BWC: on an ois or use of deadly force, who identifies and documents locations of BWCs on scene and requests deactivation when static?Who collects them for upload?

A

The IC ALSO makes sure they stay affixed in place on the employeeFIT FIT or CIRT uploads

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64
Q

Examples or when Sergeants may view BWC are:

A

During a policy required investigation.In Notes, must state reason for inspection and person requesting. Need advanced authorization from the LT or captain.

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65
Q

Bwc: who needs to approve footage being used for training? Outside of FTEP AOST and RBT?

A

The officer, BWC LT in coordination with the ODB commander.

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66
Q

If an officer is on an “admn stat” and is 5-10 minutes from a location, how do they advise en route?

A

AM

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67
Q

In reference to dispatches response category profile, SGTs will consider what to alter necessary units?

A

Knowledge of incident, location, and participants involved.

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68
Q

Communications can dispatch out of assigned area based on:(This is not sector or beat). This only occurs when units are unavailable.

A

Emergency OR supervisor approval.

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69
Q

Cadet/PSR request are handled between who?

A

Area sgts.

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70
Q

Out of jurisdiction, wanted or missing subjexcts, or to handle recovered stolen vehicles goes through:

A

Area LT, or if hold is placed by department.If a unit leaves, the field LT is notified.

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71
Q

For victims receiving medical, if call is during shift, who goes?

A

Unit from the sector of crime occurrence. If call is after the shift, Unit is dispatched from where ever victim is.

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72
Q

Not medical related, or victim leaves the area, who responds?

A

Units will respond in the area the victim is currently located. The arrest and crime scene falls on the units working the area of occurrence.

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73
Q

Plain clothes in area need to have a senior officer or supervisor notify?

A

Area command supervisor and communications supervisor.

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74
Q

Bureau non emergency requests of patrol are made how?Outside agency non routine requests are made how?

A

Bureau supervisor to field sgt.Comms Supervisor to LT.

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75
Q

When is a cit AAR done? 5

A
  1. Threats to police/others.
  2. Homeland security concerns.
  3. Violence involved.
  4. Weapons involved.
  5. Officer safety concerns
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76
Q

Pending calls: emergency calls may be dispatched up -Non emergency calls may be dispatched up to -

A

The end of shift 45 minutes to the end of shift

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77
Q

For any call, at blank minutes, a sgt will advise the pr of delay or offer other solutions

A

90

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78
Q

Unless unavailable, if a call is held or cancelled by a sgt, the sgt will:

A

Call the PR and explain and update the event

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79
Q

Crime scene and notifications: when detectives respond to a crime scene, who SHOULD respond and what will they provide?

A

The patrol supervisor, they will brief detectives or will designate an officer to.

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80
Q

Crime scene and notifications: For ISD level investigations, who, when available is requested to assist with the preliminary investigation and who will respond.

A

PD, if available will assist in the preliminary investigation and brief. A ranking supervisor will respond

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81
Q

Crime scene and notifications: for suspicious deaths/suicides, who needs to assess before homicide will come?

A

Crime scene analysts and the coroners investigators

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82
Q

Crime scene and notifications: Who notifies the FIT/CIRT LT via the communications supervisor?

A

The DSD or Patrol WC

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83
Q

Crime scene and notifications: FIT/CIRT WILL be notified for: 5&

A
  1. OIS.
  2. in custody death/SBH with police involvement.
  3. Use of deadly force.
  4. Force leading to critical injury.
    5 department members, during their duty, victim of a violent crime AND sustain critical injuries.

CIRT only: 405z at DSD, not gestures

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84
Q

Crime scene and notifications: First arriving officers will put YELLOW tape where?

A

Inner and outer perimeter

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85
Q

Crime scene and notifications: who places red tape?

A

Fit supervisor or designee.

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86
Q

Crime scene and notifications: to enter the red tape, who authorises?

A

A fit detective and CSI director/supervisor

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87
Q

Crime scene and notifications: when can crime scene walkthroughs happen?

A

After a CSA documents the scene and the investigating detective approves.

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88
Q

Crime scene and notifications: standard, how are CSAs requested?

A

Through communications

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89
Q

Crime scene and notifications: on all crimes where an investigative unit is responding or conducting a follow up investigation, what SHOULD be done?

A

A major incident log.

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90
Q

Crime scene and notifications: who responds to all major incidents/scenes and assumes command from patrol?

A

The Area SGT or LT.

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91
Q

Crime scene and notifications: who notifies the WC of the details of all major incidents/scenes?

A

The Area SGT

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92
Q

Crime scene and notifications: if preliminary investigating or follow up is needed, who assumes control of the investigation? And who maintains scene integrity (after consultation.

A

Detectives take the investigationsSupervisors coordinate available personnel for scene preservation.

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93
Q

Crime scene and notifications: when does patrol do impounds per this policy? 6

A
  1. Secondary locations
  2. They handled it.
  3. Safekeeping
  4. Large amounts
  5. Misdemeanor crimes.
  6. CSA not requested.
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94
Q

Crime scene and notifications: when do officers download photos into onbase?

A

Prior to end of shift

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95
Q

Crime scene and notifications: on homicides (any death or crime where death is probable) investigations, INTERVIEWS AND EVIDENCE collection will NOT be done by non homicide personnel unless approved by?

A

Homicide LT or designee

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96
Q

Crime scene and notifications: communications supervisor notifies coroner…give 3 breakdowns:

A
  1. Suicides, overdoses, natural or accidental: Patrol in charge.
  2. 420 or questionable: homicide detective in charge.
    3 FIT: FIT detective in charge.
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97
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: As Patrol responds to a vicious or aggressive dog, they WILL verify what with communications?

A

Animal control has been notified and is enrt

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98
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: What WILL communications inquire during a response?

A

If the dog is known, where his master lives.

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99
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: officers WILL NOT approach an aggressive dog unless:

A

It’s attacking or they believe it’s about to attack an officer, person, or animal.

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100
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: where are catch poles stored?

A

Supervisor vehicles.

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101
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: What is an ideal doggy Team?

A

SGT, officer with a pole, officer with a LL option (taser, OC, beanbagger) and lethal.

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102
Q

Domestic Dog Encounters: a catch pole has been deployed IN RESPONSE TO AN ANIMAL COMPLAINT CALL. What does the PRIMARY officer do?

A

Announce VIA RADIO the deployment, the dispatcher will update CAD. At the conclusion the primary officer will update CAD with its effectiveness.

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103
Q

Department VISION:

A

To be the safest community in America.

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104
Q

Department VALUES:

A

ICARE

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105
Q

Department MISSION:

A

Serve people,Strengthen relationships and, Improve quality of life.

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106
Q

Department GOALS:

A

Lead through empowerment and accountability.
Value our employees and those we serve.
Maximize trust, transparency and communication.
Protect the public through education, innovation, and enforcement.
Develop and enhance community relationships.

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107
Q

Foot Pursuit: officers initiating foot pursuit should broadcast the following information as soon as it becomes practical and available 5

A
  1. Unit identifier 2. Location and direction of travel. 3. Reason for the foot pursuit. 4. Number of subjects and description. 5. Whether the subject is known or believed to be armed.
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108
Q

Witness Identification: if video/audio is used for any line-up, the officer conducting the line-up will do what with the recording?

A

Impound it.

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109
Q

Witness Identification: Mug books generated by officers will not be shown to witnesses for identification purposes unless:

A

Specifically requested by the district attorneys office.

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110
Q

Witness Identification: the use of an independent administrator in a photo lineup is known as a BLANK method?

A

Double blind

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111
Q

Witness Identification: photo line ups will NOT be used as the sole basis of an arrest unless authorized by a BLANK -and approval of BLANK

A

Lieutenant The District Attorneys office

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112
Q

Witness Identification: sequential line ups may be used when the officer can not prepare a line up from:

A

The lvmpd mug shot system.

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113
Q

Witness Identification: sources for lineups may include:

A

Mug shots, yearbooks, dmv, or other.

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114
Q

Witness Identification: all photo line ups conducted WILL be BLANK, unless generated and electronically stored within the lvmpd mugshot system.

A

Impounded.

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115
Q

Witness Identification: how many fillers are in each lineup?

A

5

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116
Q

Witness Identification: the suspect will appear how many times in each line up? If more than one witness views (not at the same time) the photo positions will be BLANK.

A

1 timeThe photos will change positions.

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117
Q

Witness Identification: during a line up, the eyewitness describes how they recognize a suspect, this statement will be documented where?

A

Arrest or officers report.

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118
Q

Witness Identification: during a sequential line up, the witness identifies the suspect right away (2nd picture) the administrator will:The witness requests to see the 2nd picture one more time, the administrator will:

A
  1. Continue with the line up, show all pictures2. Do the whole line up again.
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119
Q

Witness Identification: when will the independent administrator be told which is the potential suspect?

A

The won’t, not before OR after the test!

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120
Q

Witness Identification: you want to do a live line up, who and when do you request this?

A

Booking lieutenant Prior to 1200 the day before

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121
Q

Witness Identification: during a live line up, who notifys the DA to attend, the suspects attorney, or the investigative bureau of release?

A

The booking LT

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122
Q

Witness Identification: for live line ups if there is only one eye witness who picks the order?If multiple who picks?

A

The suspect and attorneyThe detective will rearrange each line up.

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123
Q

Witness Identification: prior to each live lineup presentation, what is done?

A

It’s photographed.

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124
Q

Witness Identification: For live line up replacements, when is this done?

A

15 minutes prior

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125
Q

Witness Identification: live line up statements/results will be documented where?

A

Investigative case file, copies forwarded to the DA office.

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126
Q

Witness Identification: may the suspects attorney question a witness at a live line up?

A

No

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127
Q

Witness Identification: a show up should be done when a lineup is BLANK and in what timeframe following the incident?

A

Inappropriate or impractical.1-3 hours

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128
Q

Witness Identification: during a show up, does the 60 minute rule apply?Do you move the suspect?

A

60 minute applies.You SHOULDNT move the suspect…Search and seizure handbook: in extreme cases you may move the suspect to the victim. An example given was a 426 victim at a hospital who was being treated. It was reasonable to bring the suspect to the hospital while her memory was fresh…totally impractical to move the victim to the suspect.

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129
Q

Witness Identification: if one eyewitness makes a positive identification during a show up, and PC exists, what SHOULD be done with subsequent witnesses?

A

Photo line ups.

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130
Q

Witness Identification: For showups, regardless of outcome a Show-up witness instruction form will be completed in all what?

A

Felony crimes

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131
Q

Witness Identification: what does a supervisor do (per policy) for lineups? (4)

A
  1. Ensure lead detective selects a method (simultaneous/sequential)2. Ensure photos depict a likeness 3. Ensure positions change per viewer4.review package and paperwork at conclusion for completeness
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132
Q

418: In compliance with the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990, what is the waiting period to file a missing persons report with the LVMPD?

A

None

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133
Q

418: All Juvenile’s, 17 and younger, will be entered into NCIC within BLANK of receiving the required minimum data elements.

A

2 hours

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134
Q

418: Missing persons age 18-20 will be immediately entered into NCIC in accordance with the federally mandated Suzanne’s Law within BLANK hours of receiving the required minimum data elements.

A

2 hours

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135
Q

418: Adults (21+) can only be entered into NCIC if they have: (5)

A
  1. A disability
  2. Are in physical danger
  3. Involuntary circumstances
  4. Victim of a catastrophe
  5. Other suspicious circumstances
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136
Q

418: The BLANK must be added to P1 and/or CAD by the report taker then indicate the entry was complete. ALL JUVENILE REPORTS WILL CONTAIN THIS.

A

The NIC number

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137
Q

418: If entered into NCIC and subsequently located. What must be done?

A

You still do the report and you must cancel the NCIC record.

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138
Q

418: who has copies of juvenile reports and acts as the NV clearing house for missing children? When does LVMPD send reports to them?

A

The office of the attorney general.When requested (at their direction)

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139
Q

418: communications receives a 418 report. When do they dispatch patrol (6)

A
  1. Under the age or 12 or documented diminished mental capacity under 12.
  2. Physical/mental condition which hinders the ability to care for themselves, posing a significant risk of death or serious bodily harm
  3. Possible victim of foul play
  4. Actively threatening or attempting suicide
  5. Potential life threatening situation.
  6. Possession of a firearm or large amount of money.
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140
Q

418: If a juvenile is taken into protective custody, who must report them missing?

A

Whoever has custody, CPS, foster parent, etc.

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141
Q

418: when a missing person report involves a vehicle, who is immediately called?

A

WVS desk.

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142
Q

418: when a runaway report involves numerous NON-SIBLING juveniles (including at west care and child haven). what do they each get? (2)

A

A separate event number and P1 report.

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143
Q

418: when are multiple runaways listed in the same report?

A

Same parent/guardian or household…Again, West care and child haven are not a “household”

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144
Q

418: If after the preliminary investigation AND you have any one of these:
1. Under the age or 12 or documented diminish mental capacity under 12.
2. Physical/mental condition which hinders the ability to care for themselves, posing a risk of death or serious bodily harm.
3. Possible victim of foul play.
4. Actively threatening or attempting suicide.
5. Potential life threatening situation.
6. Possession of a firearm or large amount of money.
Who do you contact and notify?

A

A supervisor and the Missing persons detail.

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145
Q

418: what is the supervisors role on 418’s??

A
  1. Ensure P1 is complete.
  2. Ensure NCIC entries have a NIC.
  3. If you have
  4. Under the age or 12 or documented diminish mental capacity under 12.
  5. Physical/mental condition which hinders the ability to care for themselves, posing a risk of death or serious bodily harm
  6. Possible victim of foul play
  7. Actively threatening or attempting suicide
  8. Potential life threatening situation.
  9. Possession of a firearm or large amount of money.

Ensure Missing Persons was notified

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146
Q

418: If a missing person is not voluntarily missing and potentially a 420 victim, who notifies homicide?

A

MP detectives or SGTs. Not if it appears to be 405

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147
Q

418: Missing persons responds with their supervisor approval for (3)

A
  1. Info indicates death/substantial bodily harm is likely
  2. MP meets L2k criteria
  3. MP doesn’t meet criteria BUT is request by the patrol supervisor or WC
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148
Q

418: what is the criteria for an Amber Alert?

A
  1. Confirmed abduction
  2. Under 18
  3. Threat of serious bodily harm or death
  4. Have suspect or vehicle info
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149
Q

418: for alleged non-custodial parent abductions, the parent is enter listed under the same NCIC T/F?For straight parent and child missing together, the parent is listed under a DIFFERENT NCIC T/F?

A

Both true

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150
Q

418: mom goes hiking with her kids and they all disappear…probably eaten by a bear. How is everyone listed??

A

Everyone gets a separate NCIC entry and parent is list as a PWI for each kid. (Person with information)

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151
Q

418: when a missing kid (under 21) ages up and is still missing (becomes an adult). Who has the authority to remove/cancel them if they decide?

A

Missing persons detail.

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152
Q

418: when locating a juvenile and there are no criminal charges, who are they released to?

A

A legal guardian, Child haven, Westcare.

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153
Q

418: If a person is located not reported to the LVMPD, how does the patrol officer handle this?

A

Contact records, they will send a NCIC locate to the appropriate agency

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154
Q

421: patrol will not be dispatched on ROUTINE 421 calls unless:

A

Medical services requests

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155
Q

421: patrol will be dispatched on 421 calls which (5)

A
  1. Are suspicious in nature
  2. Related to unknown trouble calls
  3. Involve injuries as a result of criminal activity or traffic accident.
  4. Are the result of a gunshot.
  5. Other circumstances indicate a need for police involvement.
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156
Q

421: If an injured person is suffering from potential life threatening injury or substantial head trauma, what is done?

A

An ICR will be done and photos will be taken.

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157
Q

421: If officers respond that a structure and the sole occupant is transported they SHOULD:

A

Lock it or call an on call company to secure it if they can’t!

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158
Q

421: what are the manners of death? (5)

A
  1. Natural
  2. Accidental
  3. Homicide
  4. Suicide
  5. Undetermined
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159
Q

421: on suspicious deaths/ homicides. A patrol supervisor will:

A

Respond and confirm it’s is suspicious or related to a homicide. Ensure CSA has been requested. Ensure homicide has been notified

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160
Q

421: patrol officers will not begin an icr on a homicide or suspicious death unless:

A

Instructed by the detective.

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161
Q

421: what does a patrol officer and CSA respond to?

A

Any death not considered natural.

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162
Q

421: homicide DOES NOT need notifications for:

A
  1. Suicide
  2. Overdose
  3. Non suspicious
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163
Q

421: when homicide responds AND assume investigative responsibility, they confer with patrol and supervisor to determine:

A

Who completes the dead body incident report.

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164
Q

421: The dead body incident report will not be used to document a:

A

Homicide

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165
Q

421: who investigates all deaths other than homicide, in custody or suspicious:

A

Deputy Coroner Investigator

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166
Q

421: on a 419, all personal property is impounded by:

A

Deputy coroner or PA, not LVMPD

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167
Q

421: A F/A used in a suicide will be impounded as evidence by?All other firearms are the responsibility of?Officers may impound others as?

A

CSAs. Coroner/PA, Safekeeping: detail on property report a THREAT to LIFE/SAFETY

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168
Q

421: vehicle of a dead body, we only tow if:

A

The vehicle is a hazard in the roadway

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169
Q

421: If the coroner is securing a structure we:

If we damage the structure:

A

MAY stay on scene until secure.

WILL call the on call company and standby.

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170
Q

421: abuse neglect LT will be notified on:

A

All child related deaths

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171
Q

421: on all events related to the death of a child, a _____ _____ and a ______ will be dispatched?

A

A patrol officer and a supervisor

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172
Q

421: on child deaths, a patrol supervisor will:

A

Respond. Ensure CSA has been requested. Ensure homicide and/or AN has been requested.

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173
Q

421: on child deaths in hospitals with any concern of AN, who determines if they can have access or keepsakes?

A

Lead Investigating sergeant

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174
Q

BWC: commissioned police officers, of any rank, when assigned a device, will wear their camera at all times:

A

While in their respective uniform.

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175
Q

BWC: wearers will wear their BWC on their BLANK shoulder.

A

Non-weapon bearing

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176
Q

BWC: what does ETM stand for?

A

Evidence Transfer Manager

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177
Q

BWC: Officers will document the existence of a BWC where?

A

P1 and cite narratives, FIs, investigative reports, arrest documents. MDT closing comments

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178
Q

BWC: in addition to U of F and SOCs, what’re supervisors expected to routinely do with body cams? (5)

A
  1. Ensure policy is being followed.
  2. Conduct routine inspections of the wear method (correct shoulder, not blocked by uniform)
  3. Put malfunctioning cameras on the ETM, issue an entirely new camera (cord, pack, controller) and assign in evidence.com
  4. Retrieve and upload BWC for officers unable to do so by end of shift.
  5. Access BWCs in accordance with policy, if no access, contact another supervisor, PD, ISD, or BWC. Ensure marked with retention categories.
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179
Q

BWC: officers will activate the BWC as soon as a call is initiated via radio and/or MDT, they may deactivate if the event concludes prior to arrival or not activate until arrived if at what percent??Who doesn’t activate within 2 miles??

A

Less than 20% K9, Traffic, resident, unless code 3. Swat activates at individual deployment

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180
Q

BWC: Officers have the discretion to deactivate the BWC when:

A

The privacy concerns outweigh law enforcement interests and the absence of a BWC recording will not affect the investigation.

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181
Q

BWC: The decision to deactivate a BWC should be:

A

Stated prior to deactivation.

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182
Q

BWC: if an officer has a malfunction with their camera, what do they do individually?

A

Document the malfunction in an email to the body camera section

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183
Q

BWC: supply accounts for all cameras through the BLANK tracking system?

A

WASP

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184
Q

BWC: training exceptions of the BWC are (3)

A

FTEP, AOST, RBT, SWAT after action reviews

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185
Q

BWC: at mass demonstrations, crowd control, and riots, who directs the usage of a BWC?

A

The IC

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186
Q

BWC: during a special event, an officer who s involved in an incident requiring an upload (pursuit, use of force, soc). I’d beyond the end of the shift, Events Planning will add how long to the end of the shift?

A

30 minutes.

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187
Q

BWC: working OT at the jail, where is the camera kept?

A

Gun locker

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188
Q

BWC: working OT at hospital you will be assigned to an event. Hospitals or transports at the beginning what is done?

A

A short video explaining your role then deactivate. Activate at the hospital if there are issues or adverse contact. Record the entirety for a transport.

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189
Q

BWC: at the airport, officers will use extra caution for?

A

Cover code pads and look away from entering codes

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190
Q

BWC: access to evidence.com and data stored is permitted on a:

A

Right-to-know and need-to-know basis.

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191
Q

BWC: news release of BWC is governed by which policy (primarily)

A

News media and public information.

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192
Q

BWC: at the area command, to download, disseminate, copy, record BWC, who approves…The Who gives expressed written permission?

A

General counsel. The PIO Bureau commander

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193
Q

BWC: auto label: A/D

A

10 years

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194
Q

BWC: auto label: B/E

A

5 years

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195
Q

BWC: auto label: C/K/L/P/Q/T/Z

A

1 year

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196
Q

BWC: auto label: F/G/H/I/J/M/O/RS

A

90 days

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197
Q

BWC: short-term (non-BWC evidence)

A

4 years

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198
Q

BWC: mid-term (risk management, legal, 401)

A

7 years

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199
Q

BWC: long term (OIS, SA, etc.)

A

20 years

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200
Q

BWC: indefinite

A

Homicide, pending, NPRA, training.

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201
Q

BWC: what’re the two compliance aspects?

A

Activation performance rate (apr) and % of assigned time recorded

202
Q

BWC: a “status report” is given around BLANK. A monthly compliance is given around the BLANK

A

19th 5th

203
Q

BWC: for non compliance, a contact isn’t given until:

A

Review of the report, videos and CAD. Then the contact will document all conversations and compliance or noncompliance

204
Q

BWC: all initial camera assignments will be through?

A

Logistics supply section.

205
Q

Driving: supervisors shall conduct periodic spot inspections of vehicles assigned to their personnel at least :

A

Monthly

206
Q

FFE: The use of a dispersal order MUST be authorized by the:

A

Incident Commander

207
Q

FFE: Who provides tactical options to extricate Locked protestors?

A

Saturation Team Supervisor

208
Q

FFE:Who is in primary command of a protest/field force extrication?

A

The Incident Commander

209
Q

FFE:Who does the AAR for a FFE?

A

Saturation Team Supervisor

210
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Officer knight is a self-reported alcohol abuser. He participates in MANDATORY treatment and is on a last chance agreement. He is subjected to unannounced testing for how long?

A

2 years

211
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Drug test results are provided to the member by:

A

The MRO in the first 24 hours…then IAB. SUPERVISORS ONLY: MRO in 24 hours, then to CIRT and CIRT notifies IAB. MRO discusses results…IAB will provide results

212
Q

Drug Free Workplace: After a reasonable suspicion test sample is collected, the member will be released to the custody of a:

A

Supervisor

213
Q

Drug Free Workplace: If physical manifestations of impairment are present, a commissioned supervisor will have the member perform SFSTs before at least _____#_____ members.

A

2

214
Q

Drug Free Workplace: For a reasonable suspicion test, the supervisor and IAB document the RS on an:

A

SOC in Blue Team

215
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Prescriptions must be renewed:

A

Annually - at a minimum, or prior to an expiration 14 days, 30 days etc if not annual/continual.

216
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Members having __________________ that another member is ILLEGALLY in possession, manufacturing, etc a controlled substance will immediately report the facts and circumstances to their supervisor.

A

Reasonable suspicion

217
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Members who unintentionally ingest a controlled substance will immediately:

A

Report the incident to their supervisor

218
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Sleeping on duty is:

A

Prohibited

219
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Your officer states they “wish they were dead”. This is an overt act IF they:

A

Have a plan for action

220
Q

Drug Free Workplace: A BAC at or above ________ May be grounds for discipline or termination.

A

.02

221
Q

Drug Free Workplace: Officer jones tells you he plans to 401 after work hoping the crash will kill him. You want to place jones on relief of duty, you will consult _______1________ or ________2_________ in 1’s absence

A
  1. The bureau commander2. The WC
222
Q

EIIP: Who does a supervisor contact for an employee performance review?

A

EIIP

223
Q

EIIP:Supervisors receive EIIP alerts via:

A

Email

224
Q

EIIP: _________ are calculated over a rolling 60 months.

A

Firearms discharges

225
Q

EIIP:Only __________ and the __________ have access to the employees dashboard

A

The employee, The employees chain of command

226
Q

EIIP: __________ indicates a threshold has been reached or surpassed

A

Red

227
Q

EIIP:__________ requests do not affect the employees dashboard.

A

Citizen review board requests

228
Q

EIIP:Any supervisory action taken is informal, flexible, and __________

A

Confidential

229
Q

EIIP:EIIP identifies trends and patterns before they become risks and liabilities for the __________ and the _____________

A

The department, the employee

230
Q

EIIP:EIIP is the LVMPDs ________ approach to addressing employee performance problems

A

Non - disciplinary

231
Q

EIIP:EIIP is part of the departments larger effort to support and improve:

A

Employee performance

232
Q

EIIP stands for:

A

Early Identification and Intervention Program

233
Q

CSI: abuse/neglect will be notified for all:

A
  1. Child/elder substantial injuries as a result of abuse/neglect.
  2. All child deaths
  3. Elder (60+) deaths as a result of abuse/neglect
234
Q

CSI: when do CO personnel investigate gestures?Where do the results go?

A

When the clear intent was not to commit suicide AND there are no significant injuries. The CIRT LT

235
Q

CSI: if needed, who will request PD to DSD for a preliminary investigation?

A

The on call FIT/CIRT LT.

236
Q

CSI: If a crime involves a dignitary or politician, who is notified?

A

Criminal Intelligence Section LT or designee

237
Q

445:Who investigates bomb threats and extortions as well as found or suspected devices?

A

ARMOR

238
Q

445:Who is the primary agency for all terrorist incidents?

A

FBI

239
Q

445:All decisions regarding compliance with extortion demands will be made by:

A

The representative of the establishment

240
Q

445:For a bomb threat, if the PR insists a police response is NOT necessary an ______ will be taken.

A

IO report

241
Q

445:On a bomb threat, the officer should make updates via:

A

MDT or Land line. Radios could trigger a bomb

242
Q

445:For a suspected or known explosive device, department personnel will NOT:

A

Touch move or handle in any way

243
Q

445:At a located device__________ will be in command of the primary location and all personnel assigned to it.

A

Ranking CBRNE member.

244
Q

445:Explosive device media released is conferred among: (4)

A
  1. ARMOR supervisor
  2. CT captain or LT
  3. FBI Or
    4 .ATF
245
Q

445:If a death occurs from a bomb, _____________ will do the death investigation ____________ will do the post blast investigation.

A

Homicide, ARMOR

246
Q

445:Other than small samples, will CSI handle or impound live explosives?

A

No, they will “refrain”

247
Q

445:For in-depth CSA cases, who may be contacted?

A

BATF special teams

248
Q

All hazard: EMS will ensure ____________ training is provided to all affected personnel and may include any of the necessary exercise components.

A

Annual

249
Q

All hazard: All commissioned officers must complete ICS 100, 200, and 700 with in:

A

The first year of employment.

250
Q

All hazard: command will be established by:

A

The most qualified officer, regardless of rank, physically on scene.

251
Q

All hazard: shift WC’s ______________ assume an IC position.

A

Should not

252
Q

All hazard: when a command post is established it will 1 and 2.

A
  1. Be given a unique name

2. Be broadcast to control.

253
Q

All hazard: for large scale, multi-jurisdictional events with various area commands to ensure LIP, where do ORs get submitted to?

A

Records Bureau, but not if you used deadly force

254
Q

All hazard: who ensures a supervisor is notified and en route to a all hazard emergency?

A

1st arriving officers

255
Q

All hazard: all requests for regional, state or federal resources are made through:

A

The Emergency Management Section.

256
Q

All hazard: officers and supervisors will arrive at an incident and:

A

Exercise radio discipline, remaining off channel. Hit arrived on the MDT.

257
Q

All hazard:Who arranges for psychological support and counseling for members as appropriate?

A

PEAP

258
Q

Hostage: In the case of hostage takers. The department will through all means attempt 1 and 2

A

1 The safe rescue of hostages

2. Apprehensions of the hostage taker.

259
Q

Barricade:An incident involving an _______ suicidal subject is a barricade incident.

A

Armed

260
Q

Barricade: The ___________ in whose area an incident occurs shall be in primary command of all police operations in a barricade incident.

A

Patrol supervisor

261
Q

Hostage and barricade (identical for both): The recorder maintained an a chronological log of events to update the ________________ of personnel assigned.

A

Patrol division supervisor

262
Q

Hostage:Once the. _____1_______ arrives, they will assume command of tactical ops, inner perimeter control and will coordinate contact via _______2________ the _______3_________ will assume command of logistical/support concerns.

A
  1. Swat commander and team
  2. CNT
  3. Patrol supervisor
263
Q

Social media: Department members are _______________ from disclosing information pertaining to any other member of the department without permission of _____________. This includes “tagging” in text or photos.

A

Prohibited. The affected member.

264
Q

Vehicle collisions:If you respond to investigate, you WILL activate your BWC until:You will categorize it as:This will be retained for:

A

Until the investigation is complete.“Pending review”5 years per this policy…NOTE: this doesn’t jive with the BWC policy

265
Q

Social media:Topics of public concern include employment/personnel matters or information learned in the course of employment.T/F

A

False. Must be public and not arising from the course of employment

266
Q

418:For NCIC entry, Missing persons must be under one of the following categories:JIVED-O

A 
Juvenile 20 and below
Involuntary circumstances
Victim of a catastrophe 
Endangered - physical danger
Disability
Other suspicious circumstances
267
Q

418-For NCIC entries, it is mandatory to list the ____________ and ______________

A

TYPE: amber alert (AA) Child abduction (under 21) (CA )Disaster victim (DV) Missing person (MP) And CIRCUMSTANCES: Abducted non custodial (N) Abducted stranger (S) Adult, federally require (F) Runaway (R)

268
Q

418When a patrol officer is dispatched to a 418, they will record in CAD:

A

When the minimum data elements were obtained

269
Q

418:A person of interest is Listed as:

A

A person with information

270
Q

418:For violations of family court visitation, officers can complete:

A

A contact card and refer them to the admin office of family court

271
Q

418:PWIs are not listed:

A

Under separate NCICs

272
Q

418: Who is consulted for prosecution purposes for parental abductions:(Who do detectives consult)

A

Nevada attorney generals office

273
Q

421:Inmate in custody deaths occur at:

A

North valley complex
CCDC
Medical facility

274
Q

Voice radio communications:The 492 code will only be used by:

A

Resident officers. You must be assigned to an existing event or have dispatch assign you to one and go “to other”

275
Q

Voice radio communications: IDF code stands for:

A

Incident disposition function.

276
Q

Voice radio communications: on the mdt, on mileage is out under: Off mileage is in comments of:

A

To otherStat clear

277
Q

Voice radio communications:Phonetic alphabet will be used in all cases where:

A

License plate numbers are broadcast.NOT for streets, businesses, etc unless a doubt exists

278
Q

Voice radio communications: when will covert or UCs respond to a patrol call?

A

When requested or if a crime occurs in their presence. They should not respond or leave their vehicle on scene until they notify communications and communications advises them they’re aware

279
Q

CBRNE:Who is the lead agency for all WMD/CBRNE incidents?

A

FBI

280
Q

CBRNE: When is the Clark County Mass Casualty Plan implemented?

A

If an incident results in MORE THAN 20 casualties

281
Q

CBRNE: Who inventories equipment for safekeeping or destruction of it cannot be fully decontaminated?

A

The supervisor.

282
Q

Driving: Officers discovering damage to their vehicle will report this via??

A

Officers report prior to end of shift

283
Q

Driving: Supervisors shall conduct _____________ inspections of vehicles assigned to their personnel. Deficiencies or corrective actions will be recorded in a:

A

Monthly. Contact.

284
Q

CBRNE: Who commands the outer perimeter and traffic control?

A

Senior traffic supervisor on scene.

285
Q

SOCIAL MEDIA: Department social media pages shall be approved be a __________ and forwarded to the _______ for registry

A

DC or designee. PIO. The PIO will also identify the officer or position responsible for maintaining it.

286
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Is a supervisor REQUIRED to respond to the scene of a death which a patrol officer is on and appears to be natural?

A

Supervisor WILL“Respond to the scene (unless death appears to be natural) and confirm with the patrol officer the death is not suspicious or the result of a homicide”

287
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Who will be contacted regarding the any death of a person of media interest, child deaths related to physical violence or a LVMPD employee/family member?

A

Homicide Lt. Or designee

288
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: T/F: a dead body report may be used to document a homicide?

A

FALSE: A DBR “Will not be used”

289
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: What are the only times LVMPD will deal with property on a dead body call?

A
  1. The firearm used in a suicide call (by CSI)
  2. Other firearms May be impounded for safekeeping IF a threat to life or safety exists (documented in the narrative portion of a property report)
  3. Vehicles which are causing a hazard on a roadway
290
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Who will be notified on all child related deaths?(Child means someone less than 18)

A

The A/N Lt.

291
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Who makes the decision on whether family members can hold the deceased child or collect keepsakes?

A

“The lead investigating sergeant”

292
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Supervisors duties on a deceased child?(3)

A

Respond to the scene
Ensure CSA has been requested
Ensure 420 detail and/or AN has been requested

293
Q

Dispatch of units on 421 or deaths: Who will be contacted on all in custody deaths?

A

The FIT Lt.

294
Q

Recertification for the dog catchpole will occurs:

A

Annually

295
Q

Crime scene: An officer locates evidence of a crime outside of the crime scene. They are responsible for the impound unless it is a: (what 2 specific scenes?)

A
  1. Homicide

2. FITor in any circumstance where it would be in the best interest for CSI to impound or special handling

296
Q

Crime scene: All deaths or injuries where death is probable will be treated as a _____________ until the investigation determines otherwise.

A

Homicide

297
Q

What does ARMOR stand for?

A

All hazard multi-agency operations and response

298
Q

What (besides explosives) can EDD’s locate?

A

Firearms and ammo

299
Q

445:What is contained in a 5-line report?CPT-LD

A

Contact info of unit on sceneProtective measures takenThreatened infrastructureLocation of the deviceDescription of the device

300
Q

Dog Encounters: During response to any call OTHER THAN an animal complaint, what does the primary officer do?

A

Notify dispatch, the dispatcher will update CAD. At the conclusion the primary officer will update CAD with its effectiveness.

301
Q

Drug free workplace:What is an illicit drug?

A

Schedule 1

302
Q

STAR: who will REQUEST a Sgt or LT to respond if the area supervisor is unavailable?

A

Communications, the area Sgt will ENSURE they do this.

303
Q

PEAP manual: a supervisor makes time each ___________ to meet with employees

A

Month

304
Q

PEAP MANUAL: When should a supervisor make an IMMEDIATE PEAP notification:

A

Victim of a person crime
Arrested for a crime
Stressful incident during work shift

305
Q

ARMOR: when WILL ARMOR be called:

A

When the on scene supervisor or IC determines a suspicious object is a suspected explosive device

306
Q

Drug free workplace:How long until an Employee Crisis Intervention Form and professional assessment is purged?

A

5 years

307
Q

Who investigates death caused by an explosive device?

A

Homicide. ARMOR is still responsible for the blast scene/investigation

308
Q

ALL HAZARD:_____ was developed so responders from different jurisdictions and disciplines can work together better to respond to natural disasters and man made emergencies.

A

NIMS

309
Q

ALL HAZARD:___________is the standard tool used for command, control, response coordination, and overall management of complex incidents, preplanned events and/or emergencies. This system permits a clear point of command and can be expanded or contracted with ease to escalating or diminishing situations.

A

ICS

310
Q

ALL HAZARD:____________is a team effort that allows all agencies with jurisdictional responsibility for an incident, either geographical or functional, to participate in the management of an incident. All agencies with jurisdictional authority or functional responsibility for any or all aspects of an incident, as well as those who provide specific resource support, participate in the _____

A

UNIFIED COMMAND, UNIFIED COMMAND (it repeats)

311
Q

ALL HAZARD:Specific tactical procedures are detailed throughout the department manual for designated incidents (such as bomb threats, hostage situations, aircraft accidents, etc.) must be handled separately from the procedures set out in the all hazards policy?T/F

A

F Procedures for bombs etc, must be used in “conjunction” with the all hazards procedures.

312
Q

ALL HAZARD:______________is the principal advisor to the department on unusual occurrences, planning for response to “all hazard” situations, and coordinating emergency plans internally and externally

A

Emergency Management

313
Q

ALL HAZARD:all commissioned officers must complete ICS 100, ___, and 700 within the first year of employment. Sergeants must complete ICS ___upon promotion, These courses establish the foundation and key concepts for establishing and maintaining the ____sections of ICS.

A

200, 300, FIVE

314
Q

ALL HAZARD:T/F: Command will be established by the highest ranking officer available in the fusion center who has access to video etc?

A

Command will be established by the most QUALIFIED officer, REGARDLESS OF RANK, who is physically ON SCENE

315
Q

ALL HAZARD: T/F: Wherever possible, WC’s should assume the IC role

A

FALSE “shift watch commanders SHOULD NOT assume the position unless absolutely necessary to allow for continued oversight of the remainder of the jurisdiction”.

316
Q

ALL HAZARD:T/F: shift watch commanders should not assume the position unless absolutely necessary to allow for continued oversight of the remainder of the jurisdiction.

A

TRUE

317
Q

ALL HAZARD:T/F: Whenever command is transferred it will be done so via CAD or AM so dispatch has an electronic record.

A

FALSE WILL be done over the air.

318
Q

ALL HAZARD:Identify 5 of the major steps identified as guidelines when managing all hazard incidents:FYI, there are 15 listed in policy

A
  • Ensure Officer and Public Safety
  • Conduct a Situation Assessment and update Dispatch
  • Establish on-scene command by implementing the Incident Command System (ICS), establishing an Incident Command Post and naming it
  • Establish Communication Channels (see 5/106.13, Joint Use of Interoperable Radio Frequencies)
  • Establish Staging Area(s) (Police, Fire, Medical, and Media)
  • Establish a Perimeter Control Plan (Inner/Outer)• Consider the Need for Additional Resources
  • Determine and Maintain Ingress/Egress Routes for First Responders
  • Coordinate/Assist in an Evacuation/Shelter in Place
  • Determine Evacuation Transportation and Destination
  • Request the Public Information Officer (PIO)
  • Preserve the Scene for Evidentiary Purposes
  • Maintain an Operations Log
  • Develop Incident Action Plan (formal or informal)
  • Notification of additional public safety departments and other resources.
319
Q

ALL HAZARDT/F: When taking command of an incident, “IC” is added to the end of the IC’s call sign. For example, 673Z becomes 673ZIC

A

FALSE You do add IC, but drop special unit designators such as “Z”, “N” etc. In this case the correct call sign would be 673IC

320
Q

ALL HAZARDT/F: The CP will given a unique name and broadcast to control

A

True

321
Q

ALL HAZARDWhat are the top three priorities in all incidents:

A
  1. Life safety.
  2. Incident stabilization.
  3. Property preservation.
322
Q

ALL HAZARDUnits from neighboring area commands will NOT self dispatch UNLESS…..

A

The incident occurs within close proximity to the border between the area commands and the officer is also already within close proximity to the incident.

323
Q

ALL HAZARD:If the incident is a large-scale, multi-jurisdictional event with various area commands or bureaus needed to ensure life safety, stabilize the incident, and preserve property then every department member (commissioned and civilian) involved in any capacity of the incident will complete an officer’s report UNLESS

A

“If an officer uses deadly force they will not complete an officer’s report”

324
Q

ALL HAZARDIf a dedicated channel is going to be used during an all hazard incident it will be a…..

A

8-Call/8-Tac channel

325
Q

ALL HAZARDT/F: When a sergeant arrives on an incident which a PO has already taken charge of, the sergeant will always take command.

A

On less complex incidents the sergeant may choose to leave the patrol officer in command and mentor the officer through the process for educational purposes. The sergeant will ensure that the decisions made by the officer in the position of incident commander are sound and within the guidelines of department policy before allowing them to be implemented.

326
Q

ALL HAZARDAny sergeant who assumes the role of IC during an all hazard incident will complete an AAR within _____ and forward it to _____

A

10 days. Emergency Management Section. Only one AAR is necessary for each event.

327
Q

ALL HAZARDSupervisors/Officers Arriving Subsequently will report to who?

A

The staging area manager for deployment orders

328
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEA blood or breath alcohol content above ________ at the time of testing, may be grounds for discipline or termination.

A

.02

329
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEIdentify this definition:“The condition resulting from ingesting a substance to the degree than renders a member incapable of effectively performing his job duties”

A

Impairment

330
Q

If a RS test comes back with a detected level of an illicit controlled substance but the level is BELOW the threshold limits identified by the department, how is the test reported?

A

“None detected”

331
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEAny of the following acts/information will give the department _________________.1.observable phenomena 2.a pattern of abnormal conduct or erratic behavior3.arrest or conviction for a drug or alcohol related offense, or info that the member is the focus of a criminal investigation into drug use/trafficking.4. Any other information provided by reliable and credible sources, including a positive department administered drug test or information of tampering with a drug test

A

Reasonable suspicion

332
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEA member who is struggling to stay awake while on duty must_______

A

Advise his direct supervisor who will determine the proper course of action

333
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEIs the odor of an alcoholic Beveridge on a member or identifiable impairment enough to conduct a FST and/or blood/breath test?

A

Yes

334
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEYou are on duty in plain clothes, can you buy a beer before the end of your shift so you can drink it at home when you get off work?

A

No

335
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEYou are OFF DUTY but in uniform.Can you buy a beer to take home and drink?

A

No

336
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEMay members associate with persons who are legally using marijuana under state law?

A

YESBut the do so at their own risk and if they test positive then they are subject to termination.

337
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEMembers who unintentionally ingest or who are made to ingest an illicit/controlled substance will immediately report the incident to______

A

Their supervisor.

338
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEOTC medications…1. Can you take more than the recommended dose of an OTC medication?2. Can you be sustained for showing up to work drowsy on OTC medications alone?

A
  1. NO 2. YES
339
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Do members have to notify health detail of ALL medications which they are prescribed?

A

NO. Only the ones which have the potential to cause impairment while on duty.

340
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a prescription is reported to health detail with a term on its use (such as take 2 pills a day every day for 30 days) and no other information is provide. Will the member have an approval to take the medication after the 30 days?

A

NO

341
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACENotification/renewal of medication use must be renewed _______ with the health detail

A

Annually

342
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEDoes the department recognize medical marijuana cards, prescribed by a physician?

A

NO

343
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEMay members use any medication at all, prescribed by a doctor where THC is a component?

A

NO

344
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEA member is being brought in for a RS drug/alcohol test.Are they entitled to have a union rep present for the test?

A

YES

345
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEMembers suspected of being under the influence will be taken to IAB ________

A

Unarmed

346
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEDoes the RS testing process apply to criminal investigations?

A

NO

347
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEFor an RS test, who completes the “summary of facts” section of the RS document?

A

The reporting supervisor

348
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACEThe RS for a RS test will be documented on a….

A

SOC

349
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE: Which of the following are NOT grounds for a RS test:

  1. Information from a reliable source regarding use etc.
  2. The use of force, or serious on duty injury to the member or another person
  3. Vehicle accidents
  4. Reduced productivity, high absenteeism.
  5. Visual observation of physical manifestations
A

ALL of the above are valid per policy

350
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACECommissioned supervisors will have _____ (number of) witnesses to a FST.

A

TWO

351
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Are the employees name recorded on a RS sample?

A

NO NAMES ON SAMPLES

352
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If the member is suspected of using illicit drugs, the bureau commander will place the employee on___________________ status pending the results of the drug test.

A

ROD. They stay on ROD status if the test comes back positive.

353
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If an RS test comes back as positive for a non-illicit drug… their bureau commander may return the member to ____________ after consultation with the risk manager.

A

Modified duty

354
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a RS test comes back positive, how long does a member have to request an independent analysis of the “E” sample?

A

72 hours from being initially notified they have to inform the department MRO.

355
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE: RS testing: Say a member is assigned to patrol, but is TDY to narcs. IF Narcs gets called for RS testing, does the member get RS tested because of the TDY or is he exempt because he is on TDY?

A

“members who are assigned TDY will be tested with their TDY squad”

356
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE When does the member have a choice on WHICH sample they provide (blood/urine/hair)

A

For RS tests, the department decides. For random tests, the member decides.

357
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Members Are permitted to get independent samples collected after the conclusion of a department random test, if the member wants to get an independent test what do they need to do:

A
  1. Get supervisory approval (which is based on department manpower needs).
  2. Submit a leave request.
  3. Pay for the test at their own expense.
358
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Per the PMSA contract, supervisors are subject to alcohol and drug testing immediately following what types of incidents (2 kinds)

A
  1. Use of deadly force (excluding an animal shoot) but including an AD which occurs DURING A POLICE OPERATION in which the supervisor is the shooter.
  2. A department 401 where the supervisor is considered at fault and death or SBH occurs - Includes PBT testing!
359
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE For supervisor testing only:Can they choose to provide hair for a test after the use of DF or a 401?

A

NO HAIR but they can choose between blood or urine.

360
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE According to policy, whom may a member self report themselves as an abuser of alcohol or prescription drugs to?

A

Their chain of command or an association rep

361
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a member self reports being an alcohol or prescription drugs abuser, what are they subject to?

A

A last chance agreement and unannounced testing for a 2 year period. The last chance agreement will stay on file for the rest of the members employment under the same purging conditions as a major discipline. After the purge it will be taken out of the personnel file and placed in a separate file.

362
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE True or false:It is the policy of the department to identify and support the member who’s behavior on duty only provides evidence that he may be a threat to himself or others to ensure safety in the workplace.

A

FALSE Applies to both on and off duty behavior

363
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Employee in crisis :If an employee makes an overt act to harm himself or others, is the procedure set out in this policy mandatory or elective?

A

MANDATORY

364
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE If a member is determined to be a potential risk of harming themselves or others, what duty status shall they be placed on?

A

Administrative leave

365
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Member in crisis:On the ROD/temporary form, should the words “member crisis intervention” be placed on the form?

A

NO (In order to ensure confidentiality)

366
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Member in crisis:What information is provided to PEAP and the applicable association?

A

Nothing more than, “an incident as defined by this procedure (employee in crisis) has occurred”

367
Q

DRUG FREE WORKPLACE Employee in crisis:What paperwork is completed by the immediate supervisor under the employee in crisis policy?

A

“Employee crisis intervention form” And A memo (if appropriate) with supporting information forwarded through the chain to the bureau commander

368
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES This policy creates a separate way of making notifications other than what is prescribed in 5/101.52 criminal violations by LE employees

A

FALSE ALL notifications remain the same

369
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If an employee is subject to an extended order for protection and is required to carry a 413… who is responsible for storing it while the member is off duty?

A

Bureau commander or designee

370
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If an employee is subject to an extended protection order, can they carry a personally owned firearm on duty?

A

YES As long as it is “department authorized” and only while in performance of duties

371
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES Under this section, the employees immediate supervisor will address the employees behavior through: 1._________ and/or 2.__________

A
  1. Discipline 2. Counseling, training or care programs
372
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES True or false:It is the policy of the department to deal with DUI/DV offenders through administrative sanctions and court specified remedies.

A

True

373
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If a member is served with a TPO, who keeps his firearm?

A

The employee does. It’s only Extended protection orders which require turning in guns

374
Q

DV AND DUI VIOLATIONS BY EMPLOYEES If discipline is reduced due to completion of court-referred treatment, does the original designation remain?

A

YES But it is amended to “40 hours suspension, reduced to a 20 hour suspension with option, plus 20 hours in abeyance due to the completion of a court referral program”Immediate supervisor also has he responsibility to coordinate any voluntary follow up care for the employee through PEAP

375
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If a citizen wishes to report a criminal violation by a department member, whom shall they be directed to?

A

The employees area Lt, a watch commander, bureau/area commander or the criminal investigations section

376
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES___________ will be notified, through the chain of command ASAP of any member of this or any other department that is charged or accused of a criminal violation

A

The Sheriff

377
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES Upon being notified of a LE employee being charged etc is in progress or has just occurred, who does a supervisor notify?

A

WC

378
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If a LE employee is detained, charged etc who does the immediate supervisor notify?

A

WC OR the CIS supervisor

379
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If LE criminal activity is discovered during a long term covert investigation, who is notified?

A

CIS supervisor. If this happens, the CIS BC will be responsible for chain notifications to the sheriff.

380
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If a LE employee is suspected of DUI, who is notified on top of CIS?

A

Traffic supervisor

381
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If CIS responds to a call, who is responsible for ALL tests, interviews etc?

A

CIS supervisor

382
Q

CRIMINAL VIOLATIONS BY LE EMPLOYEES If CIS declines responding, but a crime is still suspected.Who is responsible for the field work?

A

The appropriate investigative/patrol unit

383
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: Who notifies the IAB LT for an LVMPD employee detained, charged, associating, or accused of a crime?

A

The WC

384
Q

Criminal Violations by LE:As a Sgt. You will notify the WC or CIS supervisor when any LE employee is the victim of a ____________ crime or other crime of ____________

A

Felony Violence

385
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: You are a Sgt of CC12, Officer Jones calls you on your dept cell and says he just went 467 on Chris Knight and he’s clearly “409”. You will immediately notify:

A

The WC: In progress or has just occurred. The WC will notify CIS and the traffic supervisor.

386
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: The ______________ will be notified through the chain of command as soon as practical, of any member of LVMPD or another LE agency is charged with or accused of a crime ( except minor traffic)

A

Sheriff

387
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: Any citizen desiring to report a criminal violation involving a department member, will be referred to the employees:

A
  1. Area LT
  2. WC
  3. Bureau Commander
  4. CIS One of the above
388
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: The provisions of NRS 289 ____________ apply to any investigation concerning alleged criminal activities.

A

Do not

389
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: It is LVMPD policy to deal with such employees through a wide range of _____________ and when appropriate with additional ________ and ___________.

A

Discipline, Training and Assistance programs

390
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: Who is notified if an employees criminal act results in loss of property, equipment, or money belonging to the department or other citizen/entity?

A

Risk manager

391
Q

Criminal Violations by LE: Who notifies the chain up to the sheriff of a covert investigation?

A

The IAB commander.

392
Q

Criminal violations by LE: An officer notified their immediate supervisor when they are ___________ or ____________ of a crime. Regardless of jurisdiction, (except minor traffic)

A

Charged or accused

393
Q

EIIP Do CRB requests affect an employees dashboard?

A

NO!

394
Q

EIIP What do the following colors on an employees dashboard mean?GREEN YELLOW RED

A

Green - no identified issues
Yellow - one incident away from reaching an identified threshold
Red - a threshold has been reached or surpassed

395
Q

EIIP How often are EIIP thresholds adjusted?

A

Annually - by the EIIP sergeant. Changes must be approved by the IAB bureau commander

396
Q

EIIP What are the time frames used when calculating alert thresholds?

A

A rolling year. With the exception of firearm discharges which are a rolling 60 months

397
Q

Do supervisory thresholds appear on the dashboard?

A

No

398
Q

How often are supervisors required to review their employees dashboard?

A

Monthly. And respond to alerts within 14 calendar days of the email alert notification.

399
Q

EIIP What are a supervisors duties relating to EIIP?

A
  1. Review dashboard on a monthly basis.
  2. Receive EIIP alert through blue team via email
  3. Request EPR summary from EIIP for review
  4. consult with second line supervisor
  5. Meet face with employee to discuss alert
  6. If no pattern, complete alert in BT and forward to second supv within 14 calendar days
  7. If pattern identified, consult with second line supv.
  8. If pattern identified, document in BT what remedial action was taken and forward to second supv within 14 days.
  9. Continue to assess employees performance
400
Q

MOVE What are the adjudication timelines for a PPA/PPACE member after a sustained disposition report is put out? Recommendation of discipline__________ AOC from chain of command (waived discipline board)________AOC from the discipline board_________

A
  1. 15 days from dispo report
  2. 10 days from BOTH OLR and chains recommendation + waiver of disclipline board by subject (which ever is later)
  3. 21 days
401
Q

MOVE Maximum amount of vacation hours an employee can use an option instead of suspension IF APPROVED:

A

40 hours

402
Q

MOVE Who completes the adjudication of complaint process?

A

The employees bureau/ area commander AT THE TIME OF THE INCIDENT

403
Q

MOVE Who makes the decision to apply supervisor intervention?

A

Employees Bureau/Area commander AND OLR

404
Q

MOVE LVMPD affords the rights of peace officers to ALL department employees EXCEPT:(3)

A
  1. Recruits
  2. Part time employees
  3. Civilian academy employees
405
Q

MOVE Definition of a minor allegation:Definition of a major allegation:

A

MINOR: written reprimand, disciplinary transfer or any suspension less than 40 hours.

MAJOR: 40 hour suspension, demotion or termination

406
Q

MOVE What is the burden of proof to sustain in both IAB and EDS investigations?

A

IAB - clear and convincing

EDS - preponderance of evidence

407
Q

MOVE According to the MOVE policy, complaints of harassment or discrimination may be reported to:

A

Any supervisor
The EDS director
The IAB commander

408
Q

MOVE Complaints of harassment or discrimination WILL be documented on a….

A

SOC

409
Q

MOVE How long does IAB have to classify a preliminary complaint as a CC or SOC?

A

14 days

410
Q

MOVE Normally, the employees bureau commander will be notified by IAB of investigations.If the case involves OPSEC, the decision to notify the BC will be made at the __________ level

A

Division Commander

411
Q

MOVE IS the conflict resolution process disciplinary?

A

NO Unless misconduct takes place during the actual process

412
Q

MOVE is the mediation process appealable under any grievance process?

A

NO

413
Q

MOVE May conflict resolution be used more than once with the same parties?

A

NO UNLESS everyone involved agrees

414
Q

MOVE Can an officer be armed with a duty weapon during a conflict resolution meeting which takes places at LVMPD HQ?

A

YES! The only place an officer has disarm is if the meeting takes place at Clark County Neighborhood Justice Center (CCNJC)

415
Q

MOVE Under conflict resolution, IF deemed necessary how long is a performance enhancement plan?

A

21 days

416
Q

MOVE If a subject employee waived their right to 48 hours notice of interview… what do they need to do?

A

Have an attorney or association rep “available” to attend and state their waiver of 48 hours on tape or in writing

417
Q

MOVE Can a witness employee waive their right to 48 hours notice?

A

YES they must state the waiver on tape or in writing.They do NOT need to bring a rep/attorney

418
Q

MOVE- Conflict resolution may be used between employees and citizens if an issue is NOT yet a: (2)

A
  1. Formal complaint 2. Major allegation
419
Q

MOVE: If a supervisor has a question or procedural issue, who are they encouraged to contact?

A

The on-call internal affairs bureau team leader.

420
Q

MOVE: After business hours, you are completing an SOC and are unsure if it meets the immediate response criteria of IAB, who do you contact?

A

An on-duty LT

421
Q

MOVE: if an employee waived the formal investigation for an expedited investigation, this also waives:

A

The grievance process

422
Q

MOVE:What are the two options for addressing sustained complaints?

A
  1. Supervisory intervention

2. Formal discipline

423
Q

MOVE T/F: hours held in abeyance for sustained misconduct is only available for DUI, DV, 446 abuse and anger management?

A

FALSE “It May also be offered for performance issues in which refresher training is determined to be productive. P.S. the decision to offer abeyance tests with the bureau commander

424
Q

Sick leave: how many hours are given per pay period? What’s the hourly breakdown?

A

4, 0.05/hr

425
Q

Sick leave: this may be used for? (5)

A
  1. Illness/injury
  2. Public health requirements
  3. Dr. Appointment
  4. Bereavement
  5. Medical emergency
426
Q

Sick leave: What is the maximum hours for one doctors appointment?

A

4

427
Q

Sick leave: if you do not become ill at work, when should you REPORT you are taking sick leave?

A

Prior to shift.

428
Q

Sick leave: who is “immediate family”. (Who you can get bereavement or medical emergency for)

A

Spouse, parent, sibling, child, grandparent, grandchild. (This includes in laws, adoptive, or step). Also, any of these relations relating to your spouse/significant other/domestic partner.Also: legal guardian/ dependent situations

429
Q

Sick leave: who is a “significant other” 2 prong.

A
  1. Reside with and 2. Consider a mate. Only for the purpose of sick leave per the contract.
430
Q

Sick leave: bereavement (death of immediate family) how much sick can you use?

A

48 hours, the sheriff/designee can grant more, not to exceed 240!

431
Q

Sick leave: sick leave is taken for medical emergency however you may use what per fiscal year?

A

48 hours of vacation, one time provision.

432
Q

Sick leave: you call in sick Monday, you come back Tuesday. How long do you have to submit your leave once you’re back?

A

24 hours

433
Q

Sick leave: when is a certificate of recovery and fitness needed?

A

When requested by the sheriff or designee.

434
Q

Sick leave: As a general rule, any person who uses BLANK or more sick days per year is excessive.

A

8

435
Q

Sick leave: when using sick leave employees shall be where (3) or shall notify their supervisor of their whereabouts.

A

Home, medical facility, or doctors office.

436
Q

Sick leave: when can employees be at business, recreation, traveling etc. on sick leave?

A

When approved in advance by the sheriff or designee.

437
Q

Military leave: how many shifts of paid leave are granted in a calendar year?

A

30

438
Q

Military leave: when does an employee provide their supervisor documentation of their reserve status and assignment?

A

At the beginning of each calendar year or after change in assignment.

439
Q

Military Leave: when are ORDERS or a TRAINING SCHEDULE provided to the supervisor.

A

The first scheduled work day they become available to the employee

440
Q

Military Leave: when possible, how far in advance is military leave out in ESS?

A

2 weeks

441
Q

Military leave: military documents will be provided to the bureau of assignment and forward to Payroll by when?

A

Latest, 30 days after deployment!

442
Q

Military leave: an employee has approved scheduled vacation, another employee has been granted military leave at the same time. Do you cancel or approve? (The vacation…military isn’t touched)

A

If the vacation is 2 weeks or more in advance and is approved already, it’s set in stone! Both are approved.

443
Q

Leave without pay: what can be banked during leave without pay?

A

Maximum: 40 hours of sick.

444
Q

Longevity, pay scale, seniority etc is paused after how many hours of leave without pay? What is the only exception?

A

160 hours unless connected to a job illness/injury.Military leave.

445
Q

When will payroll notify an employee in writing of their leave without pay status?

A

After 14 continuous days.

446
Q

Except FMLA and ADA, 160 hours of leave without is approved by BLANK. After 90 CALENDAR days, approval is needed by BLANK AND BLANK.

A

Bureau commander, DC and Sheriff or designee

447
Q

Health related leave without pay documents are provided prior to BLANK. And approved by BLANK

A

160 hours. The bureau commander in consultation with Health Detail.

448
Q

Non health related leave without pay in excess of 160 hours is approved by?

A

Sheriff/designee

449
Q

FMLA: employees can take up to BLANK months FMLA within BLANK months of their child birth/placement.

A

6, 12

450
Q

FMLA: at what point during pregnancy should employees make an appointment with the Health Section to develop a plan for leave usage?

A

By the 6th month.

451
Q

How much FMLA time are each a husband and wife entitled to per the contract?

A

6 months

452
Q

Employees will be given reasonable time off to promote/test. What will NOT be approved during a promotional exam?

A

Overtime.$

453
Q

When requesting catastrophic leave donations, what is provided(3)?

A
  1. Physicians statement of: injury/illness
  2. Estimated time of being unable to work.
  3. Bureau Commanders approval of leave.
454
Q

How long will the union solicit for catastrophic leave donations?

A

30 days

455
Q

What can be donated to catastrophic leave?

A

Bonus, vacation, and/or professional. Must have 40 hours vacation left over. Cannot donate less than 4 hours

456
Q

What is the maximum amount of bank hours an employee can use in their entire career?

A

160

457
Q

To be eligible for catastrophic leave, employees will need BLANK hours of leave at a minimal after all leaves have been exhausted.

A

80

458
Q

For catastrophic leave, employees must be hospitalized, home bound, primary caregiver for someone (can’t perform duties). When are they NOT eligible?

A
  1. Workman’s comp claims
  2. Illegal act or self inflicted injury
  3. Not covered by the collective bargaining agreement (recruit)
459
Q

If bank time is used, it’s paid back at what rate?

A

2 hours per pay period. Or all at once if you retire/leave

460
Q

Seniority: vacation slips (including bonus, professional and comp) may be submitted how far in advance?Once approved, can a senior officer supersede this leave?

A

6 months. No

461
Q

How is PO seniority ranked for same classification on same day? (5)

A
  1. Corrections to P.O.
  2. Military deferrals
  3. Cadet to P.O.
  4. Recycled recruit
  5. Ranking on eligibility list
462
Q

The patrol division bump shall not occur prior to:

A

Supervisors have completed and published their bump.

463
Q

At anytime between bids, there is documented operational need to change your shift time, does the department have the right to do this?

A

Yes.

464
Q

For BEREAVEMENT employees may: 1.For MEDICAL EMERGENCY employees may:2.

A
  1. Utilize other paid leave.2. Should use sick, except of a one time 48 hour vacation provision per fiscal year
465
Q

Supervisors may discipline employees for excessive use of sick leave. Discipline ____________ be applied for extended illness/injury. If a supervisor has concerns about sick leave use, the shall consult with:

A

Will not!Labor relations

466
Q

An employee cannot complete leave without pay documents due to an extreme circumstance. Prior to 160 hours, as his supervisor you will:

A

Ensure the chain of command and health detail are notified

467
Q

Any disputes regarding the application of seniority may only be processed as a grievance to the appropriate:

A

Deputy chief and are not subject to appeal!

468
Q

Miranda: For someone who invoked their right for silence, after a time lapse and remirandized, may they be requestioned?

A

Yes

469
Q

Miranda: If some invokes their right to counsel, and after time lapse and remirandized, may they be questioned?

A

No. Unless THEY re-initiate the questioning

470
Q

Miranda: Juveniles SHOULD be advised of (2).

A

They can be tried in adult court, they may have a parent or guardian present.

471
Q

Once a juvenile is certified, which Miranda is appropriate? Adult or juvenile?

A

Adult

472
Q

If an in-mirandized statement is contrary to the Miranda statement, what may the court do?

A

Allow the statement to prevent perjury.

473
Q

If a voluntary statement is made and then Miranda occurs, the mirandized statement is generally BLANK. If statement is involuntary prior, morandized statement is generally BLANK.

A
  1. Admissible 2. Inadmissible
474
Q

Generally, if you violate Miranda, is physical evidence (dead bodies, SFSTS, dope) suppressed?

A

No, this doesn’t generally create a fruit of poisonous tree effect.

475
Q

Generally, if a defendant and his attorney request an interview do you need to mirandize them?

A

No

476
Q

Miranda deals with which amendments?

A

5th - self incrimination 6th - counsel 14th - due process

477
Q

Miranda: for Miranda, the presence of an attorney means:

A

Before and during questioning

478
Q

Miranda: to ascertain the nature of an emergency is known as the:

A

Public safety exception

479
Q

Who has the burden of proof to show a Miranda waiver was intelligently and knowingly made? What’s the test?What’s the burden of proof?

A

The prosecution
Totality of circumstances
Preponderance of evidence

480
Q

Who has the burden of proof in proving a statement was voluntarily made in Miranda??

A

With a proper Miranda waiver, it is presumed to be voluntary. The burden of proof is on the DEFENDANT to challenge voluntariness. If proven, the burden shifts back to the state. Totality if circumstance test is used

481
Q

The fourth amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both (2)

A

Reasonable and legitimate.

482
Q

What are the non-criminal investigation exceptions where the 4th amendment does not apply?

A 
No standing
Open view
Abandonment
Detention facilities
Airport searches
Private citizens (not agents)
Trash outside the curtilage. 
Book adds DOG SNIFFS
483
Q

For the community care taking doctrine, entry into a structure must be (2)

A

Timely and related to life safety.

484
Q

For community care taking doctrine, entry into a structure will be documented how? How will property damage be documented?

A

Entry - CAD Damage - Officers report and photos.

485
Q

LVMPD limits the community care taking doctrine to (2)

A

Welfare checks and vehicle stops.

486
Q

During a terry stop, Officers are allowed to ascertain (2)

A

Identity and purpose.

487
Q

During a terry stop, the 60 minute rule doesn’t apply when:

A

An officer develops probably cause for an arrest.

488
Q

What are the four prongs to a consensual person stop…per policy

A
  1. No justification
  2. Must feel free to leave at any time
  3. A persons movement can not be impeded in any way by the Officers actions.
  4. Consent may be revoked at anytime.
489
Q

During a traffic stop, if a driver refuses to produce documents what is the leave of resistance and who WILL respond to determine how to proceed?

A

Passive, a supervisor.

490
Q

Safekeeping: FA impounds will be for (2) and where is this articulated?

A

Life safety or to determine ownership. This is documented and articulated in the property report narrative.

491
Q

Search incident to arrest only applies to persons who will be taken to a:

A

Detention or law enforcement facility.

492
Q

All strip searches will be conducted by officers:

A

Of the same gender.

493
Q

Field strip searches shall be conducted rarely for life safety with the explicit approval of a BLANK and only in the presence of a BLANK.

A

Lieutenant, Supervisor

494
Q

At a corrections facility, a strip search for weapons or contraband is based on what? And who is contacted?

A

Reasonable suspicion. A corrections supervisor

495
Q

What is the only consensual body cavity search?

A

A buccal swab

496
Q

What’re the three documentation forms of consent per policy (referring to vehicles and structures)

A
  1. Electronically recorded
  2. Written
  3. Verbal
497
Q

For a consensual search (this is listed under vehicles) if no report is generated, how is consent documented?

A

CAD prior to clearing the call.

498
Q

T/F Officers will not search a vehicle incident to arrest?

A

True

499
Q

Placing holds on vehicles must be approved by who and how?

A

Investigative units. Via radio, telephone or in person. Record their P# on the impound

500
Q

Absent exigency circumstances or consent, officers are required to have either an AW or SW to enter a structure to make a PC arrest rule:

A

PAYTON RULE

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