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Aircrew Fundamentals > Wx > Flashcards

Wx Flashcards

1
Q

For every 1000ft of rise the temperature drops ___ degrees C

A

2

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2
Q

What is the first layer of the atmosphere ____

A

Troposphere

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3
Q

The ____ zone is where the air temperature remains constant with height

A

Isothermal

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4
Q

The _____ absorbs energetic ultraviolet solar energy

A

Ozone

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5
Q

Becoming oxygen starve is known as ___

A

Hypoxia

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6
Q

What are the recognized fronts and their characteristics?

A
  • Cold Fronts: cold air mass overtaking/replacing warmer air (TS/Ltg/+RA/IC/GR)
  • Warm Fronts: warm air mass overtaking/replacing colder air (FZ/IC/Low ceiling)
  • Occluded Fronts: Cold front overtakes warm front and lifts it completely from the ground
  • Stationary Fronts: Cold/Warm front does not move
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7
Q

What is the most noticeable property of air

A

Mobility

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8
Q

What forces drive the winds on earth

A
  • Heat of sun

- Rotation of earth on its axis

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9
Q

The ___ are Westerly winds that can reach up to 300kts but generally maintain between ___ and ____

A

Jet Stream / 100 and 150 kts

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10
Q

The strongest jet streams are usually between ___ and ___ depending on latitude and season

A

25,000 and 40,000 ft

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11
Q

Earth’s surface is more than ___ water

A

2/3

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12
Q

The ___ keeps the atmosphere supplied with moisture and aids in producing temperature and pressure changes

A

Hydrologic cycle

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13
Q

___ is the most important single element in the production of the clouds and other visible weather phenomena

A

Water vapor

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14
Q

The ___ the air, the more water vapor it can hold before reaching saturation and condensation occurs

A

warmer

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15
Q

The higher the temperature, the more ____ the air is capable of holding

A

water vapor

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16
Q

___ is the ratio of the amount of water vapor actually in the air, to the maximum amount that the air can hold at that temperature

A

Relative Humidity

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17
Q

____ is the temperature, at atmospheric pressure, to which air must be cooled to become saturated

A

Dew Point

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18
Q

___ should be alert for the possibility of fog or low cloud formation at any time when the surface temperature is within ___ degrees F of the dew point

A

Aircrew / 4 degrees F

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19
Q

___ are formed by very small droplets of water collecting on water absorbent particles of solid matter in the air

A

Clouds and Fog

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20
Q

____ absorb so much heat during the day, their temperature falls slowly

A

Large Objects

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21
Q

___ is used because it is one of the heaviest liquids at normal temperatures

A

Mercury

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22
Q

What forces mercury to rise in a barometer

A

Atmospheric pressure

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23
Q

The US military and civil weather agencies express altimeter settings in ___ of mercury

A

Inches

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24
Q

What is the weight of the air above an airport known as?

A

Station Pressure

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25
Q

Air ___ as it becomes warmer and ____ as it cools

A

expands / contracts

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26
Q

T / F - Aircrews can learn to recognize pressure patterns on charts because they frequently happen and are associated with numerous flying hazards

A

True

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27
Q

T / F - A clear sky guarantees the absence of turbulence

A

False

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28
Q

___ is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

A

Density altitude

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29
Q

Hot days cause the air to become ___ and its density at the field is equivalent to a higher altitude

A

Thinner

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30
Q

Higher density altitude ___ aircraft performance

A

reduces

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31
Q

____ is used above the transition altitude (18,000 ft)

A

QNE Altitude setting

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32
Q

___ is a pressure reading which when set will cause the instrument to read its true heading above MSL

A

QNH Altitude setting

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33
Q

Aircrews must exercise extreme caution in conducting operations at a location using ____ setting

A

QFE altitude setting

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34
Q

T / F It is the aircrew’s responsibility to ensure terrain avoidance

A

True

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35
Q

What are the 3 factors that determine indications of the pressure altimeter

A
  • Atmosphere Pressure Level
  • Mechanical Displacement of the indicator needles: the altimeter setting
  • Instrument error
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36
Q

If air is much ___ than the standard atmosphere, the actual aircraft altitude will be lower than the altimeter indicates

A

Colder

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37
Q

If the air is ___, the aircraft will be higher than the altimeter indicates

A

Warmer

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38
Q

____ is a scheduled observation taken between 55-59 minutes past the hour

A

METAR

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39
Q

___ are a sudden, brief increase in speed during the 10 mins immediately preceding the observation

A

Gust

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40
Q

The term ___ is used when the speed increases by at least 16kts and sustained at 22kts for at least 1 min

A

Squall

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41
Q

RVR is reported when the prevailing visibility is one statute mile or less and/or the RVR for the designated runway is ___ / ___ or less

A

6000ft / 1830m

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42
Q

VC means ___

A

Vincity

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43
Q

SH means ___

A

Showers

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44
Q

TS means ___

A

Thunderstorm

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45
Q

DZ means ___

A

Drizzle

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46
Q

IC means ___

A

Ice Crystals

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47
Q

___ are short duration and small in size relative to thunderstorm complexes, but they may have 100kts of wind and severe downdrafts

A

Microburst

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48
Q

Who is the primary point of contact for briefings and all operational weather

A

CWT

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49
Q

T or F - Aircrew should ask how the weather will affect our mission

A

True

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50
Q

OWSs need a minimum of ___ notification to prepare a weather briefing

A

2hrs

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51
Q

What is a MEF?

A

Mission Execution Forecast (MEF-DD Form 1751): process that allows the CWT to efficiently prepare your actual mission briefing

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52
Q

The turbofan engine is a byproduct of combining the basic ____ and ___ engines

A

Turbojet and Turboprop

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53
Q

The airflow from the fan stages produces thrust much like a _____

A

Propeller thrust

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54
Q

The action from these blades is much like that of a ___, although the motion of the propeller blade is more complex than that of a ____

A

Wing / Wing

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55
Q

Slip is the difference between the ____ pitch of the propeller and its ___ pitch

A

Geometric pitch / Effective pitch

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56
Q

The ____ is the angle between the blade chord and the plane of the propeller’s rotation

A

Blade angle

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57
Q

____ is essential in order to obtain efficient propeller operation

A

Twist

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58
Q

Aerodynamically, ___ is the result of the shape and angle of the propeller blade

A

Propeller Thrust

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59
Q

The turboprop engine is rated by the amount of ___ it applies to the propeller

A

Shaft Horsepower

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60
Q

99% of the atmosphere lies within ____ of the earth’s surface

A

19 miles

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61
Q

The atmosphere is composed of what gases

A

Nitrogen - 78%
Oxygen - 21 %
Other - 1% (Argon 0.93%)

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62
Q

____ is the rate at which the air temperature decreases with height

A

Temperature lapse rate

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63
Q

The Troposphere extends from the earth’s surface up to ___ ft

A

36,000 ft

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64
Q

The boundary separating the troposphere and stratosphere is called the ____

A

Tropopause

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65
Q

____ are high winds that meander in a narrow channel, like an older river, often at speeds exceeding 100kts

A

Jet Stream

66
Q

The second region of the atmosphere is the ___

A

Stratosphere

67
Q

The ___ is considered the middle sphere

A

Mesosphere

68
Q

The ___ is considered the hot layer above the mesosphere

A

Thermosphere

69
Q

___ is one of the most important weather parameters that aviators need to understand

A

Atmospheric Pressure

70
Q

In the Standard atmosphere, sea level pressure is ___ Hg or ___ millibars

A

29.92 inches Hg or 1013.2 millibars

71
Q

What’s the difference between A01 and A02

A

A01 - ASOS without rain vs snow discriminator

A02 - ASOS with rain vs snow discriminator

72
Q

___ is any surface designed to obtain a reaction upon itself (producing lift) from the air through which it passes through

A

Airfoil

73
Q

The ____ of a wing is the distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge and is represented by a straight line called the ____

A

Chord / chord line

74
Q

___ is the force of gravity acting downward upon anything that goes into the aircraft (crew, fuel, cargo)

A

Weight

75
Q

When ___ is increased, it also ___ drag

A

Airspeed or AoA / Increased

76
Q

When __ __of the engine is increased, ___ momentarily exceeds drag and airspeed will ___., provided straight and level flight is maintained

A

Thrust Output / Thrust / Increase

77
Q

What are the factors affecting lift and drag?

A
  • Wing Area
  • Air Foil Shape
  • External Induced Air Foil Change
  • Air Speed
  • Air Density
78
Q

The lift and drag acting on a wing are roughly proportional to the ____, meaning that if the ___ is ___ with all variables remaining the same, the lift and drag created by the ____ will be ____

A

Wing area / Wing area / Doubled / Wing / Doubled

79
Q

A raised ___ reduces the lift on the wing by decreasing the curvature of a portion of the wing

A

Aileron

80
Q

As the air density ___, lift and drag ____. as air density ___, lift and drag decreases

A

Increases / Increases ; Decreases / Decreases

81
Q

Lift and drag are directly proportional to the ____

A

Density of the air

Square of the velocity of air

82
Q

During take-off and landing, the effectiveness of nose wheel steering is dependent on _____

A

Friction

83
Q

Thrust is needed to overcome ___ and ___

A

Rolling friction and aerodynamic drag

84
Q

The primary purpose of wing flaps and wing slats is to allow the aircraft to ___ and ___

A

takeoff and land at low airspeeds

85
Q

T or F: Extending flaps and slats increases drag only

A

False: it increases lift and drag

86
Q

___ is the true altitude (MSL) corrected for atmospheric pressure (barometric pressure) variance from the ICAO standard day

A

Pressure altitudes

87
Q

___ is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

A

Density Altitude

88
Q

What % of headwind component will be used for mission-essential missions only

A

50%

89
Q

___ is a measurement of friction between the aircraft tires and the runway

A

Runway Condition Reading (RCR)

90
Q

T or F: Grooved/porous runway improve aircraft braking

A

True

91
Q

___ is the average depth and type of runway surface covering to the nearest one-tenth inch

A

Runway Surface Condition (RSC)

92
Q

___ is the result of marked loss of coefficient of friction between the tires and runway

A

Hydroplaning

93
Q

A ____ shortens take-off ground run and the Critical Field Length (CFL)

A

Downhill slope

94
Q

___ increases take-off ground run and increases CFL

A

Uphill slope

95
Q

___ is used when nothing else will save life, property, or mission objective

A

(Take-off power) Maximum Effort

96
Q

___ produces close to the maximum thrust of which an engine is capable, but compromise some amount of thrust in the interest of extending engine life

A

Takeoff Rated Thrust (TRT)

97
Q

TRT is expressed in terms of ___ and ___

A

Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) and Fan Speed (N1)

98
Q

Takeoffs with bleed air off are either ____ or ____

A
  • mandated under prescribed conditions

- left to the discretion of the aircraft commander

99
Q

____ are the primary indication of available on turboprop engines

A

Inch-pounds of torque

100
Q

___ combines the EPR/N1, which vary with temperature at a given altitude, with the actual altitude to produce a statement of thrust

A

Thrust Factor (TF)

101
Q

___ is a reference number that combines EPR/N1, temperature and pressure altitude

A

Air Performance Number (APN)

102
Q

___ adds the effect of density altitude on the airframe to the thrust of the engines

A

Takeoff Factor (TOF)

103
Q

___ combines static EPR/N1, temperature, and pressure altitude to arrive at a reference number which also incorporates the effect of density altitude on the airframe

A

Ground Performance Number (GPN)

104
Q

____ combines thrust developed by the engines with the aircraft gross weight to arrive at a reference number which expresses the aircraft weight to power ratio

A

Climb Out Factor (COF)

105
Q

___ is the airspeed used during the climb which compromises between the airspeed for max climb rate and the airspeed that produces the most efficient engine operation

A

Climb speed

106
Q

___ is the height an aircraft will climb in a given horizontal distance

A

Climb gradient

107
Q

___ is the minimum speed required to maintain directional control with an outboard engine inop and the remaining engines at takeoff thrust

A

Ground Minimum control speed (VMCG)

108
Q

___ is the speed at which an aircraft can have an outboard engine fail and still maintain directional control using full rudder deflection and not more than 5 degrees of bank

A

Air Minimum Control Speed (VMCA)

109
Q

___ is the distance required to accelerate on all engines, to critical engine failure speed (VCEF), experience engine fail at VCEF, and either takeoff/abort

A

Critical Field Length (CFL)

110
Q

___ is the speed at which an aircraft can accelerate on all engines, have an engine failure, and either stop within the CFL or takeoff with the remaining engines

A

Critical Engine Failure Speed (VCEF)

111
Q

___ is the max speed an aircraft can accelerate with takeoff power and stop within the remaining runway

A

Refusal Speed (VR)

112
Q

___ is the speed reached during the takeoff run that the aircraft transitions from a 3-point attitude to takeoff attitude

A

Rotation Speed (VROT)

113
Q

___ is the speed the aircraft must accelerate before liftoff occurs

A

Take-off speed (VTO)

114
Q

___ is the max ground speed that a tire can structurally withstand during taking/landing

A

Tire Placard Speed (TPS)

115
Q

___ is the tire placard speed corrected to either Calibrated Airspeed in Knots (KCAS) or Indicate Airspeed in Knots (KIAS)

A

Tire Limit Speed (TLS)

116
Q

___ is the highest speed the aircraft can stop without exceeding the max energy absorption capability of the brakes

A

Maximum Braking Speed (VBMAX)

117
Q

___ is the distance required to accelerate to takeoff speed

A

Takeoff Ground Run

118
Q

___ compensates for differences between the center of gravity and the center of lift

A

Horizontal Stabilizer Trim Settings

119
Q

___ allows for comparison of takeoff vs time/dist and can be aborted at a predetermined point for substandard performance

A

Acceleration Check Speed

120
Q

Flying segments of the approach to landing at approach/reference speed plus incremented airspeed increase are known as ____

A

Approach (VAPP) and Reference (VREF) Speed

121
Q

__ is the airspeed at which we cross the runway threshold, normally at a height of 50ft

A

Threshold Speed

122
Q

___ is the speed that we actually touchdown on the runway

A

Touchdown Speed

123
Q

___ is normally based on the aircraft crossing the runway threshold at a height of 50ft at the threshold speed

A

Landing Distance

124
Q

___ is the required distance after touchdown to stop the aircraft

A

Landing Ground Roll

125
Q

___ is the point all the forces of flight will equal

A

Absolute Ceiling ( Rate of climb = 0 FPM)

126
Q

Service Ceiling is what rate of climb

A

100 FPM

127
Q

Formatting Ceiling is what rate of Climb

A

200 FPM

128
Q

Cruise Ceiling is what rate of Climb

A

300 FPM

129
Q

Performance Ceiling is what rate of climb

A

400 FPM

130
Q

Combat Performance Ceiling is what rate of climb

A

500 FPM

131
Q

What are the Basic Cruise Performance Profiles

A

Constant Altitude, Cruise Climb Cruise, and Optimum Step Climb

132
Q

___ consists of an aircraft climbing to a cruise altitude and remaining there until descent (worst gas mileage)

A

Constant Altitude

133
Q

___ consists of climbing to its optimum altitude, starting a cruise and as the aircraft gets lighter from fuel burn off, we allow the aircraft to climb (best gas mileage)

A

Cruise Climb Cruise

134
Q

___ is the compromise between the Constant Altitude and Cruise Climb Cruise Profiles. Allows for ATC coordination

A

Optimum Step Climb

135
Q

__ is very seldom used on large aircraft; set cruise power and leave it alone

A

Constant Power

136
Q

__ is used often once cruise speed is established and will be maintained throughout the flight

A

Constant Speed

137
Q

___ gives the best gas mileage for the conditions of the day

A

Maximum Range

138
Q

__ is flying at the airspeed that will give us our lowest fuel flow; staying in the air the longest

A

Endurance

139
Q

___ is where we sacrifice a little range for an increase in airspeed. Sacrificing 1% of range = 5% increase of speed

A

Long Range

140
Q

___ gives the greatest amount of time when flying a constant altitude; used by search/rescue

A

Best Endurance

141
Q

___ obtain a very high rate of descent when air traffic control or mission dictates

A

Rapid Descent

142
Q

___ descents are made when the need for a faster than normal change in altitude exists

A

Penetration

143
Q

____ descents are the most common and provide fuel economy and passenger/crew comfort

A

En Route Descent

144
Q

The curvature/departure from the chord line is known as ____

A

Camber

145
Q

What are the type/characteristics of camber

A
  • Zero: no curves
  • Negative: concave/inward curve
  • Positive: upward curve
146
Q

___ is the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the chord of the wing

A

Angle of Incidence

147
Q

___ is the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of the relative wind (chord line and flight path)

A

Angle of Attack

148
Q

Air that can no longer flow smoothly over the wing’s upper surface due to the separation of the boundary layer and will eventually cause a stall is known as ____

A

Burble Point

149
Q

Drag increases ___ as much as increased speed

A

Twice

150
Q

SPECI (Special Rpt) is an unscheduled observation taken when ____

A

predefined condition criteria change occurs

151
Q

What is the source that drives the winds

A

The Sun

152
Q

The earth’s ____ is the steering mechanism

A

Rotation

153
Q

___ is the density of water vapor in the air

A

Absolute Humidity

154
Q

When the air has all the water vapor it can hold, it is ____

A

Saturated

155
Q

When the air contains all the water vapor possible to hold at its current temperature, the relative humidity is ___

A

100%`

156
Q

___ is the most common type of wind and is the average direction/speed over 2 minutes

A

Prevailing(Sustained)

157
Q

____ is reported if the direction varies by 60 degrees and speeds greater than 6kts

A

Wing Variability

158
Q

On average, thrust constitutes appx ____% of torque, absorbed by the propeller, and ___% are lost in friction and slippage

A

80% / 20%

159
Q

Turbofan consist of what sections ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___

A
  • Fan
  • Compressor
  • Combustion
  • Turbine
  • Exhaust
160
Q

Use ___% of tailwind component as the effective wind in planning takeoff/landing performance

A

150%

161
Q

Use __% of headwind/tailwind when computing accel check, max braking, or tire limit speed

A

100%

162
Q

Runway Condition Readings are the average reading of the total runway length within ___ ft of the runway centerline

A

20ft

Aircrew Fundamentals (10 decks)

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