Aviation Speeds Flashcards

1
Q

GW

A

Aircraft Gross Weight at the start of takeoff roll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

CG

A

Aircraft Center of Gravity (%MAC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

OAT

A

Outside Air Temp - obtained from ATIS, METRO or another reliable source of mission planning weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

F.Elev

A

Field Elevation - obtained from an airfield diagram - specified in ft MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

PA

A

Pressure Altitude - atmospheric pressure expressed in terms of an altitude corresponding to that pressure in the standard atmosphere (ICAO). Height of an aircraft as measured from an assumed sea level atmospheric pressure of 29.92 Hg - obtained from ATIS, METRO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Wind Direction

A

Direction the wind is coming from (degrees magnetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Wind Velocity

A

Either constant or steady/gusting (kts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

RCR

A

Runway Condition Reading - measure of the tire to runway coefficient of friction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

RSC

A

Runway Surface Covering - average runway surface covering and is determined in depth in increments of 1/10 inch and type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bank(Deg)

A

Bank angle decrement is applied when a turn is required prior to reaching a minimum safe IFR altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

RW-HDG

A

Runway-Heading - specified in degrees magnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

RW-Length

A

Runway length - total length of hard surface not including overruns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

RW-AVAIL

A

Runway Available - Runway length less the airplane line up distance. Line up distance is 200 feet for static takeoffs / 700 feet for rolling takeoffs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Slope

A

Runway slope specified in % if applicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

DER ELEV

A

Departure End of Runway Elevation - specified in feet MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SCRN HT

A

Screen Height - Height above the DER the aircraft must be at or above on departure. W/out a SCRN HT, the predicted HT above the DER is Zero feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ACCEL HT

A

Acceleration Height - Marks the transition from S2 to S3 and ranges from a minimum value of 400 feet to a maximum value based on the three-engine climbout factor. It will be adjusted for cold weather altimeter error if necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

OEI GRAD/ALT

A

One Engine Inop Gradient/Altitude - required climb gradient with one engine inop and the termination altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

AEO GRAD/ALT

A

All Engines Ops Gradient/Altitude - required climb gradient with all engines operative and the termination altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

De-icing Adjustments

A

Type I undiluted or Type II/IV (undiluted/diluted) fluids are applied before takeoff, these adjustments are REQUIRED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

HW

A

Headwind - Headwind component is the effective wind parallel to the runway and blowing in the direction opposite to takeoff. Determined from steady wind value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

XW

A

Crosswind - component is the effective wind 90 degrees across the runway and is determined from the steady wind value plus the gust increment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

TW

A

Tailwind - component is the effective wind parallel to the runway and blowing in the direction of the takeoff. Determined from the steady wind value plus the gust increment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Gust

A

increment that is the reported wind in excess of the steady wind value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MAX XW

A

maximum crosswind in which the airplane can maintain directional control during the takeoff ground run and also maintain bank attitude at liftoff with no more than 75% of the available roll control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

GW Tire

A

max gross wt limited by tires with a placard speed of 195 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

GW CFL

A

Critical Field Lenght - gross weight limited by CFL equal to RW AVAIL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

GW COF

A

Climbout Factor - gross wt limited by minimum COF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

GW OEI CG

A

max gross wt that can meet the one engine inop climb gradient

30
Q

GW AEO CG

A

max gross wt that can meet the all engines operating climb gradient

31
Q

GW OBST

A

max gross wt that can clear an obstacle

32
Q

GW Decision Speed (V1) < Refusal Speed (VR)

A

max wt that ensures V1 does not exceed VR or max braking speed (MB)

33
Q

CFL

A

Critical Field Length - total length of runway required to accelerate on 4 engines to V1, experience an engine failure and then continue the takeoff or stop

34
Q

COF

A

Climbout Factor - numerical representation of climb performance with one engine inoperative

35
Q

AECI

A

numerical representation of climb performance with all engines operating - derived from COF

36
Q

RA DEC 1

A

Runway Available Decrement 1 - amount of runway decrement required to ensure the OEI required climb gradient (RCG) is not penetrated when a screen height exists or deicing corrections are applied

37
Q

RA 1

A

Runway Available minus the RA DEC 1

38
Q

RA DEC 2`

A

Runway Available Decrement 2 - amount of runway decrement required to ensure the OEI required climb gradient (RCG) is not penetrated during S1 or the departure

39
Q

RA 2

A

Runway Avail 2 - Runway Avail minus the sum of RA DEC 1 and RA Dec 2

40
Q

CFL

A

Calculated using the OEI CG limiting weight

41
Q

HDA

A

Horizontal Distance Adjustment - used to account for runway slope

42
Q

H Dist

A

Horizontal Distance - horizontal distance from liftoff (end of CFL) to the start of the OEI RCG surface

43
Q

Final HT

A

Final Height - gradient compliance final height relative to the liftoff point (ft AGL)

44
Q

Segment

A

minium height margin is in which segment? Note: the height margin is not calculated in segment 1, so this can only be segment 2, 3, or 4

45
Q

HT Margin

A

minimum height (point of closest approach) between the aircraft’s OEI climb gradient and the OEI RCG

46
Q

TGR

A

Takeoff Ground Run - distance required to reach take off speed without the loss of an engine

47
Q

Inboard TRT

A
  • Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) - inboard engine EPR setting for Takeoff Rated Thrust (TRT)
  • Inboard Engine N1 in %
48
Q

Inboard Reduced

A

EPR setting for reduced thrust, assumed temperature is used to compute reduced EPR

49
Q

Minimum Outboard EPR

A

minimum outboard EPR is 63.5% of TRT

50
Q

Outboard EPR

A

outboard engine EPR setting

51
Q

Outboard N1

A

Outboard engine N1 setting (%)

52
Q

Outboard Thrust = Inboard

A

Outboard engine thrust as a percentage of inboard engine thrust (%)

53
Q

Decision Speed (V1)

A

based on CFL and is the lowest speed at which the upwind outboard engine can fail and the takeoff continue safely. Decision speed is the highest of critical engine failure speed or ground minimum control speed but not greater than rotation speed. Decision speed (V1) must never exceed Refusal Speed (VR)

54
Q

Charted VR

A

Charted Refusal Speed (VR), prior to any reductions for braking or rotation speed (VROT). Refusal Speed (VR) is based on AEO

55
Q

VB

A

Maximum Braking Speed - highest speed from which the airplane can stop without exceeding the maximum energy absorbing capability of the brakes

56
Q

VROT+Gust

A

Rotation speed is the speed at which rotation from the three point attitude to takeoff attitude is initiated

57
Q

VMFR

A

Minimum Flap Retraction Speed - computed by adding 30 kts to charted Climbout Speed

58
Q

VCO +55

A

Climbout Speed +55 - adding 55kts to VCO

59
Q

Stab Setting

A

Stabilizer Setting - setting for takeoff is determined by the airplanes CG and GW

60
Q

Climb Pitch OEI

A

OEI climbout pitch (deg)

61
Q

Climb Pitch AEO

A

AEO climbout pitch (deg)

62
Q

24M Brake Energy

A

Brakes applied speed corresponding to 24 M brake energy (KIAS)

63
Q

VCEF

A

Critical Engine Failure Speed - speed at which an engine can fail and the same distance is required to either continue takeoff or stop

64
Q

VMCG

A

Ground Minimum Control Speed - minimum airspeed during the takeoff ground run at which an upwind outboard engine can fail and with no change to the thrust of the remaining engines, the airplane can be kept in a straight path on the runway with rudder, not more than 75% of roll control and nose wheel steering (on a dry runway only). wet/icey = have no effect to nose wheel steering, hold center / path achieved may deviate 30 feet from initial intended path

65
Q

VMCG Accel Stop Dist

A

distance required to accel on 4 engines to VMCG and stop using max braking. When VMCG is greater than VCEF, VMCG Accel Stop Dist is the CFL

66
Q

VR

A

Refusal Speed - max speed to which the airplane can accel and then stop on the avail runway based on AEO. VR will not exceed MB, VROT, or tire placard speed

67
Q

Vb

A

Max Braking Speed - highest speed from which the airplane can stop without exceeding max energy absorption capability of the brakes based on AEO. Vb must be equal to or greater than VR

68
Q

VMCA (takeoff)

A

Air Minimum Control Speed - minimum airborne speed at which an outboard engine can fail and with no change to the thrust of the remaining engines, the airplane can be kept on a straight flight path with rudder boost ON and no more than 5 degrees of bank away from the failed engine

69
Q

VMCA (landing)

A

Air Minimum Control Speed - Air minimum airborne speed at which an outboard engine or both engines on one side can fail and with the remaining engines at go-around thrust and a straight flight path maintained with max avail rudder and no more than 5 degrees of bank

70
Q

VTO

A

Takeoff Speed - speed at which main gear leaves the ground