wrong Qs Flashcards

1
Q

what type of joint is the sternoclavicular joint?

A

saddle type synovial

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2
Q

what type of joint is the elbow joint?

A

hinge synovial

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3
Q

what type of joint is the intervertebral disc joint?

A

primary cartilaginous

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4
Q

what type of joint is the pubic symphysis joint?

A

secondary cartilaginous

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5
Q

what type of joint is the interosseous membrane of the forearm?

A

fibrous (syndesmoses)

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6
Q

what do club (clara) cells secrete?

A

glycosaminoglycans

–> protect epithelial lining of bronchioles

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7
Q

which nerve supplies mechanoreceptors in the upper respiratory tract?

A

vagus

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8
Q

what rib is in the same anatomical location as the sternal angle?

A

2nd rib

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9
Q

what is the respiratory epithelium made up of (histologically)?

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells

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10
Q

if something was aspirated which bronchus is it most likely to go down? where is it most likely to end up?

A

right main bronchus –> right lower lobe

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11
Q

what type of bacteria is haemophilus influenza?

A

gram neg coccobacilli

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12
Q

what cardiomyopathy is associated with alcohol abuse?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

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13
Q

the closing of which valve causes biphasic waves in the jugular vein?

A

tricuspid

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14
Q

where does the thoracic duct drain into?

A

left internal jugular vein (left venous angle)

venous angle = subclavian vein + internal jugular vein

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15
Q

where is angiotensin converting enzyme produced?

A

lungs

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16
Q

what condition does serial troponins guide it’s management?

A

ACS that isn’t STEMI

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17
Q

what investigation is used to screen + monitor AAAs?

A

duplex USS

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18
Q

define cholelithiasis

A

formation of gall stones

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19
Q

define ascending cholangitis

A

inflammation of bile ducts

ascending - bacteria ascending from duodenal junction

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20
Q

what do parietal cells secrete?

A

hydrochloric acid

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21
Q

what do G cells secrete?

A

gastrin

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22
Q

what do chief cells secrete?

A

pepsinogen

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23
Q

what tumour marker is associated with colorectal cancer?

A

carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

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24
Q

is the influx of Na+ via ligand or voltage gated ion channels?

A

voltage

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25
Q

what happens during the hyperpolarisation phase of action potentials?

A

K channels are open + Na channels are in restin state

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26
Q

what is the test for Down’s syndrome?

A

array comparative genomic hybridisation

–> looking for an imbalance in genome

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27
Q

what occurs during pavementing in acute inflammation?

A

WBC binds tightly + flattens against vessel wall

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28
Q

what is meant by a sarcoma?

A

malignant connective tissue tumour

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29
Q

where can MHC-II be found?

A

only professional antigen presenting cells

–> macrophages, dendritic cells

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30
Q

what shape are IgM?

A

pentameric

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31
Q

what shape is a macrophages nucleus?

A

kidney bean shaped - used to be a monocyte

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32
Q

how can you calculate SV?

A

SV = EDV - ESV

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33
Q

how can you calculate the ejection fraction?

A

SV / EDV

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34
Q

what is happening in phase 1 (wee flicky bit at top)?

A

K efflux

35
Q

define deontology

what is the opposite of this?

A

follow obligations of patient/NHS

opposite = virtue ethics - follow own morals

36
Q

where is spermatozoa produced?

A

seminiferous tubules

37
Q

where is infundibulum? isthmus?

A

infundibulum = broad end of uterine tube that receives oocyte

isthmus = where uterine tube narrows to enter the uterus

38
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa treatment

A

ciprofloxacin

resistant to most antibiotics + gram neg coccobacillus

39
Q

c. diff treatment

A

mild = metronidazole

severe = metronidazole + vancomycin

(all ORAL)

40
Q

which bone possesses the odontoid process?

A

C2 (axis)

41
Q

main energy source for slow jogging for 40 mins

A

glycogen stores

4 secs = ATP 
15 secs = phosphocreatine
4 mins = free circulating glucose
77 mins = glycogen stores
4+ days = fat stores
42
Q

main energy source for lifting a heavy weight for 4 seconds

A

ATP

4 secs = ATP 
15 secs = phosphocreatine
4 mins = free circulating glucose
77 mins = glycogen stores
4+ days = fat stores
43
Q

what component of MRSA strain causes severe skin infection such as necrotising fasciitis?

A

panton valentine leukocidin

–> cytotoxin associated with highly virulent strain of staph aureus causing necrolytic skin infection

44
Q

which cranial nerve supplies the sensory nerve supply to the ear?

A

vestibulocochlear (8th)

45
Q

name a disease acquired through co-dominant inheritance

A

sickle cell anaemia

46
Q

what is immunophenotyping?

A

the measurement of T-lymphocyte subsets in blood

47
Q

describe the appearance of neisseria meningitidis

A

aerobic gram negative coccus which appears as diplococci

48
Q

in an action potential, in what direction do sodium and potassium move respectively?

A

sodium moves inwards

potassium moves outwards

49
Q

what effect does sepsis have on the circulating blood volume?

A

decreases it

–> due to endotoxins causing vasodilation + intravascular fluid leaking to adjacent cell

50
Q

what part of the inner mitochondrial membrane transfers energy associated with proton motive from high energy phosphate bonds found in ATP?

A

FiFoATPase

–> proton pore which utilises energy yielded from the return of protons along their electrochemical gradient in a condensation reaction with ADP + Pi to yield ATP

51
Q

what receptor is responsible for glucose transport into gut?

A

GLUT 5 - passive facilitated diffusion

52
Q

which G protein does M1 bind to? what does this cause?

A

Gq - stimulation of phospholipase C

53
Q

an embolus from a DVT is most likely to occlude what vessel?

A

pulmonary vein

54
Q

what 2 structures form the diencephalon?

A

hypothalamus + thalamus

diencephalon = central core of cerebrum
–> has connections to right + left cerebral hemispheres

55
Q

most common cause of acute appendicitis

A

faecolith obstruction

56
Q

what makes C. Diff so hard to destroy?

A

spore formation

57
Q

what would a biopsy of chronic inflammation look like?

A
angiogenesis - new blood vessels sprouting from orig
fibrosis
lymphocytes
macrophages
plasma cells
58
Q

what blood test best reflects the synthetic function of the liver?

A

albumin

59
Q

side effect of aspirin

A

haemorrhage - vomiting blood

60
Q

if a patient tests positive using a screening test, which parameter would reflect the probability that the patient had the disease: specificity, sensitivity, positive predictive value, negative predictive value

A

positive predictive value

in FIT example question it was 5.2%

61
Q

when might a mallory-weiss tear occur?

A

after severe bouts of vomiting (after party, drinking lots of buckfast)

–> there is usually little in the way of systemic disturbance or prior symptoms (no PMH)

62
Q

which artery is the most likely source of bleeding from base of an ulcer in the second part of the duodenum?

A

gastroduodenal artery

close relationship to wall of second part of duodenum - deep ulcers may cause torrential bleeding from gastroduodenal artery (“artery of haemorrhages”)

63
Q

what would a biopsy of an ulcer look like?

A

granulation tissue with a layer of necrotic debris on it’s surface

64
Q

most common cause of mouth cancer

A

smoking

65
Q

outbreak, person to person spread, can’t wee

A

e coli 0157

66
Q

which substance in the RAAS would be first to be secreted after an acute blood loss?

A

renin

–> decrease in blood pressure will be sensed by the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney - this will cause renin secretion.

67
Q

best first investigation to detect chromosomal imbalance in 4 y/o with learning difficulties

A

array comparative genomic hybridisation (array CGH)

68
Q

52 y/o with hypertension, wakes up in night suddenly feeling SOB, has bi-basal crackles

best medication to rapidly relieve symptoms?

A

IV furosemide

69
Q

metabolite of the arachadonic acid pathway released from eosinophils + mast cells which mediates airway smooth muscle constriction, increased vascular permeability + mucous secretion

A

leukotriene A4

70
Q

acts on membrane bound beta-2 adrenoceptor on airway smooth muscle to mediate relaxation

A

adrenaline

noradrenaline = selectively stimulates beta-1 receptors (heart)

adrenaline = non selectively stimulates beta 1+2

71
Q

what would the pulse rate of someone suffering shock from substantial blood loss be like?

A

fast

72
Q

when would carotid sinus massage be used?

A

SVT - usually reserved for younger patients who have lower stroke risk

73
Q

pneumonia in which lobes abut the heart boder?

A

right middle + left upper

74
Q

contraction of which muscles would result in elevation of the section of the resp tract containing the vocal cords?

A

longitudinal muscles of the pharynx

–> elevate the larynx

75
Q

accessory muscle of respiration due to its attachment to rib 1

A

scalenus anterior muscle

76
Q

management of old woman with difficulty swallowing since suffering a cerebral vascular accident

A

percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy tube

77
Q

management of motor neurone disease + recurrent aspiration pneumonia

A

radiologically inserted gastrostomy tube

78
Q

process responsible for ketone development in states of insulin depletion

A

lipolysis

79
Q

most inferior paired anterolateral branches of abdominal aorta

A

gonadal

80
Q

what drug increases risk of C Diff?

A

proton pump inhibitors

81
Q

whats cytogenic analysis?

A

analysis of chromosomal abnormalities

microscopic study of chromosomes in individual cells

82
Q

investigation for GI parasites

A

stool microscopy

83
Q

auscultation of lung apex, base + middle lobe

A

apex - root of neck, anterior, superior to medial 1/3 of clavicle

middle lobe - between ribs 4-6 in midclavicular + midaxillary lines

base = scapular line at T11 (POSTERIOR)