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NMS 1 > written test #2- lumbar, Hip, Knee > Flashcards

written test #2- lumbar, Hip, Knee Flashcards

1
Q

Which direction do lumbar intervertebral discs deform and displace when a person performs right lateral flexion?

A

Left

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2
Q

If a patient has radiating symptoms that demonstrate motor weakness, the patient is given what type of radiating symptoms diagnosis?

A

Radiculopathy

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3
Q

Injury at sub failure load is most likely to occur when there is inadequate recovery (time) between exposures of load. T or F?

A

True

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4
Q

Limacon shaped lumbar vertebral discs demonstrate more diffuse nucleus deformation than ovid shaped discs. T or F?

A

False

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5
Q

Which of the following spinal motions are limited the greatest due to the orientation of the lumbar facet joints?

A

Rotation

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6
Q

What best describes the process of pain centralization?

A

Distal pain that slowly progresses towards the spine

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7
Q

Based on categorization of low back pain, what treatment is most ideal for addressing a facet mobility problem?

A

Joint manipulation

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8
Q

Lumbar ligaments are densely populated with mechanoreceptors providing feedback regarding position and motion. T or F?

A

True

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9
Q

What best describes the reason for the ilopsoas’s attachment to the lumbar spine?

A

Disperse hip flexion forces across the lumbar spine

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10
Q

Based on categorization of low back pain, what treatment is the most ideal for addressing a motor control problem?

A

Stabilization exercises

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11
Q

What position are the hip abductors capable of generating the greatest force (strongest)?

A

Adducted 10 degrees

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12
Q

In a seated position with hips flexed to 90 degrees, the piriform is positioned to efficiently perform which movement?

A

Internal Rotation

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13
Q

What combination of positions puts the hip in OPEN packed position?

A

Slight external rotation, hip flexion 30 degrees, abducted 30 degrees

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14
Q

What position is the right femur in relative to the pelvis when the pelvis left laterally tilts (left side drops)?

A

Adduction

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15
Q

When the pelvis rotates to the left, what direction does the left femur need to move relative to the pelvis to keep the left foot aligned in the sagittal plane?

A

Medial Rotation or Internal rotation

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16
Q

Which position will a person adopt posturally, if they have femoral retroversion?

A

Lateral rotation of the leg (toed-out)

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17
Q

What position is the femur in relative to the pelvis when the pelvis is tilted anteriorly

A

Flexion

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18
Q

In a standing position, posterior rotation of the pelvis is equivalent to closed kinetic chain hip extension. T or F?f

A

True

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19
Q

Which of the following is true regarding coxa vara?

A

It is associated with less risk of dislocation

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20
Q

Which of the normal variants of the femoral neck increases mobility of the iliofemoral joint, while sacrificing stability- Coxa valga or Coxa vara?

A

Coxa valga

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21
Q

Which meniscus demonstrates less mobility, possibly explaining why it more frequently injured?

A

Medial

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22
Q

Which area of the meniscus has the best potential to heal due to a better blood supply?

A

Outer 1/3

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23
Q

Any movement of the vastus medialis oblique will allow a greater amount of lateral glide of the patella due to the origin of the quadriceps muscles being orientated laterally to their insertion point. T or F

A

True

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24
Q

What motions create the “screw home” mechanism of the knee during terminal knee extension? You need to know what a terminal knee extension is to understand this question…

A

The femur internally rotates and the tibia externally rotates

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25
Q

Which meniscus is deeper?

A

Lateral

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26
Q

Which directions does the femur move relative to the tibia during knee extension?

A

Rolls anterior and slides posterior

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27
Q

The posterior Cruciate ligament functions to prevent what motions at the knee?

A

posterior translation of the tibia and anterior translation of the femur

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28
Q

The lateral femoral condyle rotates which direction on the tibia during knee flexion?

A

posterior

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29
Q

what position is considered the open packed position of the knee?

A

30 degrees of flexion

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30
Q

Which direction do the menisci move during knee extension?

A

Anterior

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31
Q

What are the 3 common occurrences for patient that reported low back pain compared to those who do not?

A

Reduced lumbar ROM
Move more slowly
Have reduced proprioception

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32
Q

LBP has a high rate of reoccurrence. T or F?

A

True

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33
Q

Treatment of LBP focused on the intervertebral disc should focus on what treatment?

A

Direction Specific exercise

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34
Q

Treatment of LBP focused on the Facet or SI joint should focus on what treatment?

A

Joint manipulation

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35
Q

Treatment of LBP focused on motor control should focus on what treatment?

A

Stability & motor control exercises

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36
Q

Treatment of LBP focused on central sensitization should focus on what treatment?

A

cognitive behavior therapy

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37
Q

IVD deform opposite to _________

A

Load

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38
Q

The nucleus pulposus deforms in the direction opposite to the ________

A

motion

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39
Q

If the spine flexes the nucleus pulposus moves ?

A

posterior

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40
Q

IF the spine extends what direction does the nucleus pulposus move?

A

Anterior

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41
Q

If you laterally flex your spine does the nucleus pulposus move contralateral or ipsilateral?

A

Contralateral

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42
Q

The IVD store energy from rotation and releases that energy to help drive what?

A

Our gait

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43
Q

Put these in order from least force on the IVDs to the most-
Coughing
Lifting 22.5 lbs
Forward bending 40 degrees
Holding 1lbs at arms length
Lying supine
Standing erect
Sitting in an unsupported position
Sitting in a supported position

A

lying supine- 250 N
Sitting supported- 400 N
Standing erect- 500 N
Sitting unsupported- 700 N
Coughing- 700 N
Forward bending 40 degrees- 1000 N
Lifting 22.5 lbs- 1700 N
Holding 11lbs at arms length- 1900 N

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44
Q

What are the lumbar disc shapes?

A

Ovoid Disc- Circular, thinner spines, more diffuse nucleus deformation
Limacon- bean shaped, thicker spines, more focal deformation

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45
Q

3 ways the IVD can cause symptoms are?

A

Direct injur to annulus fibrosis
Mechanical pressure & Chemical irritation affecting IVFs
Loss of disc height

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46
Q

Define radiculitis

A

Radicular or Radiating pain. Sensory changes due to ectopic discharges from a nerve due to inflammation

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47
Q

Define Radiculopathy

A

compression or a nerve that results in motor weakness

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48
Q

Pain originating from the spine that refers distally is called what?

A

Peripheralization

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49
Q

Symptoms moving back towards the midline of the spine is what?

A

Centralization

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50
Q

The bigger the herniation the more likely it will ________ ____________

A

spontaneously resorb

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51
Q

Repeated movement testing is performed and if centralization or a direction preference is identified, they are placed into this category. What treatment category is this?

A

DIRECTION SPECIFIC EXERCISE

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52
Q

What is unique about the lumbar facets superior to inferior?

A

Primarily lie in a sagittal plane in the upper lumbar and changes to a coronal plane in the lower lumbar

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53
Q

Anterior rotation + Anterior translation = What in the spine

A

Flexion

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54
Q

Anterior translation of vertebrae is limited by what?

A

bony facet joints

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55
Q

anterior rotation is limited by ??

A

Posterior annulus fibrosus & posterior ligament

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56
Q

Posterior Rotation + Posterior Translation= what is the spine

A

Extension

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57
Q

Lumbar extension is limited by the approximation of the __________ and __________

A

articular processes
spinous processes

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58
Q

What limits side bending in the lumbar spine

A

Intertransverse ligament
Capsule of the contralateral facet joint
Approximation of the ipsilateral facet joint

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59
Q

In a neutral position- rotation is limited by 2 things. What are they?

A

Approximation of the facet joint surfaces
limited by tension in the joint capsule, annulus
fibrosus, & PLL.

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60
Q

If the vertebral body rotates to the left, what happens that limits the rotation?

A

joint surfaces of the right facet approximate
joint capsule of the left facet is stretched/under tension

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61
Q

What is the open packed position for the lumbar spine?

A

Flexion & rotation toward the same side

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62
Q

What is the closed packed position for the lumbar spine?

A

extension & rotation toward the same side

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63
Q

What is the degrees of ROM seen in rotation for the scarum?

A

Between 1-8 degrees, avg of 2 to 3 degrees

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64
Q

What are the 3 types of SI joint motion?

A

Symmetrical motion
Asymmetrical motion
Lumbopelvic motion

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65
Q

Antagonistic movement of each innominate relative to the sacrum, which includes movement at the symphysis pubis. What motion is this describing?

A

Asymmetrical motion

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66
Q

Movement of both innominates relative to the sacrum. What motion is this describing?

A

Symmetrical motion

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67
Q

Combined movement of the innominates and the spine as a unit around the femoral heads. What motion is this describing?

A

Lumbopelvic Motion

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68
Q

What are the two movements associated with the SI joint and symmetrical motion?

A

Nutation
Counter-nutation

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69
Q

Forces from above and below pass through the body in what direction relative to the sacrum?

A

Anterior

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70
Q

How do the superior and inferior forces act on the sacrum?

A

Upper body weight tries to tip the sacrum forward
Ground forces tend to rotate the innominate bones backward

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71
Q

Extension of the trunk from standing combines extension of the lumbar vertebrae with ________ rotation of the pelvis on the fixed femurs.

A

posterior

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72
Q

Flexion of the trunk from standing combines flexion of the lumbar vertebrae with _______ rotation of the pelvis on the fixed femurs.

A

forward

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73
Q

What factors can limited lumbopelvic flexion?

A

Hamstring stiffness (limits anterior pelvic rotation)
Excessive lumbar flexion (increased load on discs/ligs)
Weakness in hip flexors (lack of anterior pelvic rotaiton)

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74
Q

What factors can limit lumbopelvic extension?

A

Tension in iliolumbar ligaments
“tightness” in the hip flexors (anterior tilt of the pelvis)

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75
Q

What are the two self locking mechanisms of the SI joint?

A

Form closure
Force closure

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76
Q

The sacrum acting as a “keystone”, locks the innominates in place providing bony structural stability. What is this?

A

Form closure

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77
Q

The surrounding ligaments and muscles exert some type of forces through the SIJ providing additional stability. What is this?

A

Force closure

78
Q

What is the cluster of tests that research shows should be used to confirm a diagnosis of SIJ as the source of a patient’s problem is what? What tests are they?

A

Cluster of Laslett

  1. SI Joint Distraction
  2. Thigh Thrust
  3. Sacral Thrust
  4. The Drop Test
  5. Gaenslen’s
  6. Iliac Compression
79
Q

What 3 criteria are needed to diagnose a patient into a Joint Manipulation Treatment category?

A
  1. If unable to centralize pain through
    repeated movements
  2. Positive Z-joint clinical features
  3. (3>) Cluster of positive SIJ provocation test
80
Q

Most injuries to the spine happen outside of the ____ plane

81
Q

What are the “inner core” muscles?

A
  • Multifidus
  • Diaphram
  • Pelvic floor
  • Transverse abdominus
82
Q

What are the “outer core” muscles?

A
  • Rectus abdominus
  • Abdominal obliques * Latissimus dorsi
  • Gluteus maximus
  • Adductors
  • Hamstrings
  • Quadriceps
  • Psoas
  • Quadratus lumborum * Spinal erectors (ILS)
83
Q

What are the differences between inner core and outer core musculature?

A

Inner core- Stabilizers, endurance muscles, low loads, anticipatory control

Outer core- Prime movers, short duration, heavy load, secondary contraction

84
Q

This is the first portion of the core to contract prior to any movement and is reflex driven

A

Inner core

85
Q

What muscle minimizes posterior shear in the lumbar spine?

A

Multifidus

86
Q

What muscle has the role of increasing intra-abdominal pressure for strategic in stabilizing the low back?

A

Transverse Abdominus

87
Q

What are the major extensors of the thoracolumbar spine?

A

Longissimus & iliocostalis

(also functions to resist any anterior shear forces of the upper vertebrae)

88
Q

What is the direct connection between the bony spine & the deep abdominal muscles while also providing critical support to the spine during lumbar flexion & lifting activities.

A

Thoracolumbar Fascia

89
Q

What are the requirements with the cluster of laslette to achieve a probability of having SIJ pain of 77%?

A

3 or more positive SIJ tests whose symptoms do not centralize.

90
Q

What are the primary functions of the iliofemoral joint?

A
  1. Support the weight of the head, arms, and trunk (HAT)
  2. Transmit forces between the lower extremity and the trunk
91
Q

What direction does the acetabulum face?

A

-Anteriorly
* Laterally
* Inferiorly

92
Q

What does the general positioning of the acetabulum prevent?

A

posterior dislocation

93
Q

The femoral head’s positional orientation faces

A

medial and superiorly

94
Q

What planes and what degree are the angle of inclination & torsion angle?

A

AOI- Frontal plane, ~125 degrees
TA- Transverse angle, ~15 degrees

95
Q

What is Coxa Valga?

A

AOI >125 degrees

96
Q

What is Coxa Vara?

A

AOI <125 degrees

97
Q

What does Coxa Valga cause for changes in the body?

A
  1. Hip abductor muscles are at a disadvantage through a reduced moment arm.
  2. The joint reaction force is displaced laterally in the
    acetabulum and is applied over a smaller joint surface. This increases joint stress > risk of DJD
98
Q

What does Coxa Vara cause for changes in the body?

A
  1. Lengthens the moment arm of the hip abductors. Reducing the force required of the hip abductors; increasing fatigue in the antagonist muscles.
  2. Increases the compressive forces on the medial aspect of the femoral neck: Increasing risk for stress fractures of the femoral neck
99
Q

What does each femoral neck variations have for pros and cons?

A

Vara- Increased stability, Decreased mobility, increased risk of femoral neck stress Fx
Valga- Decreased Stability, increased mobility, Greater risk of dislocation

100
Q

In the adult the femoral neck and head face what direction?

A

Anteriorly

101
Q

What direction does the greater trochanter face?

A

Posterolateral

102
Q

Angle between the axis through the femoral head and the axis through the femoral condyles is called what?

A

Femoral Torsion Angle

103
Q

Greater than 15 degrees of medial rotation femoral torsion angle is called?

A

Anteversion

104
Q

Less than 10 degrees of medial rotation femoral torsion angle is called?

A

Retroversion

105
Q

What does anteversion cause?

A

-places the center of the femoral head farther anteriorly in the acetabulum than normal
-Compensation: Medial rotation of the hip positions the femoral head in a more centrated position within the acetabulum providing a better sense of stability.
-Toed-in posture (if not treated with another compensation)
-Patient shows increased medial rotation ROM & a decrease in lateral rotation

106
Q

What does retroversion cause?

A

-places the center of the femoral head farther posterior in the acetabulum than normal.
-Compensation Lateral rotation of the hip positions the femoral head in a more centrated position in the acetabulum providing better mobility.
-Excessive toeing-out
-Increased lateral rotation ROM of the hip, diminished medial rotation ROM
-increase the risk of slipped capital femoral ephiphysis in adolescents

107
Q

What are the 3 classifications of FAI?

A

Cam
Pincer
Mixed

108
Q

What provides passive stability to the hip joint?

A

Labrum and ligaments

109
Q

What provides dynamic stability to the hip?

A

Muscles crossing the hip

110
Q

What does the labrum do under weight-bearing?

A

Deforms around the femoral head, stabilizes the head, rate of deformation is inversely proportionate to amount of load

111
Q

Name the 3 ligaments of the hip joint capsule

A

anterior- iliofemoral lig, pubofemoral lig
Posterior- ischiofemoral lig

112
Q

Why are the ligament of the hip coiled?

A

Due to rotation of the hip during fetal development
When stretched the fibers clamp onto the femoral neck/head

113
Q

The iliofemoral ligament prevents…

A

-excessive extension and medial rotation
ROM of the hip joint.
* The superior portion limits adduction ROM.

114
Q

The pubofemoral ligament prevents…

A

Limits excessive extension and abduction ROM

115
Q

The isciofemoral ligament prevents…

A

Reinforces the capsule posteriorly.
* The posterior fibers limit:
1. medial rotation of the hip.
2. posterior glide of the femoral head
3. adduction ROM when the hip is flexed.

116
Q

With the hip flexed the joint is pushed….?

A

posterior and further into the acetabulum

117
Q

What is the OPP for the hip?

A

-Flexion 30 degrees
-Abduction 30 degrees
-Slight external rotation

118
Q

What is the CPP for the hip?

A

-Hip extension
-Slight internal rotation
-Slight ADDuction

119
Q

What are the AROM for the hip?

A
  • Flexion 120 ̊
  • Extension 20 ̊
  • Abduction 45 ̊
  • Adduction 30 ̊
  • Internal Rotation 30-40 ̊ * External Rotation 45 ̊
120
Q

the ideal loading of a joint in a neutral position that enables optimal loading.

A

Joint centration

121
Q

Causes the joint to be displaced from the ideal centrated position

A

Decentration

122
Q

What are the coupled motions for Hip Flexion?

A

requires the head of the femur to roll anterior and slide posterior and inferior

123
Q

What are the coupled motions for Hip extension?

A

requires the head of the femur to roll posterior and slide anterior and superior

124
Q

What are the coupled motions for Hip medial rotation?

A

requires the head of the femur to roll anterior and slide posterior

125
Q

What are the coupled motions for Hip lateral rotation?

A

requires the head of the femur to roll posterior and slide anterior

126
Q

What are the coupled motions for Hip Abduction?

A

requires the femoral head rolls superior and slides inferior

127
Q

What are the coupled motions for Hip Adduction?

A

Requires the femoral head rolls inferior and slides superior.

128
Q

What is the significant detail of open versus closed chain movement in relation to the femur and acetabulum?

A

Closed kinetic chain the pelvis/acetabulum moves over the femur instead of the femur moving through the pelvis

129
Q

What do the hips do during lumbopelvic extension in a closed kinetic chain?

A

Hips externally rotate

130
Q

what do the hips do during lumbopelvic flexion in a closed kinetic chain?

A

Hips internally rotate

131
Q

“Hip drop” (depressed pelvis) causes relative iliofemoral ______ on the ipsilateral side

132
Q

“Hip hike” (elevated pelvis) causes relative iliofemoral ______ on the ipsilateral side

133
Q

When the leg supporting the weight of the body on the lesioned side causes the pelvis to rises ipsilaterally. This presentation is more accurately a dipping of the pelvis towards the contralateral side. (hip drop on the unsupported leg). What is this called?

A

TRENDELENBURG SIGN

134
Q

External rotation of the pelvis produces relative ___________ rotation of the ipsilateral femur

A

internal (medial)

135
Q

Internal rotation of the pelvis produces relative _________ rotation of the ipsilateral femur

A

external (lateral)

136
Q

Impingement typically occurs with excessive motion individually or a lesser degree of combined motions of the _______, ___________, and ____________.

A

hip flexion, adduction, and medial rotation.

137
Q

Adequate eccentric strength is needed of the psoas to prevent iliacus from pulling the pelvis into an __________

A

anterior tilt

138
Q

Psoas shares a common midline connection with the quadratus lumborum and works with the QL to _____________________________-

A

stabilize the spine in the frontal plane

139
Q

Name a posterior muscle that contributes to motion in all 3 planes

A

Gluteus Maximus

140
Q

The _________ portion of the gluteus maximus contributes to aBduction of the hip

141
Q

The _________ portion of the gluteus maximus contributes to aDduction of the hip

142
Q

The entire gluteus maximus muscle lies posterior to the axis of medial and lateral rotation, therefore, the muscle is a lateral rotator of the hip joint with the hip ________.

143
Q

As the hip flexes, the moment arm for lateral rotation decreases, and by the time the hip reaches 90 of flexion, the superior portion of the gluteus maximus actually has a _____________- moment arm.

A

medial rotation

144
Q

The inferior fibers will maintain what movement irregardless of position?

A

Lateral/External rotation

145
Q

Clinicians can enhance gluteus maximus recruitment during exercise by combining hip hyperextension with ________ and _____________.

A

aBduction; Lateral rotation

146
Q

The gluteus medius undoubtedly is an abductor of the hip but, when the hip is flexed, however, virtually the whole muscle contributes to ________ __________ and has little or no capacity to abduct the hip.

A

medial rotation

147
Q

The Gmed is strongest in 10 degrees of hip ________ when these type of motions are most prevalent during gait.

148
Q

An adductor’s primary function is to ___________ ______ _________ during weight shifting from one limb to the other during single leg stance.

A

stabilize the pelvis

149
Q

What are the lateral rotators of the hip?

A

Quadratus Femoris
Gemelli
Obturator Internus
Obturator Externus
Piriformis
Gluteus Maximus

150
Q

The piriformis appears to change from a ________ rotator with the hip extended to a _________ rotator with the hip flexed greater than 60 degrees.

A

lateral; medial

151
Q

There are no muscles at the hip whose primary and consistent action is ______ _____ of the hip. The muscles that _______ _______ the hip depend on hip position and are intimately related to the function of the knee.

A

medial rotation; medial rotation

152
Q

What part of the knee plays no part in the arthrokinematic movements?

A

Tibiofibular joint

153
Q

What are the normal ROM for knee flexion and extension?

A

0-135/155 degrees. Possible hyperextension of up to 15 degrees

154
Q

What is the OPP of the knee?

A

30 degrees of flexion

155
Q

What is the CPP of the knee?

A

full extension

156
Q

The _______ femoral condyle is larger than the ______ condyle

A

medial; lateral

157
Q

The _______ condyle extends farther distally than the _______ femoral condyle when the femur is positioned vertically.

A

medial; lateral

158
Q

The medial condyle is slightly curved which serves the medial condyle being the __________ ___ _________ and to match the shorter radius

A

center of rotation

159
Q

Which articular surfaces are largest in the knee joint?

A

The articular surfaces of the femur are larger than the tibia articular surfaces.

160
Q

Which plateau of the tibia bears more weight?

A

Medial plateau

161
Q

During Knee flexion:
* The femur rolls _______.
* The femur slides _____ on the tibia
* Contact and compressive loads progressively increase on the ______ tibia as the knee increases flexion

A

posterior
anterior
posterior

162
Q

During knee extension:
* The femur rolls _______
* The femur slides ______ on the tibia
* Contact and compressive loads progressively increase on the ______ tibia as the knee moves from flexion to extension.

A

anterior
posterior
anterior

163
Q

What factors cause the lateral femoral condyle to glide posterior during knee flexion?

A

Medial condyle is the center of rotation, lateral condyle must glide
Lateral rotation of the femur during hip flexion

164
Q

What is the last 20-30 degrees of knee extension called?

A

Terminal Knee Extension (TKE)

165
Q

What occurs during the “screw home mechanism”

A

Tibia ER on the femur (Open Kinetic Chain)
Femur IR on the Tibia (Closed Kinetic Chain)

166
Q

–Approximately 5° of __________ with respect to the tibia occurs with knee flexion

A

femoral abduction

167
Q

What is the function of the patella femoral joint?

A

Acts as a pulley by lengthening the moment arm of quadriceps

168
Q

The patella glides _____ during knee flexion 5–7 cm. There also is a slight _____ translation of the patella at the beginning of flexion, but by 30° of knee flexion the patella has begun _____ translation that continues to increase at least until 45° of flexion.

A

inferiorly; medial ; lateral

169
Q

Quadriceps femoris strength as a whole is correlated with the presence or absence of _______ ______ ______.

A

anterior knee pain

170
Q

The greater the ________ the greater the valgus deformity and increased risk for ________ _______.

A

Q-angle; patella subluxation

171
Q

Excessive deviation of the patella medially or laterally is known as medial or lateral tracking. Excessive lateral tracking is associated with _______________ __________ and _________ __________.

A

chondromalacia patellae and patellofemoral pain

172
Q

Patella sitting higher than average is called?

A

Patella Alta

173
Q

Pattela sitting lower than average is called?

A

Patella Baja

174
Q

Patella sitting more medial or lateral than normal?

A

Patella Tracking

175
Q

What are the passive stabilizers of the knee?

A

Menisci
Ligaments

176
Q

What are the dynamic stabilizers of the knee?

A

Hamstrings
Quadriceps
IT Band
Adductors

177
Q

primary functions of the menisci is to?

A
  1. Absorb and distribute compressive forces
  2. Stabilize the joint
178
Q

What are the depth differences in the menisci?

A

Medial meniscus is shallow
Lateral meniscus is deeper

179
Q

The medial menisci’s accessory attachment is the _______
The lateral menisci’s accessory attachment is the _______

A

MCL
Popliteus muscle tendon

180
Q

Which menisci has less mobility and is more frequently injured?

181
Q

prevents posterior displacement of the femur on the tibia (anterior displacement of the tibia in relationship to the femur)

182
Q

prevents anterior displacement of the femur on the tibia (posterior displacement of
the tibia)

183
Q

prevents valgus movement and rotation

184
Q

prevents varus movement and rotation

185
Q

Extensors stronger than flexors throughout the range of motion. Research indicates a 2:1 quadriceps:hamstring ratio _______.

A

reduces knee symptoms

186
Q

Alignment of the knee is affected by the alignment of the ____, _____, and ____.

A

hip, ankle, and foot.

187
Q

The knees are closer to the midline, while the feet rest further away from the midline.

A

Genu Valgum

188
Q

The knees are further from the midline, while the feet are closer to the midline.

A

Genu Varum

189
Q

Hyperextension of the knee

A

Genu Recurvatum

190
Q

The greater the_______ the greater the valgus
deformity

191
Q

Male Q-angle= ???
Female Q-angle= ???

A

10-15 degrees
15-20 degrees

NMS 1 (5 decks)

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